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  • Populating ComboBoxDataColumn items and values

    - by MarceloRamires
    I have a "populate combobox", and I'm so happy with it that I've even started using more comboboxes. It takes the combobox object by reference with the ID of the "value set" (or whatever you want to call it) from a table and adds the items and their respective values (which differ) and does the job. I've recently had the brilliant idea of using comboboxes in a gridview, and I was happy to notice that it worked JUST LIKE a single combobox, but populating all the comboboxes in the given column at the same time. ObjComboBox.Items.Add("yadayada"); //works just like ObjComboBoxColumn.Items.Add("blablabla"); But When I started planning how to populate these comboboxes I've noticed: There's no "Values" property in ComboBoxDataColumn. ObjComboBox.Values = whateverArray; //works, but the following doesn't ObjComboBoxColumn.Values = whateverArray; Questions: 0 - How do I populate it's values ? (I suspect it's just as simple, but uses another name) 1 - If it works just like a combobox, what's the explanation for not having this attribute ? -----[EDIT]------ So I've checked out Charles' quote, and I've figured I had to change my way of populating these bad boys. Instead of looping through the strings and inserting them one by one in the combobox, I should grab the fields I want to populate in a table, and set one column of the table as the "value", and other one as the "display". So I've done this: ObjComboBoxColumn.DataSource = DTConfig; //Double checked, guaranteed to be populated ObjComboBoxColumn.ValueMember = "Code"; ObjComboBoxColumn.DisplayMember = "Description"; But nothing happens, if I use the same object as so: ObjComboBoxColumn.Items.Add("StackOverflow"); It is added. There is no DataBind() function. It finds the two columns, and that's guaranteed ("Code" and "Description") and if I change their names to nonexistant ones it gives me an exception, so that's a good sign. -----[EDIT]------ I have a table in SQL Server that is something like code  |  text —————    1    | foo    2    | bar It's simple, and with other comboboxes (outside of gridviews) i've successfully populated looping through the rows and adding the texts: ObjComboBox.Items.Add(MyDataTable.Rows[I]["MyColumnName"].ToString()); And getting every value, adding it into an array, and setting it like: ObjComboBox.Values = MyArray; I'd like to populate my comboboxColumns just as simply as I do with comboboxes.

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  • ASP.NET MVC 2.0 Unused Model Property being called when posting a product to the server?

    - by Erx_VB.NExT.Coder
    i have my auto-generated linq to sql classes, and i extend this class using partial classing (instead of using inheritance), and i have properties that that i've put in later which are not part of the database model and should not be. these are things like "FinalPrice" and "DisplayFinalPrice" - in the dbase, there is only RetailPrice and WholesalePrice so FinalPrice etc are more like extensions of the dbase fields. when i submit the form with nothing filled in, "FinalPrice" gets called (the 'get' of the property) even tho i never ask for it to be, and even tho it is not needed. this happens before validation, so i don't even get the validation errors i would get. i've tried using and on the FinalPrice and FinalPriceDisplay properties - no go! why does this happen and how can i stop it from happening? is the modelstate just trying to validate everything so therefore it calls every item no matter what? for those interested, here is all the code... Partial Public Class tProduct 'Inherits tProduct Private Const CommissionMultiplier As Decimal = CDec(1.18) Private _FinalPrice As Decimal? Private _DisplayFinalPrice As String Private _DisplayNormalPrice As String Public Property CategoryComplete As Short <ScaffoldColumn(False)> Public ReadOnly Property FinalPrice As Decimal Get 'If RetailPrice IsNot Nothing OrElse WholesalePrice IsNot Nothing Then If _FinalPrice Is Nothing Then If RetailPrice IsNot Nothing Then _FinalPrice = RetailPrice Else _FinalPrice = WholesalePrice * CommissionMultiplier ' TODO: this should be rounded to the nearest 5th cent so prices don't look weird. End If Dim NormalPart = Decimal.Floor(_FinalPrice.Value) Dim DecimalPart = _FinalPrice.Value - NormalPart If DecimalPart = 0 OrElse DecimalPart = 0.5 Then Return _FinalPrice ElseIf DecimalPart > 0 AndAlso DecimalPart < 0.5 Then DecimalPart = 0.5 ' always rounded up to the nearest 50 cents. ElseIf DecimalPart > 0.5 AndAlso DecimalPart < 1 Then ' Only in this case round down if its about to be rounded up to a valeu like 20, 30 or 50 etc as we want most prices to end in 9. If NormalPart.ToString.LastChr.ToInt = 9 Then DecimalPart = 0.5 Else DecimalPart = 1 End If End If _FinalPrice = NormalPart + DecimalPart End If Return _FinalPrice 'End If End Get End Property <ScaffoldColumn(False)> Public ReadOnly Property DisplayFinalPrice As String Get If _DisplayFinalPrice.IsNullOrEmpty Then _DisplayFinalPrice = FormatCurrency(FinalPrice, 2, TriState.True) End If Return _DisplayFinalPrice End Get End Property Public ReadOnly Property DisplayNormalPrice As String Get If _DisplayNormalPrice.IsNullOrEmpty Then _DisplayNormalPrice = FormatCurrency(NormalPrice, 2, TriState.True) End If Return _DisplayNormalPrice End Get End Property Public ReadOnly Property DivID As String Get Return "pdiv" & ProductID End Get End Property End Class more... i get busted here, with a null reference exception telling me it should contain a value... Dim NormalPart = Decimal.Floor(_FinalPrice.Value)

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  • Advice on displaying and allowing editing of data using ASP.NET MVC?

    - by Remnant
    I am embarking upon my first ASP.NET MVC project and I would like to get some input on possible ways to display database data and general best practice. In short, the body of my webpage will show data from my database in a table like format, with each table row showing similar data. For example: Name Age Position Date Joined Jon Smith 23 Striker 18th Mar 2005 John Doe 38 Defender 3rd Jan 1988 In terms of functionality, primarily I’d like to give the user the ability to edit the data and, after the edit, commit the edit to the database and refresh the view.The reason I want to refresh the view is because the data is date ordered and I will need to re-sort if the user edits a date field. My main question is what architecture / tools would be best suited to this fulfil my requirements at a high level? From the research I have done so far my initial conclusions were: ADO.NET for data retrieval. This is something I have used before and feel comfortable with. I like the look of LINQ to SQL but don’t want to make the learning curve any steeper for my first outing into MVC land just yet. Partial Views to create a template and then iterate through a datatable that I have pulled back from my database model. jQuery to allow the user to edit data in the table, error check edited data entries etc. Also, my intial view was that caching the data would not be a key requirement here. The only field a user will be able to update is the field and, if they do, I will need to commit that data to the database immediately and then refresh the view (as the data is date sorted). Any thoughts on this? Alternatively, I have seen some jQuery plug-ins that emulate a datagrid and provide associated functionality. My first thoughts are that I do not need all the functionality that comes with these plug-ins (e.g. zebra striping, ability to sort by column using sort glyph in column headers etc .) and I don’t really see any benefit to this over and above the solution I have outlined above. Again, is there reason to reconsider this view? Finally, when a user edits a date , I will need to refresh the view. In order to do this I had been reading about Html.RenderAction and this seemed like it may be a better option than using Partial Views as I can incorporate application logic into the action method. Am I right to consider Html.RenderAction or have I misunderstood its usage? Hope this post is clear and not too long. I did consider separate posts for each topic (e.g. Partial View vs. Html.RenderAction, when to use jQury datagrid plug-in) but it feels like these issues are so intertwined that they need to be dealt with in contect of each other. Thanks

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  • ASP.NET MVC hosting problem, routing, handlers and modules

    - by johnabs
    Hi, This is one of them again, hosting with fasthosts. I recently purchased a windows developer package from them. When I tried to deploy my ASP.NET 3.5 MVC project, which was working fine with the same host on a reseller account, it is not working. The reason to move from reseller to a normal Windows Developer package is, the MS-SQL server database is too expensive in a reseller account, strange! I contact them, and they are saying they upgraded the control panel. The technical support said, I need to disable the Modules and Handlers from the web.config file. Also I need to deploy them as .dll files. I am not sure how to do that. The website is partially working now. I think the problem is now with the routing. I have not deployed any .dlls apart from the System.Web.Mvc.dll, System.Web.Routing.dll and System.Web.Abstractions.dll. I have not got a clue on how to deploy the Modules and Handlers. The code that I commented on the web.config file is as follows. <!--<modules runAllManagedModulesForAllRequests="true"> <remove name="ScriptModule" /> <remove name="UrlRoutingModule" /> <add name="ScriptModule" preCondition="managedHandler" type="System.Web.Handlers.ScriptModule, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35"/> <add name="UrlRoutingModule" type="System.Web.Routing.UrlRoutingModule, System.Web.Routing, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" /> </modules> <handlers> <remove name="WebServiceHandlerFactory-Integrated"/> <remove name="ScriptHandlerFactory" /> <remove name="ScriptHandlerFactoryAppServices" /> <remove name="ScriptResource" /> <remove name="MvcHttpHandler" /> <remove name="UrlRoutingHandler" /> <add name="ScriptHandlerFactory" verb="*" path="*.asmx" preCondition="integratedMode" type="System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptHandlerFactory, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35"/> <add name="ScriptHandlerFactoryAppServices" verb="*" path="*_AppService.axd" preCondition="integratedMode" type="System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptHandlerFactory, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35"/> <add name="ScriptResource" preCondition="integratedMode" verb="GET,HEAD" path="ScriptResource.axd" type="System.Web.Handlers.ScriptResourceHandler, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" /> <add name="MvcHttpHandler" preCondition="integratedMode" verb="*" path="*.mvc" type="System.Web.Mvc.MvcHttpHandler, System.Web.Mvc, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35"/> <add name="UrlRoutingHandler" preCondition="integratedMode" verb="*" path="UrlRouting.axd" type="System.Web.HttpForbiddenHandler, System.Web, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a" /> </handlers>--> Anybody got any ideas please. Thank you for your time.

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  • Return pre-UPDATE column values in PostgreSQL without using triggers, functions or other "magic"

    - by Python Larry
    I have a related question, but this is another part of MY puzzle. I would like to get the OLD VALUE of a Column from a Row that was UPDATEd... WITHOUT using Triggers (nor Stored Procedures, nor any other extra, non-SQL/-query entities). The query I have is like this: UPDATE my_table SET processing_by = our_id_info -- unique to this instance WHERE trans_nbr IN ( SELECT trans_nbr FROM my_table GROUP BY trans_nbr HAVING COUNT(trans_nbr) > 1 LIMIT our_limit_to_have_single_process_grab ) RETURNING row_id If I could do "FOR UPDATE ON my_table" at the end of the subquery, that'd be devine (and fix my other question/problem). But, that won't work: can't have this AND a "GROUP BY" (which is necessary for figuring out the COUNT of trans_nbr's). Then I could just take those trans_nbr's and do a query first to get the (soon-to-be-) former processing_by values. I've tried doing like: UPDATE my_table SET processing_by = our_id_info -- unique to this instance FROM my_table old_my_table JOIN ( SELECT trans_nbr FROM my_table GROUP BY trans_nbr HAVING COUNT(trans_nbr) > 1 LIMIT our_limit_to_have_single_process_grab ) sub_my_table ON old_my_table.trans_nbr = sub_my_table.trans_nbr WHERE my_table.trans_nbr = sub_my_table.trans_nbr AND my_table.processing_by = old_my_table.processing_by RETURNING my_table.row_id, my_table.processing_by, old_my_table.processing_by But that can't work; "old_my_table" is not viewable outside of the join; the RETURNING clause is blind to it. I've long since lost count of all the attempts I've made; I have been researching this for literally hours. If I could just find a bullet-proof way to lock the rows in my subquery - and ONLY those rows, and WHEN the subquery happens - all the concurrency issues I'm trying to avoid disappear... UPDATE: [WIPES EGG OFF FACE] Okay, so I had a typo in the non-generic code of the above that I wrote "doesn't work"; it does... thanks to Erwin Brandstetter, below, who stated it would, I re-did it (after a night's sleep, refreshed eyes, and a banana for bfast). Since it took me so long/hard to find this sort of solution, perhaps my embarrassment is worth it? At least this is on SO for posterity now... : What I now have (that works) is like this: UPDATE my_table SET processing_by = our_id_info -- unique to this instance FROM my_table AS old_my_table WHERE trans_nbr IN ( SELECT trans_nbr FROM my_table GROUP BY trans_nbr HAVING COUNT(*) > 1 LIMIT our_limit_to_have_single_process_grab ) AND my_table.row_id = old_my_table.row_id RETURNING my_table.row_id, my_table.processing_by, old_my_table.processing_by AS old_processing_by The COUNT(*) is per a suggestion from Flimzy in a comment on my other (linked above) question. (I was more specific than necessary. [In this instance.])

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  • What am I missing about WCF?

    - by Bigtoe
    I've been developing in MS technologies for longer than I care to remember at this stage. When .NET arrived on the scene I thought they hit the nail on the head and with each iteration and version I thought their technologies were getting stronger and stronger and looked forward to each release. However, having had to work with WCF for the last year I must say I found the technology very difficult to work with and understand. Initially it's quite appealing but when you start getting into the guts of it, configuration is a nightmare, having to override behaviours for message sizes, number of objects contained in a messages, the complexity of the security model, disposing of proxies when faulted and finally moving back to defining interfaces in code rather than in XML. It just does not work out of the box and I think it should. We found all of the above issues while either testing ourselves or else when our products were out on site. I do understand the rationale behind it all, but surely they could have come up with simpler implementation mechanism. I suppose what I'm asking is, Am I looking at WCF the wrong way? What strengths does it have over the alternatives? Under what circumstances should I choose to use WCF? OK Folks, Sorry about the delay in responding, work does have a nasty habbit of get in the way somethimes :) Some clarifications My main paint point with WCF I suppose falls down into the following areas While it does work out of the box, your left with some major surprises under the hood. As pointed out above basic things are restricted until they are overridden Size of string than can be passed can't be over 8K Number of objects that can be passed in a single message is restricted Proxies not automatically recovering from failures The amount of configuration while it's there is a good thing, but understanding it all and what to use what and under which circumstances can be difficult to understand. Especially when deploying software on site with different security requirements etc. When talking about configuration, we've had to hide lots of ours in a back-end database because security and network people on-site were trying to change things in configuration files without understanding it. Keeping the configuration of the interfaces in code rather than moving to explicitly defined interfaces in XML, which can be published and consumed by almost anything. I know we can export the XML from the assembley, but it's full of rubbish and certain code generators choke on it. I know the world moves on, I've moved on a number of times over the last (ahem 22 years I've been developing) and am actively using WCF, so don't get me wrong, I do understand what it's for and where it's heading. I just think there should be simplier configuration/deployment options available, easier set-up and better management for configuration (SQL config provider maybe, rahter than just the web.config/app.config files). OK, back to the daily grid. Thanks for all your replies so far. Kind Regards Noel

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  • Winforms connection strings from App.config

    - by Geo Ego
    I have a Winforms app that I am developing in C# that will serve as a frontend for a SQL Server 2005 database. I rolled the executable out to a test machine and ran it. It worked perfectly fine on the test machine up until the last round of changes that I made. However, now on the test machine, it throws the following exception immediately upon opening: System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at PSRD_Specs_Database_Administrat.mainMenu.mainMenu_Load(Object sender, EventArgs e) at System.Windows.Forms.Form.OnLoad(EventArgs e) at System.Windows.Forms.Form.OnCreateControl() at System.Windows.Forms.Control.CreateControl(Boolean fIgnoreVisible) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.CreateControl() at System.Windows.Forms.Control.WmShowWindow(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.ScrollableControl.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.ContainerControl.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Form.WmShowWindow(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Form.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.ControlNativeWindow.OnMessage(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.ControlNativeWindow.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.NativeWindow.Callback(IntPtr hWnd, Int32 msg, IntPtr wparam, IntPtr lparam) The only thing that I changed in this version that pertains to mainMenu_Load is the way that the connection string to the database is called. Previously, I had set a string with the connection string on every form that I needed to call it from, like: string conString = "Data Source = SHAREPOINT;Trusted_Connection = yes;" + "database = CustomerDatabase;connection timeout = 15"; As my app grew and I added forms to it, I decided to add an App.config to the project. I defined the connection string in it: <connectionStrings> <add name="conString" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient" connectionString="Data Source = SHAREPOINT;Trusted_Connection = yes;database = CustomerDatabase;connection timeout = 15" /> </connectionStrings> I then created a static string that would return the conString: public static string GetConnectionString(string conName) { string strReturn = string.Empty; if (!(string.IsNullOrEmpty(conName))) { strReturn = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings[conName].ConnectionString; } else { strReturn = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["conString"].ConnectionString; } return strReturn; } I removed the conString variable and now call the connection string like so: PublicMethods.GetConnectionString("conString").ToString() It appears that this is giving me the error. I changed these instances to directly call the connection string from App.config without using GetConnectionString. For instance, in a SQLConnection: using (SqlConnection con = new SqlConnection(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["conString"].ConnectionString)) This also threw the exception. However, when I went back to using the conString variable on each form, I had no issues. What I don't understand is why all three methods work fine on my development machine, while using the App.config directly or via the static string I created throw exceptions.

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  • please explain NHibernate HiLo

    - by Ben
    I'm struggling to get my head round how the HiLo generator works in NHibernate. I've read the explanation here which made things a little clearer. My understanding is that each SessionFactory retrieves the high value from the database. This improves performance because we have access to IDs without hitting the database. The explanation from the above link also states: For instance, supposing you have a "high" sequence with a current value of 35, and the "low" number is in the range 0-1023. Then the client can increment the sequence to 36 (for other clients to be able to generate keys while it's using 35) and know that keys 35/0, 35/1, 35/2, 35/3... 35/1023 are all available. How does this work in a web application as don't I only have one SessionFactory and therefore one hi value. Does this mean that in a disconnected application you can end up with duplicate (low) ids in your entity table? In my tests I used these settings: <id name="Id" unsaved-value="0"> <generator class="hilo"/> </id> I ran a test to save 100 objects. The IDs in my table went from 32768 - 32868. The next hi value was incremented to 2. Then I ran my test again and the Ids were in the range 65536 - 65636. First off, why start at 32768 and not 1, and secondly why the jump from 32868 to 65536? Now I know that my surrogate keys shouldn't have any meaning but we do use them in our application. Why can't I just have them increment nicely like a SQL Server identity field would. Finally can someone give me an explanation of how the max_lo parameter works? Is this the maximum number of low values (entity ids in my head) that can be created against the high value? This is one topic in NHibernate that I have struggled to find documentation for. I read the entire NHibernate in action book and it still doesn't go into how this works in any detail. Thanks Ben

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  • Exporting a report from Crystal 8.5 causes the report to first refresh, then export, with unexpected

    - by LittleBobbyTables
    We have a VB6 application that can generate reports using the Crystal Reports 8.5 runtime. To generate one of the more complicated reports we have, the VB app does the following: Deletes records from a SQL table (we'll call it Foo) based on the session ID of the user Performs a select statement, and populates the Foo table with the contents of the select statement. Massages the data in Foo. Executes the report (we'll call it Bar). The Bar report uses the Foo table as part of some outer joins to get some descriptions. After the report is opened and populated, the code then deletes the records in Foo. If you ever look in Foo there will be no data since it is always purged at the end, but the Crystal Report will still have the data, since Foo wasn't cleared out until after the report ran. Most sites can export this report afterwards, to either PDF or Excel, with no issue. One site, however, has two servers in production where if you attempt to export the Bar report (doesn't matter what format it is exported to), the report will visibly refresh and then export the report in the requested format. This refresh, however, causes the exported data to be invalid because the report is still doing the outer joins to the Foo table, which is now empty. I'm at a total loss why the report refreshes before printing on these two servers. One server has Crystal Reports 8.5 installed on it as well as the Crystal Reports 8.5 runtime (so they can modify reports). The other server only has the Crystal Reports 8.5 runtime (so you can generate reports from the VB application, but can't modify them on that server). Both of the servers belong to a French site. Another support staff here said the issue sounded vaguely familiar to an issue a few years ago, and suggested re-registering DLLs. I have tried unregistering and re-registering the following DLLs out of frustration: Crystl32.ocx crxlat32.dll cpeau32.dll exportmodeller.dll crtslv.dll atl.dll Unregistering and re-registering the above DLLs does not fix the issue. If we take the problem report, and run it on any of our development or QA servers, we have no issues; the report does NOT refresh before exporting, and the data looks consistent. It seems like a server or regional setting may be causing this, but what could possibly cause the report to refresh before exporting on only two of our servers? The most obvious solution is to simply alter the code so the Foo table isn't purged after the report is run, only when the report is run, but this is a production issue, the customer wants a fix now, and there's quite a few hoops to jump through to make the change.

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  • Good Secure Backups Developers at Home

    - by slashmais
    What is a good, secure, method to do backups, for programmers who do research & development at home and cannot afford to lose any work? Conditions: The backups must ALWAYS be within reasonably easy reach. Internet connection cannot be guaranteed to be always available. The solution must be either FREE or priced within reason, and subject to 2 above. Status Report This is for now only considering free options. The following open-source projects are suggested in the answers (here & elsewhere): BackupPC is a high-performance, enterprise-grade system for backing up Linux, WinXX and MacOSX PCs and laptops to a server's disk. Storebackup is a backup utility that stores files on other disks. mybackware: These scripts were developed to create SQL dump files for basic disaster recovery of small MySQL installations. Bacula is [...] to manage backup, recovery, and verification of computer data across a network of computers of different kinds. In technical terms, it is a network based backup program. AutoDL 2 and Sec-Bk: AutoDL 2 is a scalable transport independant automated file transfer system. It is suitable for uploading files from a staging server to every server on a production server farm [...] Sec-Bk is a set of simple utilities to securely back up files to a remote location, even a public storage location. rsnapshot is a filesystem snapshot utility for making backups of local and remote systems. rbme: Using rsync for backups [...] you get perpetual incremental backups that appear as full backups (for each day) and thus allow easy restore or further copying to tape etc. Duplicity backs directories by producing encrypted tar-format volumes and uploading them to a remote or local file server. [...] uses librsync, [for] incremental archives Other Possibilities: Using a Distributed Version Control System (DVCS) such as Git(/Easy Git), Bazaar, Mercurial answers the need to have the backup available locally. Use free online storage space as a remote backup, e.g.: compress your work/backup directory and mail it to your gmail account. Strategies See crazyscot's answer

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  • using checkbox yo update MySql table

    - by Martin
    Hi All I have been searching round the internet for days on this matter but I keep coming up against a brick wall. What I have is a table full of checkboxes inside an admin area acting as a monthly "to-do" list. It's essentially a worksheet of 30 or so things to do each month that must be checked off each month and notes added if applicable. I have managed to get the checkboxes to update via mysql and be shown somewhere as a list of ticks. I simply did this my setting the value to 1 and on submission it updates the sql table. I have to cover my bases here and also offer the option to un-tick items if they have been ticked b y mistake. But I cant figure out how this is done. Below is my checking code... any help on this matter would be great. <?php $currentTask = ''; echo "<tr class='tr'>"; while ($seolistRow = mysql_fetch_array($seolistRes)) { $taskValue = $seolistRow["taskValue"]; $worksheetID = $seolistRow["worksheetID"]; $taskName = $seolistRow["taskName"]; $taskInfo = $seolistRow["taskInfo"]; if ($taskValue == 1) { $taskDone = "<input type='checkbox' value='1' class='checkbox' name='checkbox".$worksheetID."' id=checkbox'".$worksheetID."' checked='checked' /><div class='taskinfo'>".$taskInfo."</div>"; } else { $taskDone = "<input type='checkbox' value='0' class='checkbox' name='checkbox".$worksheetID."' id='checkbox".$worksheetID."' />"; } if ($currentTask != $taskName) { echo "</tr>"; echo "<tr class='tr'>"; echo "<td class='task'>".$taskName."</td>"; } echo "<td class='tick'>".$taskDone."</td>"; $currentTask = $taskName; } echo "</tr>"; ?>

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  • What is the best way to archive data in a relational database?

    - by GenericTypeTea
    I have a bit of an issue with a particular aspect of a program I'm working on. I need the ability to archive (fix) a table so that a change anywhere in the system will not affect the results it returns. This is the basic structure of what I need to fix: Recipe --> Recipe (as sub recipe) Recipe --> Ingredients So, if I fix a Recipe, I need to ensure all the sub recipes (including all the sub recipes sub recipes and so forth) are fixed and all its ingredients are fixed. The problem is that the sub recipe and ingredients still need to be modifiable as they are used by other recipes that are not fixed. I came up with a solution whereby I serialize (with protobuf-net) a master object that deals with the recipe and all the sub recipes and ingredients and save the archive data to a table like follows: Archive{ ReferenceId, (i.e. RecipeId) ReferenceTypeId, (i.e. Recipe) ArchiveData varbinary(max) } Now, this works great and is almost perfect... however I totally forgot (I'd love to blame the agile development mentally, however this was just short sighted) that this information needs to be reported on. As far as I'm aware I can't think how I could inflate the serialized data back into my Recipe Object and use it in a Report. I'm using the standard SQL 2005 report services at the moment. Alternatively, I guess I could do the following: Duplicate every table and tag the word "Archive" on the end of the table name. This would then give me an area of specific archive data... but ignoring my simplified example, there'd actually be about 15 tables duplicated. Add a nullable, non-foreign key property called "CopiedFromId" to every table that contains fixed data and duplicate every record that the recipe (and all it's sub recipes and all their sub recipes) touches. Create some sort of denormalised structure that could be restored from at a later date to the original, unfixed recipe. Although I think this would be like option 1 and involve a lot of extra tables. Anyway, I'm at a total loss and do not like any of the ideas particularly. Can anyone please advise the best course of action? EDIT: Or 4) Create tables specific to what the report requires and populate them with the data when the user clicks the report button? This would cause about 4 extra tables for the report in question.

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  • Rails scalar query

    - by Craig
    I need to display a UI element (e.g. a star or checkmark) for employees that are 'favorites' of the current user (another employee). The Employee model has the following relationship defined to support this: has_and_belongs_to_many :favorites, :class_name => "Employee", :join_table => "favorites", :association_foreign_key => "favorite_id", :foreign_key => "employee_id" The favorites has two fields: employee_id, favorite_id. If I were to write SQL, the following query would give me the results that I want: SELECT id, account, IF( ( SELECT favorite_id FROM favorites WHERE favorite_id=p.id AND employee_id = ? ) IS NULL, FALSE, TRUE) isFavorite FROM employees Where the '?' would be replaced by the session[:user_id]. How do I represent the isFavorite scalar query in Rails? Another approach would use a query like this: SELECT id, account, IF(favorite_id IS NULL, FALSE, TRUE) isFavorite FROM employees e LEFT OUTER JOIN favorites f ON e.id=f.favorite_id AND employee_id = ? Again, the '?' is replaced by the session[:user_id] value. I've had some success writing this in Rails: ee=Employee.find(:all, :joins=>"LEFT OUTER JOIN favorites ON employees.id=favorites.favorite_id AND favorites.employee_id=1", :select=>"employees.*,favorites.favorite_id") Unfortunately, when I try to make this query 'dynamic' by replacing the '1' with a '?', I get errors. ee=Employee.find(:all, :joins=>["LEFT OUTER JOIN favorites ON employees.id=favorites.favorite_id AND favorites.employee_id=?",1], :select=>"employees.*,favorites.favorite_id") Obviously, I have the syntax wrong, but can :joins expressions be 'dynamic'? Is this a case for a Lambda expression? I do hope to add other filters to this query and use it with will_paginate and acts_as_taggable_on, if that makes a difference. edit errors from trying to make :joins dynamic: ActiveRecord::ConfigurationError: Association named 'LEFT OUTER JOIN favorites ON employees.id=favorites.favorite_id AND favorites.employee_id=?' was not found; perhaps you misspelled it? from /Users/craibuc/.gem/ruby/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/associations.rb:1906:in `build' from /Users/craibuc/.gem/ruby/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/associations.rb:1911:in `build' from /Users/craibuc/.gem/ruby/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/associations.rb:1910:in `each' from /Users/craibuc/.gem/ruby/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/associations.rb:1910:in `build' from /Users/craibuc/.gem/ruby/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/associations.rb:1830:in `initialize' from /Users/craibuc/.gem/ruby/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/base.rb:1789:in `new' from /Users/craibuc/.gem/ruby/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/base.rb:1789:in `add_joins!' from /Users/craibuc/.gem/ruby/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/base.rb:1686:in `construct_finder_sql' from /Users/craibuc/.gem/ruby/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/base.rb:1548:in `find_every' from /Users/craibuc/.gem/ruby/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/base.rb:615:in `find'

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  • Write binary stream to browser using PHP

    - by Dave Jarvis
    Background Trying to stream a PDF report written using iReport through PHP to the browser. The general problem is: how do you write binary data to the browser using PHP? Working Code The following code does the job, but (for many reasons) it is not as efficient as it should be (the code writes a file then sends the file contents the browser). // Load the MySQL database driver. // java( 'java.lang.Class' )->forName( 'com.mysql.jdbc.Driver' ); // Attempt a database connection. // $conn = java( 'java.sql.DriverManager' )->getConnection( "jdbc:mysql://localhost:3306/climate?user=$user&password=$password" ); // Extract parameters. // $params = new java('java.util.HashMap'); $params->put('DistrictCode', '101'); $params->put('StationCode', '0066'); $params->put('CategoryCode', '010'); // Use the fill manager to produce the report. // $fm = java('net.sf.jasperreports.engine.JasperFillManager'); $pm = $fm->fillReport($report, $params, $conn); header('Cache-Control: no-cache private'); header('Content-Description: File Transfer'); header('Content-Disposition: attachment, filename=climate-report.pdf'); header('Content-Type: application/pdf'); header('Content-Transfer-Encoding: binary'); header('Content-Length: ' . strlen( $result ) ); $path = realpath( "." ) . "/output.pdf"; $em = java('net.sf.jasperreports.engine.JasperExportManager'); $result = $em->exportReportToPdfFile($pm,$path); readfile( $path ); $conn->close(); Non-working Code To remove the slight redundancy (i.e., write directly to the browser), the following code looks like it should work, but it does not: $em = java('net.sf.jasperreports.engine.JasperExportManager'); $result = $em->exportReportToPdf($pm); header('Content-Length: ' . strlen( $result ) ); echo $result; Content is sent to the browser, but the file is corrupt (it begins with the PDF header) and cannot be read by any PDF reader. Question How can I take out the middle step of writing to the file and write directly to the browser so that the PDF is not corrupted? Thank you!

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  • Fuzzy Regex, Text Processing, Lexical Analysis?

    - by justinzane
    I'm not quite sure what terminology to search for, so my title is funky... Here is the workflow I've got: Semi-structured documents are scanned to file. The files are OCR'd to text. The text is parsed into Python objects The objects are serialized (to SQL, JSON, whatever) for use. The documents are structures like this: HEADER blah blah, Page ### blah Garbage text... 1. Question Text... continued until now. A. Choice text... adsadsf. B. Another Choice... 2. Another Question... I need to extract the questions and choices. The problem is that, because the text is OCR output, there are occasional strange substitutions like '2' - 'Z' which makes ordinary regular expressions useless. I've tried the Levenshtein module and it helps, but it requires prior knowledge of what edit distance is to be expected. I don't know whether I'm looking to create a parser? a lexer? something else? This has lead me down all kinds of interesting but nonrelevant paths. Guidance would be greatly appreciated. Oh, also, the text is generally from specific technical domains, so general spelling tools are not so helpful. Regarding the structure of the documents, there is no clear visual pattern -- like line breaks or indentation -- with the exception of the fact that "questions" usually begin a line. Crap on the document can cause characters to appear before the actual beginning of the line, which means that something along the lines of r'^[0-9]+' does not reliably work. Though the "questions" always begin with an int, a period and a space; the OCR can substitute other characters or skip characters. This is not so much a problem with Tesseract or Cunieform, rather with the poor quality of the paper documents. # Note: for the project in question, it was decided that having a human prep the OCR'd text was better that spending the time coding a solution. I'd still love good pointers, however.

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  • Release Process Improvements

    - by wallismark
    The process of creating a new build and releasing it to production is a critical step in the SDLC but it is often left as an afterthought and varies greatly from one company to the next. I'm hoping people will share improvements they have made to this process in their organisation so we can all takes steps to 'reduce the pain'. So the question is, specify one painful/time consuming part of your release process and what did you do to improve it? My example: at a previous employer all developers made database changes on one common development database. Then when it came to release time, we used Redgate's SQL Compare to generate a huge script from the differences between the Dev and QA databases. This works reasonably well but the problems with this approach are:- ALL changes in the Dev database are included, some of which may still be 'works in progress'. Sometimes developers made conflicting changes (that were not noticed until the release was in production) It was a time consuming and manual process to create and validate the script (by validate I mean, try to weed out issues like problem 1 and 2). When there were problems with the script (eg the order in which things were run such as creating a record which relies on a foreign key record which is in the script but not yet run) it took time to 'tweak' it so it ran smoothly. It's not an ideal scenario for Continuous Integration. So the solution was:- Enforce a policy of all changes to the database must be scripted. A naming convention was important for ensuring the correct running order of the scripts. Create/Use a tool to run the scripts at release time. Developers had their own copy of the database do develop against (so there was no more 'stepping on each others toes') The next release after we started this process was much faster with fewer problems, indeed the only problems found were due to people 'breaking the rules', eg not creating a script. Once the issues with releasing to QA were fixed, when it came time to release to production it was very smooth. We applied a few other changes (like introducing CI) but this was the most significant, overall we reduced release time from around 3 hours down to a max of 10-15 minutes.

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  • OperationalError: foreign key mismatch

    - by Niek de Klein
    I have two tables that I'm filling, 'msrun' and 'feature'. 'feature' has a foreign key pointing to the 'msrun_name' column of the 'msrun' table. Inserting in the tables works fine. But when I try to delete from the 'feature' table I get the following error: pysqlite2.dbapi2.OperationalError: foreign key mismatch From the rules of foreign keys in the manual of SQLite: - The parent table does not exist, or - The parent key columns named in the foreign key constraint do not exist, or - The parent key columns named in the foreign key constraint are not the primary key of the parent table and are not subject to a unique constraint using collating sequence specified in the CREATE TABLE, or - The child table references the primary key of the parent without specifying the primary key columns and the number of primary key columns in the parent do not match the number of child key columns. I can see nothing that I'm violating. My create tables look like this: DROP TABLE IF EXISTS `msrun`; -- ----------------------------------------------------- -- Table `msrun` -- ----------------------------------------------------- CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `msrun` ( `msrun_name` VARCHAR(40) PRIMARY KEY NOT NULL , `description` VARCHAR(500) NOT NULL ); DROP TABLE IF EXISTS `feature`; -- ----------------------------------------------------- -- Table `feature` -- ----------------------------------------------------- CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `feature` ( `feature_id` VARCHAR(40) PRIMARY KEY NOT NULL , `intensity` DOUBLE NOT NULL , `overallquality` DOUBLE NOT NULL , `charge` INT NOT NULL , `content` VARCHAR(45) NOT NULL , `msrun_msrun_name` VARCHAR(40) NOT NULL , CONSTRAINT `fk_feature_msrun1` FOREIGN KEY (`msrun_msrun_name` ) REFERENCES `msrun` (`msrun_name` ) ON DELETE NO ACTION ON UPDATE NO ACTION); CREATE UNIQUE INDEX `id_UNIQUE` ON `feature` (`feature_id` ASC); CREATE INDEX `fk_feature_msrun1` ON `feature` (`msrun_msrun_name` ASC); As far as I can see the parent table exists, the foreign key is pointing to the right parent key, the parent key is a primary key and the foreign key specifies the primary key column. The script that produces the error: from pysqlite2 import dbapi2 as sqlite import parseFeatureXML connection = sqlite.connect('example.db') cursor = connection.cursor() cursor.execute("PRAGMA foreign_keys=ON") inputValues = ('example', 'description') cursor.execute("INSERT INTO `msrun` VALUES(?, ?)", inputValues) featureXML = parseFeatureXML.Reader('../example_scripts/example_files/input/featureXML_example.featureXML') for feature in featureXML.getSimpleFeatureInfo(): inputValues = (featureXML['id'], featureXML['intensity'], featureXML['overallquality'], featureXML['charge'], featureXML['content'], 'example') # insert the values into msrun using ? for sql injection safety cursor.execute("INSERT INTO `feature` VALUES(?,?,?,?,?,?)", inputValues) connection.commit() for feature in featureXML.getSimpleFeatureInfo(): cursor.execute("DELETE FROM `feature` WHERE feature_id = ?", (str(featureXML['id']),))

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  • How to use second level cache for lazy loaded collections in Hibernate?

    - by Chandru
    Let's say I have two entities, Employee and Skill. Every employee has a set of skills. Now when I load the skills lazily through the Employee instances the cache is not used for skills in different instances of Employee. Let's Consider the following data set. Employee - 1 : Java, PHP Employee - 2 : Java, PHP When I load Employee - 2 after Employee - 1, I do not want hibernate to hit the database to get the skills and instead use the Skill instances already available in cache. Is this possible? If so how? Hibernate Configuration <session-factory> <property name="hibernate.connection.driver_class">com.mysql.jdbc.Driver</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.password">pass</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.url">jdbc:mysql://localhost/cache</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.username">root</property> <property name="hibernate.dialect">org.hibernate.dialect.MySQLInnoDBDialect</property> <property name="hibernate.cache.use_second_level_cache">true</property> <property name="hibernate.cache.use_query_cache">true</property> <property name="hibernate.cache.provider_class">net.sf.ehcache.hibernate.EhCacheProvider</property> <property name="hibernate.hbm2ddl.auto">update</property> <property name="hibernate.show_sql">true</property> <mapping class="org.cache.models.Employee" /> <mapping class="org.cache.models.Skill" /> </session-factory> The Entities with imports, getters and setters Removed @Entity @Table(name = "employee") @Cache(usage = CacheConcurrencyStrategy.READ_WRITE) public class Employee { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.IDENTITY) private int id; private String name; public Employee() { } @ManyToMany @JoinTable(name = "employee_skills", joinColumns = @JoinColumn(name = "employee_id"), inverseJoinColumns = @JoinColumn(name = "skill_id")) @Cache(usage = CacheConcurrencyStrategy.READ_WRITE) private List<Skill> skills; } @Entity @Table(name = "skill") @Cache(usage = CacheConcurrencyStrategy.READ_WRITE) public class Skill { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.IDENTITY) private int id; private String name; } SQL for Loading the Second Employee and his Skills Hibernate: select employee0_.id as id0_0_, employee0_.name as name0_0_ from employee employee0_ where employee0_.id=? Hibernate: select skills0_.employee_id as employee1_1_, skills0_.skill_id as skill2_1_, skill1_.id as id1_0_, skill1_.name as name1_0_ from employee_skills skills0_ left outer join skill skill1_ on skills0_.skill_id=skill1_.id where skills0_.employee_id=? In that I specifically want to avoid the second query as the first one is unavoidable anyway.

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  • How can the DataView object reference not be set?

    - by dboarman-FissureStudios
    I have the following sample where the SourceData class would represent a DataView resulting from an Sql query: class MainClass { private static SourceData Source; private static DataView View; private static DataView Destination; public static void Main (string[] args) { Source = new SourceData(); View = new DataView(Source.Table); Destination = new DataView(); Source.AddRowData("Table1", 100); Source.AddRowData("Table2", 1500); Source.AddRowData("Table3", 1300324); Source.AddRowData("Table4", 1122494); Source.AddRowData("Table5", 132545); Console.WriteLine(String.Format("Data View Records: {0}", View.Count)); foreach(DataRowView drvRow in View) { Console.WriteLine(String.Format("Source {0} has {1} records.", drvRow["table"], drvRow["records"])); DataRowView newRow = Destination.AddNew(); newRow["table"] = drvRow["table"]; newRow["records"] = drvRow["records"]; } Console.WriteLine(); Console.WriteLine(String.Format("Destination View Records: {0}", Destination.Count)); foreach(DataRowView drvRow in Destination) { Console.WriteLine(String.Format("Destination {0} has {1} records.", drvRow["table"], drvRow["records"])); } } } class SourceData { public DataTable Table { get{return dataTable;} } private DataTable dataTable; public SourceData() { dataTable = new DataTable("TestTable"); dataTable.Columns.Add("table", typeof(string)); dataTable.Columns.Add("records", typeof(int)); } public void AddRowData(string tableName, int tableRows) { dataTable.Rows.Add(tableName, tableRows); } } My output is: Data View Records: 5 Source Table1 has 100 records. Unhandled Exception: System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object at System.Data.DataView.AddNew () [0x0003e] in /usr/src/packages/BUILD/mono-2.4.2.3 /mcs/class/System.Data/System.Data/DataView.cs:344 at DataViewTest.MainClass.Main (System.String[] args) [0x000e8] in /home/david/Projects/DataViewTest/SourceData.cs:29 I did some reading here: DataView:AddNew Method... ...and it would appear that I am doing this the right way. How come I am getting the Object reference not set?

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  • Cannot populate form with ajax and populate jquery plugin

    - by Azriel_
    I'm trying to populate a form with jquery's populate plugin, but using $.ajax The idea is to retrieve data from my database according to the id in the links (ex of link: get_result_edit.php?id=34), reformulate it to json, return it to my page and fill up the form up with the populate plugin. But somehow i cannot get it to work. Any ideas: here's the code: $('a').click(function(){ $('#updatediv').hide('slow'); $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "get_result_edit.php", success: function(data) { var $response=$(data); $('#form1').populate($response); } }); $('#updatediv').fadeIn('slow'); return false; whilst the php file states as follow: <?php $conn = new mysqli('localhost', 'XXXX', 'XXXXX', 'XXXXX'); @$query = 'Select * FROM news WHERE id ="'.$_GET['id'].'"'; $stmt = $conn->query($query) or die ($mysql->error()); if ($stmt) { $results = $stmt->fetch_object(); // get database data $json = json_encode($results); // convert to JSON format echo $json; } ?> Now first thing is that the mysql returns a null in this way: is there something wrong with he declaration of the sql statement in the $_GET part? Second is that even if i put a specific record to bring up, populate doesn't populate. Update: I changed the populate library with the one called "PHP jQuery helper functions" and the difference is that finally it says something. finally i get an error saying NO SUCH ELEMENT AS i wen into the library to have a look and up comes the following function function populateFormElement(form, name, value) { // check that the named element exists in the form var name = name; // handle non-php naming var element = form[name]; if(element == undefined) { debug('No such element as ' + name); return false; } // debug options if(options.debug) { _populate.elements.push(element); } } Now looking at it one can see that it should print out also the name, but its not printing it out. so i'm guessing that retrieving the name form the json is not working correctly. Link is at http://www.ocdmonline.org/michael/edit%5Fnews.php with username: Testing and pass:test123 Any ideas?

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  • DataRelation Insert and ForeignKey

    - by Steve
    Guys, I have a winforms application with two DataGridViews displaying a master-detail relationship from my Person and Address tables. Person table has a PersonID field that is auto-incrementing primary key. Address has a PersonID field that is the FK. I fill my DataTables with DataAdapter and set Person.PersonID column's AutoIncrement=true and AutoIncrementStep=-1. I can insert records in the Person DataTable from the DataGridView. The PersonID column displays unique negative values for PersonID. I update the database by calling DataAdapter.Update(PersonTable) and the negative PersonIDs are converted to positive unique values automatically by SQL Server. Here's the rub. The Address DataGridView show the address table which has a DataRelation to Person by PersonID. Inserted Person records have the temporary negative PersonID. I can now insert records into Address via DataGridView and Address.PersonID is set to the negative value from the DataRelation mapping. I call Adapter.Update(AddressTable) and the negative PersonIDs go into the Address table breaking the relationship. How do you guys handle primary/foreign keys using DataTables and master-detail DataGridViews? Thanks! Steve EDIT: After more googling, I found that SqlDataAdapter.RowUpdated event gives me what I need. I create a new command to query the last id inserted by using @@IDENTITY. It works pretty well. The DataRelation updates the Address.PersonID field for me so it's required to Update the Person table first then update the Address table. All the new records insert properly with correct ids in place! Adapter = new SqlDataAdapter(cmd); Adapter.RowUpdated += (s, e) => { if (e.StatementType != StatementType.Insert) return; //set the id for the inserted record SqlCommand c = e.Command.Connection.CreateCommand(); c.CommandText = "select @@IDENTITY id"; e.Row[0] = Convert.ToInt32( c.ExecuteScalar() ); }; Adapter.Fill(this); SqlCommandBuilder sb = new SqlCommandBuilder(Adapter); sb.GetDeleteCommand(); sb.GetUpdateCommand(); sb.GetInsertCommand(); this.Columns[0].AutoIncrement = true; this.Columns[0].AutoIncrementSeed = -1; this.Columns[0].AutoIncrementStep = -1;

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  • Executing Stored Procedure for each InputRow + SSIS Script Component.

    - by Nev_Rahd
    Hello, In my Script Component, am trying to execute Stored Procedure = which return multiple rows = of which need to generate output rows. Code as below: /* Microsoft SQL Server Integration Services Script Component * Write scripts using Microsoft Visual C# 2008. * ScriptMain is the entry point class of the script.*/ using System; using System.Data; using System.Data.SqlClient; using Microsoft.SqlServer.Dts.Pipeline.Wrapper; using Microsoft.SqlServer.Dts.Runtime.Wrapper; [Microsoft.SqlServer.Dts.Pipeline.SSISScriptComponentEntryPointAttribute] public class ScriptMain : UserComponent { SqlConnection cnn = new SqlConnection(); IDTSConnectionManager100 cnManager; //string cmd; SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand(); public override void AcquireConnections(object Transaction) { cnManager = base.Connections.myConnection; cnn = (SqlConnection)cnManager.AcquireConnection(null); } public override void PreExecute() { base.PreExecute(); } public override void PostExecute() { base.PostExecute(); } public override void InputRows_ProcessInputRow(InputRowsBuffer Row) { while(Row.NextRow()) { DataTable dt = new DataTable(); cmd.Connection = cnn; cmd.CommandText = "OSPATTRIBUTE_GetOPNforOP"; cmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; cmd.Parameters.Add("@NK", SqlDbType.VarChar).Value = Row.OPNK.ToString(); cmd.Parameters.Add("@EDWSTARTDATE", SqlDbType.DateTime).Value = Row.EDWEFFECTIVESTARTDATETIME; SqlDataAdapter adapter = new SqlDataAdapter(cmd); adapter.Fill(dt); foreach (DataRow dtrow in dt.Rows) { OutputValidBuffer.AddRow(); OutputValidBuffer.OPNK = Row.OPNK; OutputValidBuffer.OSPTYPECODE = Row.OSPTYPECODE; OutputValidBuffer.ORGPROVTYPEDESC = Row.ORGPROVTYPEDESC; OutputValidBuffer.HEALTHSECTORCODE = Row.HEALTHSECTORCODE; OutputValidBuffer.HEALTHSECTORDESCRIPTION = Row.HEALTHSECTORDESCRIPTION; OutputValidBuffer.EDWEFFECTIVESTARTDATETIME = Row.EDWEFFECTIVESTARTDATETIME; OutputValidBuffer.EDWEFFECTIVEENDDATETIME = Row.EDWEFFECTIVEENDDATETIME; OutputValidBuffer.OPQI = Row.OPQI; OutputValidBuffer.OPNNK = dtrow[0].ToString(); OutputValidBuffer.OSPNAMETYPECODE = dtrow[1].ToString(); OutputValidBuffer.NAMETYPEDESC = dtrow[2].ToString(); OutputValidBuffer.OSPNAME = dtrow[3].ToString(); OutputValidBuffer.EDWEFFECTIVESTARTDATETIME1 = Row.EDWEFFECTIVESTARTDATETIME; OutputValidBuffer.EDWEFFECTIVEENDDATETIME1 = Row.EDWEFFECTIVEENDDATETIME; OutputValidBuffer.OPNQI = dtrow[6].ToString(); } } } public override void ReleaseConnections() { cnManager.ReleaseConnection(cnn); } } This is always skipping the first row. while(Row.NextRow()) is always bringing the second row of the input buffer. What am I doing wrong. Thanks

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  • SQLSTATE[HY093]: Invalid parameter number: mixed named and positional parameters

    - by Gremo
    Weird error and this is driving me crazy all the day. To me it seems a bug because there are no positional parameters in my query. Here is the method: public function getAll(User $user, DateTime $start = null, DateTime $end = null) { $params = array('user_id' => $user->getId()); $rsm = new \Doctrine\ORM\Query\ResultSetMapping(); // Result set mapping $rsm->addScalarResult('subtype', 'subtype'); $rsm->addScalarResult('count', 'count'); $sms_sql = "SELECT CONCAT('sms_', IF(is_auto = 0, 'user' , 'auto')) AS subtype, " . "SUM(messages_count * (customers_count + recipients_count)) AS count " . "FROM outgoing_message AS m INNER JOIN small_text_message AS s ON " . "m.id = s.id WHERE status <> 'pending' AND user_id = :user_id"; $news_sql = "SELECT CONCAT('news_', IF(is_auto = 0, 'user' , 'auto')) AS subtype, " . "SUM(customers_count + recipients_count) AS count " . "FROM outgoing_message AS m JOIN newsletter AS n ON m.id = n.id " . "WHERE status <> 'pending' AND user_id = :user_id"; if($start) : $sms_sql .= " AND sent_at >= :start"; $news_sql .= " AND sent_at >= :start"; $params['start'] = $start->format('Y-m-d'); endif; $sms_sql .= ' GROUP BY type, is_auto'; $news_sql .= ' GROUP BY type, is_auto'; return $this->_em->createNativeQuery("$sms_sql UNION ALL $news_sql", $rsm) >setParameters($params)->getResult(); } And this throws the exception: SQLSTATE[HY093]: Invalid parameter number: mixed named and positional parameters Array $arams is OK and so generated SQL: var_dump($params); array (size=2) 'user_id' => int 1 'start' => string '2012-01-01' (length=10) Strangest thing is that it works with "$sms_sql" only! Any help would make my day, thanks. Update Found another strange thing. If i change only the name (to start_date instead of start): if($start) : $sms_sql .= " AND sent_at >= :start_date"; $news_sql .= " AND sent_at >= :start_date"; $params['start_date'] = $start->format('Y-m-d'); endif; What happens is that Doctrine/PDO says: SQLSTATE[42S22]: Column not found: 1054 Unknown column 'sent1rt_date' in 'where clause' ... as string 1rt was added in the middle of the column name! Crazy...

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  • PHP will not delete from MySQL

    - by Michal Kopanski
    For some reason, JavaScript/PHP wont delete my data from MySQL! Here is the rundown of the problem. I have an array that displays all my MySQL entries in a nice format, with a button to delete the entry for each one individually. It looks like this: <?php include("login.php"); //connection to the database $dbhandle = mysql_connect($hostname, $username, $password) or die("<br/><h1>Unable to connect to MySQL, please contact support at [email protected]</h1>"); //select a database to work with $selected = mysql_select_db($dbname, $dbhandle) or die("Could not select database."); //execute the SQL query and return records if (!$result = mysql_query("SELECT `id`, `url` FROM `videos`")) echo 'mysql error: '.mysql_error(); //fetch tha data from the database while ($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)) { ?> <div class="video"><a class="<?php echo $row{'id'}; ?>" href="http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=<?php echo $row{'url'}; ?>">http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=<?php echo $row{'url'}; ?></a><a class="del" href="javascript:confirmation(<? echo $row['id']; ?>)">delete</a></div> <?php } //close the connection mysql_close($dbhandle); ?> The delete button has an href of javascript:confirmation(<? echo $row['id']; ?>) , so once you click on delete, it runs this: <script type="text/javascript"> <!-- function confirmation(ID) { var answer = confirm("Are you sure you want to delete this video?") if (answer){ alert("Entry Deleted") window.location = "delete.php?id="+ID; } else{ alert("No action taken") } } //--> </script> The JavaScript should theoretically pass the 'ID' onto the page delete.php. That page looks like this (and I think this is where the problem is): <?php include ("login.php"); mysql_connect($hostname, $username, $password) or die("Unable to connect to MySQL"); mysql_select_db ($dbname) or die("Unable to connect to database"); mysql_query("DELETE FROM `videos` WHERE `videos`.`id` ='.$id.'"); echo ("Video has been deleted."); ?> If there's anyone out there that may know the answer to this, I would greatly appreciate it. I am also opened to suggestions (for those who aren't sure). Thanks!

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  • .NET C# Filestream writing to file and reading the bfile

    - by pythonrg7
    I have a web service that checks a dictionary to see if a file exists and then if it does exist it reads the file, otherwise it saves to the file. This is from a web app. I wonder what is the best way to do this because I occasionally get a FileNotFoundException exception if the same file is accessed at the same time. Here's the relevant parts of the code: String signature; signature = "FILE," + value1 + "," + value2 + "," + value3 + "," + value4; // this is going to be the filename string result; MultipleRecordset mrSummary = new MultipleRecordset(); // MultipleRecordset is an object that retrieves data from a sql server database if (mrSummary.existsFile(signature)) { result = mrSummary.retrieveFile(signature); } else { result = mrSummary.getMultipleRecordsets(System.Configuration.ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["MyConnectionString"].ConnectionString.ToString(), value1, value2, value3, value4); mrSummary.saveFile(signature, result); } Here's the code to see if the file already exists: private static Dictionary dict = new Dictionary(); public bool existsFile(string signature) { if (dict.ContainsKey(signature)) { return true; } else { return false; } } Here's what I use to retrieve if it already exists: try { byte[] buffer; FileStream fileStream = new FileStream(@System.Configuration.ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["CACHEPATH"] + filename, FileMode.Open, FileAccess.Read, FileShare.Read); try { int length = 0x8000; // get file length buffer = new byte[length]; // create buffer int count; // actual number of bytes read JSONstring = ""; while ((count = fileStream.Read(buffer, 0, length)) > 0) { JSONstring += System.Text.ASCIIEncoding.ASCII.GetString(buffer, 0, count); } } finally { fileStream.Close(); } } catch (Exception e) { JSONstring = "{\"error\":\"" + e.ToString() + "\"}"; } If the file doesn't previously exist it saves the JSON to the file: try { if (dict.ContainsKey(filename) == false) { dict.Add(filename, true); } else { this.retrieveFile(filename, ipaddress); } } catch { } try { TextWriter tw = new StreamWriter(@System.Configuration.ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["CACHEPATH"] + filename); tw.WriteLine(JSONstring); tw.Close(); } catch { } Here are the details to the exception I sometimes get from running the above code: System.IO.FileNotFoundException: Could not find file 'E:\inetpub\wwwroot\cache\FILE,36,36.25,14.5,14.75'. File name: 'E:\inetpub\wwwroot\cache\FILE,36,36.25,14.5,14.75' at System.IO.__Error.WinIOError(Int32 errorCode, String maybeFullPath) at System.IO.FileStream.Init(String path, FileMode mode, FileAccess access, Int32 rights, Boolean useRights, FileShare share, Int32 bufferSize, FileOptions options, SECURITY_ATTRIBUTES secAttrs, String msgPath, Boolean bFromProxy) at System.IO.FileStream..ctor(String path, FileMode mode, FileAccess access, FileShare share) at com.myname.business.MultipleRecordset.retrieveFile(String filename, String ipaddress)

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