Search Results

Search found 27083 results on 1084 pages for 'having'.

Page 137/1084 | < Previous Page | 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144  | Next Page >

  • In SQL Server what is most efficient way to compare records to other records for duplicates with in

    - by Glenn
    We have an SQL Server that gets daily imports of data files from clients. This data is interrelated and we are always scrubbing it and having to look for suspect duplicate records between these files. Finding and tagging suspect records can get pretty complicated. We use logic that requires some field values to be the same, allows some field values to differ, and allows a range to be specified for how different certain field values can be. The only way we've found to do it is by using a cursor based process, and it places a heavy burden on the database. So I wanted to ask if there's a more efficient way to do this. I've heard it said that there's almost always a more efficient way to replace cursors with clever JOINS. But I have to admit I'm having a lot of trouble with this one. For a concrete example suppose we have 1 table, an "orders" table, with the following 6 fields. order_id, customer_id product_id, quantity, sale_date, price We want to look through the records to find suspect duplicates on the following example criteria. These get increasingly harder. 1. Records that have the same product_id, sale_date, and quantity but different customer_id's should be marked as suspect duplicates for review. 2. Records that have the same customer_id, product_id, quantity and have sale_dates within five days of each other should be marked as suspect duplicates for review 3. Records that have the same customer_id, product_id, but different quantities within 20 units, and sales dates within five days of each other should be considered suspect. Is it possible to satisfy each one of these criteria with a single SQL Query that uses JOINS? Is this the most efficient way to do this?

    Read the article

  • Jquery Mobile app focus-based navigation stops working after switching between pages

    - by nawar
    As much as I would like to expand on the details here, I am not able to find relevant information about the root cause of this problem. I am having this issue with my blackberry Webapp which I built using JQM. After few times of navigation from page to page, the application becomes unresponsive on the destination page and I am not able to scroll up/down using the touchpad. If someone had this problem or some clue to the resolution, then that would be helpful. Edit: after doing some research I was able to narrow down the cause of the issue. I am having an issue with focus-based navigation. As I lose focus on the page elements (buttons, input fields, etc) after few transitions among the pages. Edit I had to switch back to the cursor based navigation as it is much faster and do not have the issue faced by focus-based navigation. I removed the entry: <rim:navigation mode=”focus”/> from the config.xml file I found this entry on the blackberry fourms but it haven't solved my problem despite the fact I upgraded my WebWorks SDK to 2.0 from 1.5 http://supportforums.blackberry.com/t5/Web-and-WebWorks-Development/Focus-based-navigation-hangs-device/td-p/455600 Thanks

    Read the article

  • Flex + PHP + ValueObjects

    - by Tempname
    I have a php/flex value object that I am using to transmit data to/from in my application. Everything works great php-flex, but I am having an issue with flex-php. In my MergeTemplateService.php service I have the following code. This is the method that flex hits directly: function updateTemplate($valueObject){ $object = DAOFactory::getMergeTemplateDAO()->update($valueObject); return $object; } I am passing a value object that from flex looks like this: (com.rottmanj.vo::MergeTemplateVO)#0 communityID = 0 creationDate = (null) enterpriseID = 0 lastModifyDate = (null) templateID = 2 templateName = "My New Test Template" userID = 0 The issue I am having is that my updateTemplate method sees the value object as an array and not an object. In my amfphp globals.php I have set my voPath as: $voPath = "services/class/dto/"; Any help with this is greatly appreciated Here are my two value objects: AS3 VO: package com.rottmanj.vo { [RemoteClass(alias="MergeTemplate")] public class MergeTemplateVO { public var templateID:int; public var templateName:String; public var communityID:int; public var enterpriseID:int; public var userID:int; public var creationDate:String; public var lastModifyDate:String public function MergeTemplateVO(data:Object = null):void { if(data != null) { templateID = data.templateID; templateName = data.templateName; communityID = data.communityID; enterpriseID = data.enterpriseID; userID = data.userID; creationDate = data.creationDate; lastModifyDate = data.lastModifyDate; } } } } PHPVO: <?php class MergeTemplate{ var $templateID; var $templateName; var $communityID; var $enterpriseID; var $userID; var $creationDate; var $lastModifyDate; var $_explictType = 'MergeTemplate'; } ?>

    Read the article

  • Java reflection appropriateness

    - by jsn
    This may be a fairly subjective question, but maybe not. My application contains a bunch of forms that are displayed to the user at different times. Each form is a class of its own. Typically the user clicks a button, which launches a new form. I have a convenience function that builds these buttons, you call it like this: buildButton( "button text", new SelectionAdapter() { @Override public void widgetSelected( SelectionEvent e ) { showForm( new TasksForm( args... ) ); } } ); I do this dozens of times, and it's really cumbersome having to make a SelectionAdapter every time. Really all I need for the button to know is what class to instantiate when it's clicked and what arguments to give the constructor, so I built a function that I call like this instead: buildButton( "button text", TasksForm.class, args... ); Where args is an arbitrary list of objects that you could use to instantiate TasksForm normally. It uses reflection to get a constructor from the class, match the argument list, and build an instance when it needs to. Most of the time I don't have to pass any arguments to the constructor at all. The downside is obviously that if I'm passing a bad set of arguments, it can't detect that at compilation time, so if it fails, a dialog is displayed at runtime. But it won't normally fail, and it'll be easy to debug if it does. I think this is much cleaner because I come from languages where the use of function and class literals is pretty common. But if you're a normal Java programmer, would seeing this freak you out, or would you appreciate not having to scan a zillion SelectionAdapters?

    Read the article

  • Glassfish complaining about JSF component IDs

    - by Brian
    Hello All I am very new to JSF (v2.0) and I am attempting to learn it at places like netbeans.org and coreservlets.com. I am working on a very simple "add/subtract/multiply/divide" Java webapp and I have run into a problem. When I first started out, the application was enter two numbers and hit a '+' key and they would be automatically added together. Now that I have added more complexity I am having trouble getting the operation to the managed bean. This is what I had when it was just "add": <h:inputText styleClass="display" id="number01" size="4" maxlength="3" value="#{Calculator.number01}" /> <h:inputText styleClass="display" id="number02" size="4" maxlength="3" value="#{Calculator.number02}" /> <h:commandButton id="add" action="answer" value="+" /> For the "answer" page, I display the answer like this: <h:outputText value="#{Calculator.answer}" /> I had the proper getters and setters in the Calculator.java managed bean and the operation worked perfectly. Now I have added the other three operations and I am having trouble visualizing how to get the operation parameter to the bean so that I can switch around it. I tried this: <h:commandButton id="operation" action="answer" value="+" /> <h:commandButton id="operation" action="answer" value="-" /> <h:commandButton id="operation" action="answer" value="*" /> <h:commandButton id="operation" action="answer" value="/" /> However, Glassfish complained that I have already used "operation" once and I am trying to use it four times here. Any adivce/tips on how to get multiple operations to the managed bean so that it can preform the desired operation? Thank you for taking the time to read.

    Read the article

  • Need help/suggestions for creating fantasy sports scoring databases and queries

    - by MGumbel
    I'm trying to create a website for my friends and I to keep track of fantasy sports scoring. So far, I've been doing the calculations and storage in Excel, which is very tedious. I'm trying to make it more simplified and automated through a SQL database that I can then wrap a web app around to enter daily stat updates. It's premised on our participation in another commercial site where we trade virtual shares of athletes, and thus acquire an "ownership percentage" in each athlete. For instance, if there are 100 shares of AROD, and I own 10 shares, then I own 10%. It then applies this to traditional baseball rotisserie scoring. So, for instance, if AROD has 1 HR today, then his adjusted HR stat would be 1.10. If he also has 2 RBI's, then his adjusted RBI stat today would be 2.20, based on (2 x 1.10)(1 to normalize the stat, and the .10 to represent the ownership percentage). All the stats for my team would then be summed each day and added to my stat history to come to an aggregated total. After that, points are allocated based on the ranking of each participant in each category at the end of the day. E.g. if there are 10 participants, and I have the highest total aggregate number of Adjusted HR's, then I get 10 pts. The points are then summed across the different stat categories to come up with a total point ranking for that day. An added difficulty is that ownership %'s can change on a daily basis. So far, in playing around with different schema, I don't know that having a separate table for each athlete's stats and each player's ownership %'s is the wisest choice. It seems to me that simply having two tables, one that contains the daily stat information for each athlete, and another that shows the ownership % of each player. My friend suggested using a start and end date for each ownership % to represent the potential daily changes in this category. I'm admittedly new to database development, so any suggestions on query code would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Linq - reuse expression on child property

    - by user175528
    Not sure if what I am trying is possible or not, but I'd like to reuse a linq expression on an objects parent property. With the given classes: class Parent { int Id { get; set; } IList<Child> Children { get; set; } string Name { get; set; } } class Child{ int Id { get; set; } Parent Dad { get; set; } string Name { get; set; } } If i then have a helper Expression<Func<Parent,bool> ParentQuery() { Expression<Func<Parent,bool> q = p => p.Name=="foo"; } I then want to use this when querying data out for a child, along the lines of: using(var context=new Entities.Context) { var data=context.Child.Where(c => c.Name=="bar" && c.Dad.Where(ParentQuery)); } I know I can do that on child collections: using(var context=new Entities.Context) { var data=context.Parent.Where(p => p.Name=="foo" && p.Childen.Where(childQuery)); } but cant see any way to do this on a property that isnt a collection. This is just a simplified example, actually the ParentQuery will be more complex and I want to avoid having this repeated in multiple places as rather than just having 2 layers I'll have closer to 5 or 6, but all of them will need to reference the parent query to ensure security.

    Read the article

  • Asp.Net 2 integrated sites How to Logout second site programatically.

    - by NBrowne
    Hi , I am working with an asp.net 2.0 site (call it site 1) which has an iframe in it which loads up another site (site2) which is also an asp.net site which is developed by our team. When you log onto site 1 then behind the scenes site 2 is also logged in so that when you click the iframe tab then this displays site 2 with the user logged in (to prevent the user from having to log in twice). The problem i have is that when a user logs out of site 1 then we call some cleanup methods to perform FormsAuthentication.SignOut and clean session variables etc but at the moment no cleanup is called when the user on site 2. So the issue is that if the user opens up Site 2 from within a browser then website 2 opens with the user still logged in which is undesired. Can anyone give me some guidance as to the best approach for this?? One possible approach i though of was just that on click of logout button i could do a call to a custom page on Site 2 which would do the logout. Code below HttpWebRequest request; request = ((HttpWebRequest)(WebRequest.Create("www.mywebsite.com/Site2Logout.aspx"))); request.Method = "POST"; HttpCookie cookie = HttpContext.Current.Request.Cookies[FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName]; Cookie authenticationCookie = new Cookie( FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName, cookie.Value, cookie.Path, HttpContext.Current.Request.Url.Authority); request .CookieContainer = new CookieContainer(); request .CookieContainer.Add(authenticationCookie); response.GetResponse(); Problem i am having with this code is that when i run it and debug on Site 2 and check to see if the user is Authenticated they are not which i dont understand because if i open browser and browse to Site 2 i am Still authenticated. Any ideas , different direction to take etc ??? Please let me know if you need any more info or if i something i have said dosent make sense. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Trouble parsing self closing XML tags using SAX parser

    - by sandesh
    Hi, I am having trouble parsing self closing XML tags using SAX. I am trying to extract the link tag from the Google Base API.I am having reasonable success in parsing regular tags. Here is a snippet of the xml <entry> <id>http://www.google.com/base/feeds/snippets/15802191394735287303</id> <published>2010-04-05T11:00:00.000Z</published> <updated>2010-04-24T19:00:07.000Z</updated> <category scheme='http://base.google.com/categories/itemtypes' term='Products'/> <title type='text'>En-el1 Li-ion Battery+charger For Nikon Digital Camera</title> <link rel='alternate' type='text/html' href='http://rover.ebay.com/rover/1/711-67261-24966-0/2?ipn=psmain&amp;icep_vectorid=263602&amp;kwid=1&amp;mtid=691&amp;crlp=1_263602&amp;icep_item_id=170468125748&amp;itemid=170468125748'/> . . and so on I can parse the updates and published tags, but not the link and category tag. Here is my startElement and endElement overrides public void startElement(String uri, String localName, String qName, Attributes attributes) throws SAXException { if (qName.equals("title") && xmlTags.peek().equals("entry")) { insideEntryTitle = true; } xmlTags.push(qName); } public void endElement(String uri, String localName, String qName) throws SAXException { // If a "title" element is closed, we start a new line, to prepare // printing the new title. xmlTags.pop(); if (insideEntryTitle) { insideEntryTitle = false; System.out.println(); } } declaration for xmltags.. private Stack<String> xmlTags = new Stack<String>(); Any help guys? this is my first post here.. I hope I have followed posting rules! thanks a ton guys..

    Read the article

  • HTML table manipulation using jQuery

    - by Daniel
    I'm building a site using CakePHP and am currently working on adding data to two separate tables at the same time.. not a problem. The problem I have is that I'm looking to dynamically alter the form that accepts the input values, allowing the click of a button/link to add an additional row of form fields. At the moment I have a table that looks something like this: <table> <thead> <tr> <th>Campus</th> <th>Code</th> </tr> </thead> <tbody> <tr> <td> <select id="FulltimeCourseCampusCode0CampusId" name="data[FulltimeCourseCampusCode][0][campus_id]"> <option value=""></option> <option value="1">Evesham</option> <option value="2">Malvern</option> </select> </td> <td> <input type="text" id="FulltimeCourseCampusCode0CourseCode" name="data[FulltimeCourseCampusCode][0][course_code]"> </td> </tr> </tbody> What I need is for the row within the tbody tag to be replicated, with the minor change of having all the zeros (i.e. such as here FulltimeCourseCampusCode0CampusId and here data[FulltimeCourseCampusCode][0][campus_id]) incremented. I'm very new to jQuery, having done a few minor bits, but nothing this advanced (mostly just copy/paste stuff). Can anyone help? Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Bind an Incode DataTemplate in WPF

    - by Mike Bynum
    I have a WPF Application which is using MVVM. I know that there ways of doing this in XAML but I am working on a plugin architecture and came up with a solution where a plugin exposes it's viewmodel to my plugin host's viewmodel and it's datatemplate. I want to leave the lifetime management of the plugin view up to WPF. I have tried having the plugins expose a UserControl but ran into issues when WPF decided to dispose of my UserControl so I would not reattach it without weird hacky work arounds. I am having issues getting some sort of binding working to where i can bind a control to the data and it's template to my data template. I have a ViewModel which looks something like: public class MyViewModel { public DataTemplate SelectedTemplate{ get; set;} public object SelectedViewModel {get; set;} } The selected template and viewmodel are determined somewhere else in the code but are irrelevant to my question. My question is how i can bind to a DataTemplate so that I know how to display the data shown in the SelectedViewModel. The DataTemplate is a DataTemplate created incode which respresents: <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type vm:MyViewModel}"> <v:MyUserControl /> </DataTemplate> I have tried: <UserControl Template="{Binding Path=SelectedTemplate}" Content="{Binding Path=SelectedViewModel"} /> But UserControl expects a control template and not a data template.

    Read the article

  • function working fine in IE but the same funtion is not working for mozilla 3.6

    - by anand-juventus
    function VisibleDiv(obj) { if (obj == BaseLog) { var objStyle = document.getElementById('DivCalls').style; if (objStyle.display == "block") objStyle.display = "none"; else objStyle.display = "block"; } else if (obj == ViewReports) { var objStyle = document.getElementById('DivReports').style; if (objStyle.display == "block") objStyle.display = "none"; else objStyle.display = "block"; } else if (obj ==Management) { var objStyle = document.getElementById('DivManage').style; if (objStyle.display == "block") objStyle.display = "none"; else objStyle.display = "block"; } <a href="#" id="BaseLog" class="TextHeader" onclick="VisibleDiv(this)">Base Log </a> in the above code is working in IE but not working in mozilla 3.6. I have checked that obj==BaseLog is not working in the above code. I have tried many options like event.srcelement window.event.srcelement but all in vain. when I debug the code ,I found that obj is having complete value for IE but the same obj is having all the names .ie. the name of tag,id and class for "Base Log" seperated by #. i.e a#BaseLog#TextHeader# Please suggest what shoud I do?

    Read the article

  • How to manage lifecycle in a ViewGroup-derived class?

    - by Scott Smith
    I had a bunch of code in an activity that displays a running graph of some external data. As the activity code was getting kind of cluttered, I decided to extract this code and create a GraphView class: public class GraphView extends LinearLayout { public GraphView(Context context, AttributeSet attrs) { super(context, attrs); LayoutInflater inflater = (LayoutInflater) context.getSystemService(Context.LAYOUT_INFLATER_SERVICE); inflater.inflate(R.layout.graph_view, this, true); } public void start() { // Perform initialization (bindings, timers, etc) here } public void stop() { // Unbind, destroy timers, yadda yadda } . . . } Moving stuff into this new LinearLayout-derived class was simple. But there was some lifecycle management code associated with creating and destroying timers and event listeners used by this graph (I didn't want this thing polling in the background if the activity was paused, for example). Coming from a MS Windows background, I kind of expected to find overridable onCreate() and onDestroy() methods or something similar, but I haven't found anything of the sort in LinearLayout (or any of its inherited members). Having to leave all of this initialization code in the Activity, and then having to pass it into the view seemed like it defeated the original purpose of encapsulating all of this code into a reusable view. I ended up adding two additional public methods to my view: start() and stop(). I make these calls from the activity's onResume() and onPause() methods respectively. This seems to work, but it feels like I'm using duct tape here. Does anyone know how this is typically done? I feel like I'm missing something...

    Read the article

  • How to catch unintentional function interpositioning with GCC?

    - by SiegeX
    Reading through my book Expert C Programming, I came across the chapter on function interpositioning and how it can lead to some serious hard to find bugs if done unintentionally. The example given in the book is the following: my_source.c mktemp() { ... } main() { mktemp(); getwd(); } libc mktemp(){ ... } getwd(){ ...; mktemp(); ... } According to the book, what happens in main() is that mktemp() (a standard C library function) is interposed by the implementation in my_source.c. Although having main() call my implementation of mktemp() is intended behavior, having getwd() (another C library function) also call my implementation of mktemp() is not. Apparently, this example was a real life bug that existed in SunOS 4.0.3's version of lpr. The book goes on to explain the fix was to add the keyword static to the definition of mktemp() in my_source.c; although changing the name altogether should have fixed this problem as well. This chapter leaves me with some unresolved questions that I hope you guys could answer: Should our software group adopt the practice of putting the keyword static in front of all functions that we don't want to be exposed? Does GCC have a way to warn about function interposition? We certainly don't ever intend on this happening and I'd like to know about it if it does. Can interposition happen with functions introduced by static libraries? Thanks for the help.

    Read the article

  • Changing type of object in a conditional

    - by David Doria
    I'm having a bit of trouble with dynamic_casting. I need to determine at runtime the type of an object. Here is a demo: include include class PersonClass { public: std::string Name; virtual void test(){}; //it is annoying that this has to be here... }; class LawyerClass : public PersonClass { public: void GoToCourt(){}; }; class DoctorClass : public PersonClass { public: void GoToSurgery(){}; }; int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { PersonClass* person = new PersonClass; if(true) { person = dynamic_cast(person); } else { person = dynamic_cast(person); } person-GoToCourt(); return 0; } I would like to do the above. The only legal way I found to do it is to define all of the objects before hand: PersonClass* person = new PersonClass; LawyerClass* lawyer; DoctorClass* doctor; if(true) { lawyer = dynamic_cast(person); } else { doctor = dynamic_cast(person); } if(true) { lawyer-GoToCourt(); } The main problem with this (besides having to define a bunch of objects that won't be use) is that I have to change the name of the 'person' variable. Is there a better way? (I am not allowed to change any of the classes (Person, Lawyer, or Doctor) because they are part of a library that people who will use my code have and won't want to change). Thanks, Dave

    Read the article

  • MD5CryptoServiceProvider ComputeHash Issues between VS 2003 and VS 2008

    - by owensoroke
    I have a database application that generates a MD5 hash and compares the hash value to a value in our DB (SQL 2K). The original application was written in Visual Studio 2003 and a deployed version has been working for years. Recently, some new machines on the .NET framework 3.5 have been having unrelated issues with our runtime. This has forced us to port our code path from Visual Studio 2003 to Visual Studio 2008. Since that time the hash produced by the code is different than the values in the database. The original call to the function posted in code is: RemoveInvalidPasswordCharactersFromHashedPassword(Text_Scrub(GenerateMD5Hash(strPSW))) I am looking for expert guidance as to whether or not the MD5 methods have changed since VS 2K3 (causing this point of failure), or where other possible problems may be originating from. I realize this may not be the best method to hash, but utimately any changes to the MD5 code would force us to change some 300 values in our DB table and would cost us a lot of time. In addition, I am trying to avoid having to redeploy all of the functioning versions of this application. I am more than happy to post other code including the RemoveInvalidPasswordCharactersFromHashedPassword function, or our Text_Scrub if it is necessary to recieve appropriate feedback. Thank you in advance for your input. Public Function GenerateMD5Hash(ByVal strInput As String) As String Dim md5Provider As MD5 ' generate bytes for the input string Dim inputData() As Byte = ASCIIEncoding.ASCII.GetBytes(strInput) ' compute MD5 hash md5Provider = New MD5CryptoServiceProvider Dim hashResult() As Byte = md5Provider.ComputeHash(inputData) Return ASCIIEncoding.ASCII.GetString(hashResult) End Function

    Read the article

  • class modifier issues in C# with "private" classes

    - by devoured elysium
    I had a class that had lots of methods: public class MyClass { public bool checkConditions() { return checkCondition1() && checkCondition2() && checkCondition3(); } ...conditions methods public void DoProcess() { FirstPartOfProcess(); SecondPartOfProcess(); ThirdPartOfProcess(); } ...process methods } I identified two "vital" work areas, and decided to extract those methods to classes of its own: public class MyClass { private readonly MyClassConditions _conditions = new ...; private readonly MyClassProcessExecution = new ...; public bool checkConditions() { return _conditions.checkConditions(); } public void DoProcess() { _process.DoProcess(); } } In Java, I'd define MyClassConditions and MyClassProcessExecution as package protected, but I can't do that in C#. How would you go about doing this in C#? Setting both classes as inner classes of MyClass? I have 2 options: I either define them inside MyClass, having everything in the same file, which looks confusing and ugly, or I can define MyClass as a partial class, having one file for MyClass, other for MyClassConditions and other for MyClassProcessExecution. Defining them as internal? I don't really like that much of the internal modifier, as I don't find these classes add any value at all for the rest of my program/assembly, and I'd like to hide them if possible. It's not like they're gonna be useful/reusable in any other part of the program. Keep them as public? I can't see why, but I've let this option here. Any other? Name it! Thanks

    Read the article

  • HTML email image inverts on link click Outlook 07/10/13

    - by Matt Maclennan
    I'm having an issue on a HTML email in Word rendered Outlooks (2007, 2010, 2013) where I click an image link, and when the mouse is clicked, the image inverts... Here is the code below... <td align="left" width="360" valign="top" style="mso-table-lspace: 0pt; mso-table-rspace: 0pt; border-collapse: collapse;" class="hide"> <a href="#" target="_blank"> <img src="test.jpg" width="360" height="528" alt="alt tag" style="display:block;" class="img_mob centertable" border="0" align="left"> </a> </td> Here is a comparison on the image clicked/not clicked... I have tried putting a text-decoration: none on the link. All the links are styled inline as well. This is the only image that it is having this issue on the email, so tried re-saving the image with no luck. The image is saved as a JPEG and SRGB from a Photoshop PSD. Any ideas? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Help needed to align controls in a webpage

    - by Retrocoder
    I’m not too familiar with webpage design and am having a problem. I have the following datalist which is displayed ok but it is the section near the bottom that I am having with. I want the Hyperlink image to be on the same line as the “Details” text. Unfortunately the text appears below the Hyperlink control. Is there an easy fix to get what I want ? Should I be using the “div” mark-up instead of and ? <asp:DataList ID="dgDownloads" Width="100%" runat="server" EnableViewState="false" > <ItemTemplate> <tr> <td> <h3 class="mast3"><%# DataBinder.Eval (Container.DataItem, "Alias", "Reported by : {0}")%></h3> </td> <td> <h3 class="mast3"><%# DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem, "CreationDate", "Reported on : {0:dd/MM/yyyy}")%></h3> </td> </tr> <tr> <td colspan="2"> <h3 class="mast6"><%# ((System.Data.IDataRecord) Container.DataItem)["Heading"] %></h3> </td> </tr> <tr> <td colspan="2"> <asp:HyperLink CssClass="buttonStyle" ImageUrl="../images/bg/download.png" runat="server" NavigateUrl='<%#((System.Data.IDataRecord) Container.DataItem)["FileURL"] %>' /> <%# ((System.Data.IDataRecord) Container.DataItem)["Details"] %><ln/><br/><br/> </td> </tr> </ItemTemplate> </asp:DataList>

    Read the article

  • Trying to edit an entity with data from dropdowns in MVC...

    - by user598352
    Hello! I'm having trouble getting my head around sending multiple models to a view in mvc. My problem is the following. Using EF4 I have a table with attributes organised by category. Couldn't post an image :-( [Have a table called attributes (AttributeTitle, AttributeName, CategoryID) connected to a table called Category (CategoryTitle).] What I want to do is be able to edit an attribute entity and have a dropdown of categories to choose from. I tried to make a custom viewmodel public class AttributeViewModel { public AttributeViewModel() { } public Attribute Attribute { get; set; } public IQueryable<Category> AllCategories { get; set; } } But it just ended up being a mess. <div class="editor-field"> <%: Html.DropDownList("Category", new SelectList((IEnumerable)Model.AllCategories, "CategoryID", "CategoryName")) %> </div> I was getting it back to the controller... [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(int AttributeID, FormCollection formcollection) { var _attribute = ProfileDB.GetAttribute(AttributeID); int _selcategory = Convert.ToInt32(formcollection["Category"]); _attribute.CategoryID = (int)_selcategory; try { UpdateModel(_attribute); (<---Error here) ProfileDB.SaveChanges(); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } catch (Exception e) { return View(_attribute); } } I've debugged the code and my _attribute looks correct and _attribute.CategoryID = (int)_selcategory updates the model, but then I get the error. Somewhere here I thought that there should be a cleaner way to do this, and that if I could only send two models to the view instead of having to make a custom viewmodel. To sum it up: I want to edit my attribute and have a dropdown of all of the available categories. Any help much appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Tools for managing code deployment/versioning for IIS / Windows enviroments

    - by RizwanK
    I've got a strong background in Linux and OSX, and just left a job where I was architecting systems based on those platforms. Now I've got a Windows Server running IIS that has a number of different websites that it hosts. Most of them are just a bunch of HTML, JS and Images, with some ASP for some customer tools. (Each website has a different set of customer tools, or they are the same tools, but with minor code changes between them.) I'm also adding a develop web server with the same code, but the 'bleeding edge' stuff. I need an effective way of managing changes and updates to the overall codebase (henceforth referring to both the images and the html and the asp, for all the sites). When a dev (or webmaster) checks in changes, I want it to show up automatically on the developer server, but should be manually pushed out to the live server. I'd be tempted to just make the websites SVN repositories, but I'd be concerned about the overhead of having the webdeveloper having to log into the server and trigger an SVN update via commandline/tortise (and heaven forbid, manage tags). Ideally I'd also manage IIS profile settings between the systems, but the major need is to be able to manage the process, and expose it to our ASP developer, and our webmaster, both of which are used to just FTPing up the files to the live site. So, any recommendations on tools (beyond some SVN hacking with BAT files + teaching the webmaster how to log into the server and do updates) or workflows that would help this out? I even considered an RPM type package (or some Windows equivalent, of course) to manage the live server, but that seems like a bit too much overhead. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • java oracle syntax error?

    - by murali
    hi, i am using the following code for the uploading keywords & count to the excel file. i am having the keyword_id as primary key for that one i had written sentence...i am having the twocolumns in the excel file..1.keyword 2.count my code is: while (rs.next()) { System.out.println("inside "); String keyword = rs.getString(1); int count = rs.getInt(2); System.out.println("insert into SEARCHABLE_KEYWORDS values ('"+ keyword+"','"+count+"')"); stmtdb.execute("insert into SEARCHABLE_KEYWORDS (keyword_id,keyword,count) values ('"+ "select Searchable_Keywords_sequence.nextval from dual"+ "','"+keyword+"','"+count+"')"); System.out.println(keyword + " " + keyword+" count "+count); } but I am getting the following error: java.sql.SQLException: [Microsoft][ODBC Excel Driver] Too few parameters. Expected 1. at sun.jdbc.odbc.JdbcOdbc.createSQLException(JdbcOdbc.java:6998) at sun.jdbc.odbc.JdbcOdbc.standardError(JdbcOdbc.java:7155) at sun.jdbc.odbc.JdbcOdbc.SQLExecDirect(JdbcOdbc.java:3151) at sun.jdbc.odbc.JdbcOdbcStatement.execute(JdbcOdbcStatement.java:378) at sun.jdbc.odbc.JdbcOdbcStatement.executeQuery(JdbcOdbcStatement.java:284) at keywordsreader.main(keywordsreader.java:42) please help to slove this problem...

    Read the article

  • Handling Denormalized Schema with Eclipselink

    - by iamrohitbanga
    Hello All I have a denormalized table containing employee information. The fields are employee id, name and department name. The primary key is a composite one consisting of all three fields. An employee can belong to multiple departments. I want to read/write the objects in the table using the Eclipselink Dynamic Persistence API (which is infact a wrapper on top of JPA descriptors etc.). Example Data: 1 e1 dep1 2 e1 dep2 3 e2 dep1 4 e2 dep3 5 e3 dep1 5 e3 dep2 5 e3 dep3 A normal ReadAllQuery (select query) on the table returns a DynamicEntity corresponding to each row in the table. However I want to club all entities based on the emp id and return all the departments he belongs to as a list. I can merge the entities after retrieving them but if I can use some Eclipselink feature out of the box then it would be better. One way to do the read is the following: I create two dynamic types corresponding to employee: Having id,name as the primary key Having id, department as the primary key, I create a OneToManyMapping from the first type to the second one. Then when I query the first type it does return the departments to which employee belongs as a list of DynamicEntity of the second type. This satisfies the read scenario. Is there a better way of doing this? Is this inherently supported by Eclipselink or JPA? I cannot get the same dynamic type configuration working for the write scenario. This is because when I write the changes using the writeObject method of UnitOfWork, it generates insert queries which enter the following entries in the table id name department 102 emp_102 102 st 102 dep_102 102 dep_102 102 dep_102 instead of: id name department 102 emp_102 st 102 emp_102 dep_102 102 emp_102 dep_102 102 emp_102 dep_102 Is there any way I can get write to work with this schema using eclipselink? I want to avoid doing the heavy lifting of merging the rows for such a denormalized schema or generating each row before doing a write. Is there no clean way of doing this using Eclipselink or JPA? Thanks in Advance.

    Read the article

  • Trouble tunneling my local Wordpress install to the mysql database on appfog

    - by alanmoo
    I've set up a wordpress install on appfog (using rackspace), and cloned the install to my local machine for development. I know the install works (using MAMP) because I created a local mysql database and changed wp-config.php to point to it. However, I want to develop without having to change wp-config.php every time I commit. After doing some research, it seems like the Appfog service Caldecott lets me tunnel into the mysql database on the server, using af tunnel. Unfortunately, I'm having issues with getting it working. Even if I change my MAMP mysql port to something like 8889, and tunnel mysql through port 3306, it looks like it's connected but I still get "Error establishing a database connection" when loading my localhost Wordpress. When I quit the mysql monitor (using ctrl+x, ctrl+c), I get a message stating "Error: 'mysql' execution failed; is it in your $PATH?'. Originally, no, it wasn't, but I've fixed my PATH variable on my local machine so that when I go to Terminal and just type mysql, it loads up. So I guess my question is 2 parts: 1.)Am I going with the right approach for Wordpress development on my local machine and 2.)If so, why is the tunnel not working?

    Read the article

  • How do I put my return data from an asmx into JSON?

    - by jphenow
    I want to return an array of javascript objects from my asp.net asmx file. ie. variable = [ { *value1*: 'value1', *value2*: 'value2', ..., }, { . . } ]; I seem have been having trouble reaching this. I'd put this into code but I've been hacking away at it so much it'd probably do more harm than good in having this answered. Basically I am using a web service to find names as people type the name. I'd use a regular text file or something but its a huge database that's always changing - and don't worry I've indexed the names so searching can be a little snappier - but I would really prefer to stick with this method and just figure out how to get usable JSON back to javascript. I've seen a few that sort of attempt to describe how one would approach this but I honestly think microsofts articles are damn near unreadable. Thanks in advance for assistance. EDIT: I'm using the $.ajax() function from jQuery - I've had it working but it seems like I was doing it in bad practice not returning and using actual JSON. Previously I'd take a string back and insert it into html to use the variable it set - very roundabout.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144  | Next Page >