Search Results

Search found 43031 results on 1722 pages for 'point and click games'.

Page 1609/1722 | < Previous Page | 1605 1606 1607 1608 1609 1610 1611 1612 1613 1614 1615 1616  | Next Page >

  • Multiple View App shows Blank Screen in Simulator

    - by Brett Coburn
    Hello; I am developing a simple app that first shows a menu screen, and when a button is pressed, a game screen appears. I was able to develop the game screen without any issues, but when I changed the code to first display the menu, the simulator showed a blank screen. I've read all the articles on connecting views with IB but I can't figure this out. Any help would be appreciated. This is my code: // Pong_Multiple_ViewAppDelegate.h // Pong Multiple View // // Created by Brett on 10-05-19. // Copyright __MyCompanyName__ 2010. All rights reserved. // #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @class MenuViewController; @interface Pong_Multiple_ViewAppDelegate : NSObject <UIApplicationDelegate> { UIWindow *window; MenuViewController *navigationController; } @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UIWindow *window; @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet MenuViewController *navigationController; @end // // Pong_Multiple_ViewAppDelegate.m // Pong Multiple View // // Created by Brett on 10-05-19. // Copyright __MyCompanyName__ 2010. All rights reserved. // #import "Pong_Multiple_ViewAppDelegate.h" #import "MenuViewController.h" @implementation Pong_Multiple_ViewAppDelegate @synthesize window; @synthesize navigationController; - (void)application:(UIApplication *)application{ // Override point for customization after application launch [window addSubview:[navigationController view]]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; } - (void)dealloc { [navigationController release]; [window release]; [super dealloc]; } @end // // MenuViewController.h // Pong Multiple View // // Created by Brett on 10-05-19. // Copyright 2010 __MyCompanyName__. All rights reserved. // #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> #import "GameViewController.h" @interface MenuViewController : UIViewController { GameViewController *gameViewController; IBOutlet UIButton *gameButton; } @property(nonatomic, retain) GameViewController *gameViewController; @property(nonatomic, retain) UIButton *gameButton; -(IBAction)switchPage:(id)sender; @end // // MenuViewController.m // Pong Multiple View // // Created by Brett on 10-05-19. // Copyright 2010 __MyCompanyName__. All rights reserved. // #import "MenuViewController.h" #import "GameViewController.h" @implementation MenuViewController @synthesize gameViewController; @synthesize gameButton; -(IBAction)switchPage:(id)sender{ if (self.gameViewController==nil) { GameViewController *gameView = [[GameViewController alloc]initWithNibName:@"GameView" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; self.gameViewController= gameView; [gameView release]; } [self.navigationController pushViewController:self.gameViewController animated:YES]; } .... @end My code also includes classes: GameViewController.h, GameViewController.m, and nib files: MenuView.xib, and GameView.xib Thanks, B

    Read the article

  • VS2008 C++ MFC Access Violation ONLY when stepping through debug mode

    - by HotOil
    Hi. This is crazy. It started happening in my main project, so I created a tiny sample brand-new project to reproduce it in and sure enough.. It does NOT happen in a sample project I created that is only a Win32 console app. I'm running this on Win7x64, if that matters. VS2008 SP1. Here goes. I create a small dialog app with a button. Put a breakpoint in the handler function for that button. The button handler function looks like this: void CTestProjectDlg::OnBnClickedButton1() { int i=2; m_csHello.Format(_T("Hello World!")); << breakpoint here UpdateData(FALSE); } Click the button, hit the breakpoint. F10 to step, and boom: "First-chance exception at 0x0398f77b in TestProject.exe: 0xC0000005: Access violation." It gives me the option to Break or Continue. If I Continue, it just hits it again, only not "First Chance". Yes I have that exception checked in the Debug-Exceptions dlg. If I Break, the call stack just shows me the line where the breakpoint is. If I F10 again.. I get the exception again, only now the callstack shows me in the _AfxDispatchCmdMsg() function, and my original OnBnClickedButton1() is not in the callstack anymore. It doesn't matter where I put the breakpoint. If, instead of F10, I just continue with F5, it works normally. Now.. if I build a Release version and run in debugging mode: I hit the breakpoint, and all the pointers, variable values look normal. F10, and these turn to garbage. The this pointer is now zero. The m_csHello is now However, in Release mode, an exception is not caught, and it all runs fine. The "hello World string gets displayed in the dialog box as it should. I have put in an inquiry to see if some patch was installed on my box by the IT dept in the last day or two. This wasn't happening 2 days ago. What do you think? Is VS2008 corrupted? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How do I serialize an object to xml but not have it be the root element of the xml document

    - by mezoid
    I have the following object: public class MyClass { public int Id { get; set;} public string Name { get; set; } } I'm wanting to serialize this to the following xml string: <MyClass> <Id>1</Id> <Name>My Name</Name> </MyClass> Unfortunately, when I use the XMLSerializer I get a string which looks like: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <MyClass xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <Id>1</Id> <Name>My Name</Name> </MyClass> I'm not wanting MyClass to be the root element the document, rather I'm eventually wanting to add the string with other similar serialized objects which will be within a larger xml document. i.e. Eventually I'll have a xml string which looks like this: <Classes> <MyClass> <Id>1</Id> <Name>My Name</Name> </MyClass> <MyClass> <Id>1</Id> <Name>My Name</Name> </MyClass> </Classes>" My first thought was to create a class as follows: public class Classes { public List<MyClass> MyClasses { get; set; } } ...but that just addes an additional node called MyClasses to wrap the list of MyClass.... My gut feeling is that I'm approaching this the wrong way and that my lack of experience with creating xml files isn't helping to point me to some part of the .NET framework or some other library that simplifies this.

    Read the article

  • How can arguments to variadic functions be passed by reference in PHP?

    - by outis
    Assuming it's possible, how would one pass arguments by reference to a variadic function without generating a warning in PHP? We can no longer use the '&' operator in a function call, otherwise I'd accept that (even though it would be error prone, should a coder forget it). What inspired this is are old MySQLi wrapper classes that I unearthed (these days, I'd just use PDO). The only difference between the wrappers and the MySQLi classes is the wrappers throw exceptions rather than returning FALSE. class DBException extends RuntimeException {} ... class MySQLi_throwing extends mysqli { ... function prepare($query) { $stmt = parent::prepare($query); if (!$stmt) { throw new DBException($this->error, $this->errno); } return new MySQLi_stmt_throwing($this, $query, $stmt); } } // I don't remember why I switched from extension to composition, but // it shouldn't matter for this question. class MySQLi_stmt_throwing /* extends MySQLi_stmt */ { protected $_link, $_query, $_delegate; public function __construct($link, $query, $prepared) { //parent::__construct($link, $query); $this->_link = $link; $this->_query = $query; $this->_delegate = $prepared; } function bind_param($name, &$var) { return $this->_delegate->bind_param($name, $var); } function __call($name, $args) { //$rslt = call_user_func_array(array($this, 'parent::' . $name), $args); $rslt = call_user_func_array(array($this->_delegate, $name), $args); if (False === $rslt) { throw new DBException($this->_link->error, $this->errno); } return $rslt; } } The difficulty lies in calling methods such as bind_result on the wrapper. Constant-arity functions (e.g. bind_param) can be explicitly defined, allowing for pass-by-reference. bind_result, however, needs all arguments to be pass-by-reference. If you call bind_result on an instance of MySQLi_stmt_throwing as-is, the arguments are passed by value and the binding won't take. try { $id = Null; $stmt = $db->prepare('SELECT id FROM tbl WHERE ...'); $stmt->execute() $stmt->bind_result($id); // $id is still null at this point ... } catch (DBException $exc) { ... } Since the above classes are no longer in use, this question is merely a matter of curiosity. Alternate approaches to the wrapper classes are not relevant. Defining a method with a bunch of arguments taking Null default values is not correct (what if you define 20 arguments, but the function is called with 21?). Answers don't even need to be written in terms of MySQL_stmt_throwing; it exists simply to provide a concrete example.

    Read the article

  • Adding UIView animation mysteriously changes starting frame

    - by clozach
    I'm working on an app that shows a thumbnail of a photo taken by the user. In order to show a seemless transition from the full-screen image shown in the UIImagePickerController to the thumbnail, I set the frame on my copy of the image to [[UIScreen mainScreen] bounds] and then change the frame to match the frame of an invisible button. (The button allows users to re-take their photo by tapping the thumbnail image.) The trouble is that the starting x-origin of my UIImageView (imageView) is mysteriously starting nearly offscreen to the left: As you can see from the alert, the imageView purports to be located at (0,0), yet it's displaying at something like (-255,0). Here's the code: CGRect frame = [[UIScreen mainScreen] bounds]; imageView.frame = frame; [[[[UIAlertView alloc] initWithTitle:@"Yo!" message:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"starting frame:%@",NSStringFromCGRect(imageView.frame)] delegate:nil cancelButtonTitle:@"K." otherButtonTitles:nil] autorelease] show]; // Slide the enlarged image seamlessly "onto" the photo button [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:1000]; [UIView setAnimationDelay:.5]; imageView.frame = pictureButton.frame; [UIView commitAnimations]; As if to taunt me, the image actually does go full screen if I comment out the animation code: CGRect frame = [[UIScreen mainScreen] bounds]; imageView.frame = frame; [[[[UIAlertView alloc] initWithTitle:@"Yo!" message:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"starting frame:%@",NSStringFromCGRect(imageView.frame)] delegate:nil cancelButtonTitle:@"K." otherButtonTitles:nil] autorelease] show]; // Slide the enlarged image seamlessly "onto" the photo button // [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:nil]; // [UIView setAnimationDuration:1000]; // [UIView setAnimationDelay:.5]; // // imageView.frame = pictureButton.frame; // // [UIView commitAnimations]; (Note: animationDuration will of course be set to something more like .5 in production, not 1000 seconds.) Update — Other weirdness worth mentioning in case it's relevant: It turns out the offset changes depending on the orientation of the camera when the photo was taken. If I take the picture with the phone upside-down, for instance, then the image gets offset vertically as well as horizontally. The picker seems to be filling the image's imageOrientation incorrectly: I have to hold the phone sideways, Home button on the left, to get an image with UIImageOrientationUp. At one point I experimented with setting imageView.clipsToBounds = YES;, which revealed that my image view's frame is in fact correct. Rather, it's the UIImage's placement within the UIImageView that gets offset. Fwiw, the image view's contentMode is the default, UIViewContentModeScaleToFill.

    Read the article

  • XML deserializer (Iserialzable)

    - by user311130
    Hey everybody, I have a class in c# that implements Iserialzable. I'm using a XMLSerializer that produces a XML from instance of that class. I get the following XML: <?xml version="1.0"?> <Configuration xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <SessionConfiguration> <RemoteMachineName>HV-BENDA</RemoteMachineName> </SessionConfiguration> <SessionsCredentialsList> <CredentialsItem> <User>test0</User> <Password>Pa$$word1</Password> </CredentialsItem> <CredentialsItem> <User>test1</User> <Password>Pa$$word1</Password> </CredentialsItem> <CredentialsItem> <User>test2</User> <Password>Pa$$word1</Password> </CredentialsItem> <CredentialsItem> <User>test3</User> <Password>Pa$$word1</Password> </CredentialsItem> <CredentialsItem> <User>test4</User> <Password>Pa$$word1</Password> </CredentialsItem> </SessionsCredentialsList> <TIME_OUT /> <LOCAL_USERS_NUM>5</LOCAL_USERS_NUM> </Configuration> At some later point in the code I use a XMLSerializer again to deserial that XML document. and I get the following error: {"There is an error in XML document (1, 1)."} Inner exception: {"Data at the root level is invalid. Line 1, position 1."} Do someone knows wat could be the problem? All the best

    Read the article

  • EventDispatcher between an as and an fla?

    - by Christopher Richa
    Hi everyone. I am making a fighting game in Flash and while I have everything running, I am missing something: a victory/loss screen. Logically, I know how to do it: if character.hp < 0 { character.dead = true; dispatchevent("death", event) } My problem is that I have no idea as to how to code it. I know I will use two classes and my two .fla files (unless I am wrong). I have two .fla files that are in play here: the Menu.fla file and the Arena.fla file. Menu.fla contains the entire navigation of the game, options, character selection screens, etc. and when it is time for the player to engage in battle, it loads the Arena.fla file, which contains only the backgrounds (depending on the selected stage) and for now is set to a length of one frame only. For Arena.fla, the real action happens in my classes, but logically, I would only need HP.as and Character.as. In Character.as, I have declared the following variable: var isDead:Boolean = false; //is character dead? In HP.as, believe I should have the following: if(currentHp<0) { currentHp = 0; character.isDead = true; //declared as var `character:Object;` EventDispatcher.dispatchEventListener("playerDead", playerDead); } And finally, in Arena.fla, I want to be able to detect the above-mentioned eventlistener and simply move on to a second frame which will display a message in the style of "PLAYER ONE HAS WON" or "PLAYER ONE HAS LOST" with a button that will allow me to go back to the character selection screen. This is the first part in which I am stuck: how do I detect the dispatched event listener in my main .fla file? Secondly, if the player clicks on the "CONTINUE" button, which displays regardless if the player has won or lost, how can my Menu.fla (which loads the Arena.swf) detect this click event, unload the game, and go back to the character selection screen? Thank you in advance for helping me out. I realize this is a lot of text but it's the most descriptive I can be. If you have any questions or need any clarification concerning my question, feel free to speak up. -Christopher

    Read the article

  • How do bind a List<object> to a DataGrid in Silverlight?

    - by Ben McCormack
    I'm trying to create a simple Silverlight application that involves parsing a CSV file and displaying the results in a DataGrid. I've configured my application to parse the CSV file to return a List<CSVTransaction> that contains properties with names: Date, Payee, Category, Memo, Inflow, Outflow. The user clicks a button to select a file to parse, at which point I want the DataGrid object to be populated. I'm thinking I want to use data binding, but I can't seem to figure out how to get the data to show up in the grid. My XAML for the DataGrid looks like this: <data:DataGrid IsEnabled="False" x:Name="TransactionsPreview"> <data:DataGrid.Columns> <data:DataGridTextColumn Header="Date" Binding="{Binding Date}" /> <data:DataGridTextColumn Header="Payee" Binding="{Binding Payee}"/> <data:DataGridTextColumn Header="Category" Binding="{Binding Category}"/> <data:DataGridTextColumn Header="Memo" Binding="{Binding Memo}"/> <data:DataGridTextColumn Header="Inflow" Binding="{Binding Inflow}"/> <data:DataGridTextColumn Header="Outflow" Binding="{Binding Outflow}"/> </data:DataGrid.Columns> </data:DataGrid> The code-behind for the xaml.cs file looks like this: private void OpenCsvFile_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { try { CsvTransObject csvTO = new CsvTransObject.ParseCSV(); //This returns a List<CsvTransaction> and passes it //to a method which is supposed to set the DataContext //for the DataGrid to be equal to the list. BindCsvTransactions(csvTO.CsvTransactions); TransactionsPreview.IsEnabled = true; MessageBox.Show("The CSV file has a valid header and has been loaded successfully."); } catch (Exception ex) { MessageBox.Show(ex.Message); } } private void BindCsvTransactions(List<CsvTransaction> listYct) { TransactionsPreview.DataContext = listYct; } My thinking is to bind the CsvTransaction properties to each DataGridTextColumn in the XAML and then set the DataContext for the DataGrid to the List<CsvTransaction at run-time, but this isn't working. Any ideas about how I might approach this (or do it better)?

    Read the article

  • markitup wysiwyg with a standard HTML form

    - by Chris
    Hi, I'm trying to use the markitup editor on my site and I'm having a problem trying to figure out what I need to do to submit the text area to my server side script. I'm guessing there is something simple that needs to be done but my lack of JS/JQuery knowledge is making it really hard to find a answer The editor works fine, I just want to use my own form and submit button with it, however when I try to submit the form I don't get any of the textarea data in my script. Any idea what I need to do? This is the min that works (before submit) In the Head of my HTML <script type="text/javascript" > <!-- $(document).ready(function() { $("#markItUp").markItUp(mySettings); }); --> </script> And the body: <form id="postpreview" name="newpost" action="/someurl" method="POST" /> <input type="hidden" name="key1" value="val1" /> <input type="hidden" name="key2" value="val2" /> <textarea name="text" id="markItUp"></textarea> <input id="SubmitPost" type="image" value="Continue" name="Doit" class="preview" src="/img/somimage" /> </form> As I said, everything prior to the submit works but once I submit I don't get anything for the form data element "text". I tried doing this in the head: <script type="text/javascript" > <!-- $(document).ready(function() { $("#markItUp").markItUp(mySettings); $("#SubmitPost").click(function(){ data = markItUp.textarea.value; $.post("scripturl",{ key1: "value1", key2: "value2", text: data }); }); }); --> </script> I've also tried: <script type="text/javascript" > <!-- $(document).ready(function() { $("#markItUp").markItUp(mySettings); $("#postpreview").submit(function(){ var data = $("#markItUp").html(); $.post("live",{ func: "posting", text: data }); return false; }); }); --> </script> And I have no luck - the last attempt above just disabled the form (so clicking on the submit or preview buttons did nothing). Any ideas? I guessing its really simple to use my own form but I have no clue how to do it. TIA!

    Read the article

  • Android table width queries

    - by user1653285
    I have a table layout (code below), but I have am having a bit of a problem with the width of the cells. The picture below shows the problem. There should be a white border on the right hand side of the screen. I also want the text "Auditorium" not to wrap onto a new line (I would prefer that "13th -" get put onto the new line instead, I don't want to put \n in there because then it would mean it goes onto a new line at that point on bigger screens/landscape view). How can I fix those two problems? <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <ScrollView xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:background="#013567" > <TableLayout android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:shrinkColumns="*" android:stretchColumns="*" > <TableRow android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" > <TextView android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent" android:background="@drawable/textlines" android:gravity="center" android:text="@string/meeting_5" android:textColor="#fff" > </TextView> <TextView android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent" android:background="@drawable/textlines" android:gravity="center" android:text="@string/meeting_5_date" android:textColor="#fff" > </TextView> <TextView android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent" android:background="@drawable/textlines" android:gravity="center" android:text="@string/meeting_5_location" android:textColor="#fff" > </TextView> </TableRow> <TableRow android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" > <TextView android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent" android:background="@drawable/textlines" android:gravity="center" android:text="@string/AGM" android:textColor="#fff" > </TextView> <TextView android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent" android:background="@drawable/textlines" android:gravity="center" android:text="@string/AGM_date" android:textColor="#fff" > </TextView> <TextView android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent" android:background="@drawable/textlines" android:gravity="center" android:text="@string/AGM_location" android:textColor="#fff" > </TextView> </TableRow> </TableLayout>

    Read the article

  • Convert a PDF to a Transparent PNG with GhostScript

    - by Jonathon Wolfe
    Hi all. I am attempting, unsuccessfully, to use Ghostscript to rasterize PDF files with a transparent background to PNG files with a transparent background. I've searched high and low for questions from others attempting the same thing and none of the posted solutions, which as far as I can tell come down to specifying -sDEVICE=pngalpha, have worked with my test files. At this point I would really appreciate any advice or tips a more experienced hand could provide. My test PDF is located here: http://www.kolossus.com/files/test.pdf It could be that the issue is with this file, but I doubt it. As far as I can tell, it has no specified background, and when I open the file with a transparency-aware app like Photoshop or Illustrator, sure enough it displays with a transparent background. However, when opened with an application like Adobe Reader the file is rendered with a white background. I believe that this has more to do with the application rendering the PDF than with the PDF itself -- apps like Adobe Reader assume you want to see what a printed document will look like and therefore always show a white canvas behind the artwork -- but I can't be sure. The gs command I'm using is: gs -dNOPAUSE -dBATCH -sDEVICE=pngalpha -r72 -sOutputFile=test.png test.pdf This produces a PNG that has transparent pixels outside of the bounding box of the artwork in the file, but all pixels that are inside the artwork's bounding box are rasterized against a white background. This is a problem for me, as my artwork has drop shadows and antialiased edges that need to be preserved in the final output, and can't just be postprocessed out with ImageMagick. A sample of my PNG output is at the same location as the pdf above, with .png at the end (stackoverflow won't let me include more than one url in my post). Interestingly, I see no effects from using the -dBackgroundColor flag, even if I set it to something non-white like -dBackgroundColor=16#ff0000. Perhaps my understanding of the syntax of this flag is wrong. Also interestingly, I see no effects from using the -dTextAlphaBits=4 -dGraphicsAlphaBits=4 flags to try to enable subpixel antialiasing. I would also appreciate any advice on how to enable subpixel antialiasing, especially on text. Finally, I'm using GPL Ghostscript 8.64 on Mac OS 10.5.7, and the rendering workflow I'm trying to get set up is to generate transparent PNG images from PDFs output by PrinceXML. I'm calling Ghostscript directly for the rasterization instead of using ImageMagick because ImageMagick delegates to Ghostscript for PDF rasterization and I should be able to control the rasterization better by calling GS directly. Thanks for your help. -Jon Wolfe

    Read the article

  • Unable to connect to MS Access database through JDBC on Win 7 64-bit

    - by Ninad
    Hello. I've been trying to connect to a MS Access 2007 database through JDBC. My JDK is JDK 1.6u18 64-bit and OS is Windows 7 64-bit. But problem is I am unable to create a DSN using Windows\system32\odbcad32.exe because it doesn't show ODBC drivers for MS Access at all, it's only showing drivers for MS SQL Server. When tried to click on Configure for "MS Access Database" (which is an already created DSN, I guess), it first shows error message : "The setup routines for the Microsoft Access Drivers (*.mdb, *.accdb) ODBC Driver could not be found. Please reinstall the driver." And then another message : "Errors found! The specified DSN contains an architecture mismatch between the Driver and Application." I cannot reinstall the MDAC as it doesn't work with Windows 7 (which comes with its own WDAC). The odbcad32.exe in Windows\SysWOW64 does let me create a DSN for MS Access, it shows the drivers installed properly. However, when tried to connect to that DSN through a Java program, I get the following exception : java.sql.SQLException: [Microsoft][ODBC Driver Manager] The specified DSN contains an architecture mismatch between the Driver and Application at sun.jdbc.odbc.JdbcOdbc.createSQLException(Unknown Source) at sun.jdbc.odbc.JdbcOdbc.standardError(Unknown Source) at sun.jdbc.odbc.JdbcOdbc.SQLDriverConnect(Unknown Source) at sun.jdbc.odbc.JdbcOdbcConnection.initialize(Unknown Source) at sun.jdbc.odbc.JdbcOdbcDriver.connect(Unknown Source) at java.sql.DriverManager.getConnection(Unknown Source) at java.sql.DriverManager.getConnection(Unknown Source) at AccessTest.main(AccessTest.java:19) What might be the problem and what do I have to do to get it working? My OS as well as JDK are 64-bit. Can't I connect to a Access 2007 database, which I presume is 32-bit? Any help would be highly appreciated. Also, in case one thinks this's not a right place for this question, I apologize in advance. Then please guide me to appropriate forum. Another option would be to find a third-party JDBC driver for MS Access. But I do need to know what's wrong with my configuration. :-/ PS : I know there're many better databases available out there, but for few unfortunate reasons, I have to use MS Access only and have to get it working.

    Read the article

  • Is this (Lock-Free) Queue Implementation Thread-Safe?

    - by Hosam Aly
    I am trying to create a lock-free queue implementation in Java, mainly for personal learning. The queue should be a general one, allowing any number of readers and/or writers concurrently. Would you please review it, and suggest any improvements/issues you find? Thank you. import java.util.concurrent.atomic.AtomicReference; public class LockFreeQueue<T> { private static class Node<E> { E value; volatile Node<E> next; Node(E value) { this.value = value; } } private AtomicReference<Node<T>> head, tail; public LockFreeQueue() { // have both head and tail point to a dummy node Node<T> dummyNode = new Node<T>(null); head = new AtomicReference<Node<T>>(dummyNode); tail = new AtomicReference<Node<T>>(dummyNode); } /** * Puts an object at the end of the queue. */ public void putObject(T value) { Node<T> newNode = new Node<T>(value); Node<T> prevTailNode = tail.getAndSet(newNode); prevTailNode.next = newNode; } /** * Gets an object from the beginning of the queue. The object is removed * from the queue. If there are no objects in the queue, returns null. */ public T getObject() { Node<T> headNode, valueNode; // move head node to the next node using atomic semantics // as long as next node is not null do { headNode = head.get(); valueNode = headNode.next; // try until the whole loop executes pseudo-atomically // (i.e. unaffected by modifications done by other threads) } while (valueNode != null && !head.compareAndSet(headNode, valueNode)); T value = (valueNode != null ? valueNode.value : null); // release the value pointed to by head, keeping the head node dummy if (valueNode != null) valueNode.value = null; return value; }

    Read the article

  • PHP Form POST to external URL with Redirect to another URL

    - by Marlon
    So, what I am trying to accomplish is have a self-posting PHP form, POST to an external page (using CURL) which in turn redirects to another page. Currently, what is happening is that once I click "Submit" on the form (in contact.php) it will POST to itself (as it is a self-posting form). The script then prepares the POST using CURL and performs the post. The external page does its processing and then, the external page is supposed to redirect back to another page, in a referring domain. However, what happens instead, is that it seems like the contact.php page loads the HTML from the page the external page redirected to, and then, the contact.php's HTML loads after that, ON THE SAME PAGE. The effect, is what looks like two separate pages rendered as one page. Naturally, I just want to perform the POST and have the browser render the page it is supposed to redirect to as specified by the external page. Here is the code I have so far: <?php if(isset($_POST['submit'])) { doCURLPost(); } function doCURLPost() { $emailid = "2, 4"; $hotel = $_POST['hotel']; //you will need to setup an array of fields to post with //then create the post string $data = array ( "recipient" => $emailid, "subject" => "Hotel Contact Form", "redirect" => "http://www.localhost.com/thanx.htm", "Will be staying in hotel: " => $_POST['hotel'], "Name" => $_POST['Name'], "Phone" => $_POST['Phone'], "Comments" => $_POST['Comments']); $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, "http://www.externallink.com/external.aspx"); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_FOLLOWLOCATION, true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $data); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HTTPHEADER, array("Referer: http://www.localhost.com/contact.php")); $output = curl_exec($ch); $info = curl_getinfo($ch); curl_close($ch); } ?>

    Read the article

  • Securing a license key with RSA key.

    - by Jesse Knott
    Hello, it's late, I'm tired, and probably being quite dense.... I have written an application that I need to secure so it will only run on machines that I generate a key for. What I am doing for now is getting the BIOS serial number and generating a hash from that, I then am encrypting it using a XML RSA private key. I then sign the XML to ensure that it is not tampered with. I am trying to package the public key to decrypt and verify the signature with, but every time I try to execute the code as a different user than the one that generated the signature I get a failure on the signature. Most of my code is modified from sample code I have found since I am not as familiar with RSA encryption as I would like to be. Below is the code I was using and the code I thought I needed to use to get this working right... Any feedback would be greatly appreciated as I am quite lost at this point the original code I was working with was this, this code works fine as long as the user launching the program is the same one that signed the document originally... CspParameters cspParams = new CspParameters(); cspParams.KeyContainerName = "XML_DSIG_RSA_KEY"; cspParams.Flags = CspProviderFlags.UseMachineKeyStore; // Create a new RSA signing key and save it in the container. RSACryptoServiceProvider rsaKey = new RSACryptoServiceProvider(cspParams) { PersistKeyInCsp = true, }; This code is what I believe I should be doing but it's failing to verify the signature no matter what I do, regardless if it's the same user or a different one... RSACryptoServiceProvider rsaKey = new RSACryptoServiceProvider(); //Load the private key from xml file XmlDocument xmlPrivateKey = new XmlDocument(); xmlPrivateKey.Load("KeyPriv.xml"); rsaKey.FromXmlString(xmlPrivateKey.InnerXml); I believe this to have something to do with the key container name (Being a real dumbass here please excuse me) I am quite certain that this is the line that is both causing it to work in the first case and preventing it from working in the second case.... cspParams.KeyContainerName = "XML_DSIG_RSA_KEY"; Is there a way for me to sign/encrypt the XML with a private key when the application license is generated and then drop the public key in the app directory and use that to verify/decrypt the code? I can drop the encryption part if I can get the signature part working right. I was using it as a backup to obfuscate the origin of the license code I am keying from. Does any of this make sense? Am I a total dunce? Thanks for any help anyone can give me in this..

    Read the article

  • NSStringWithFormat Swizzled to allow missing format numbered args

    - by coneybeare
    Based on this SO question asked a few hours ago, I have decided to implement a swizzled method that will allow me to take a formatted NSString as the format arg into stringWithFormat, and have it not break when omitting one of the numbered arg references (%1$@, %2$@) I have it working, but this is the first copy, and seeing as this method is going to be potentially called hundreds of thousands of times per app run, I need to bounce this off of some experts to see if this method has any red flags, major performance hits, or optimizations #define NUMARGS(...) (sizeof((int[]){__VA_ARGS__})/sizeof(int)) @implementation NSString (UAFormatOmissions) + (id)uaStringWithFormat:(NSString *)format, ... { if (format != nil) { va_list args; va_start(args, format); // $@ is an ordered variable (%1$@, %2$@...) if ([format rangeOfString:@"$@"].location == NSNotFound) { //call apples method NSString *s = [[[NSString alloc] initWithFormat:format arguments:args] autorelease]; va_end(args); return s; } NSMutableArray *newArgs = (NSMutableArray *)[NSMutableArray arrayWithCapacity:NUMARGS(args)]; id arg = nil; int i = 1; while (arg = va_arg(args, id)) { NSString *f = (NSString *)[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%%%d\$\@", i]; i++; if ([format rangeOfString:f].location == NSNotFound) continue; else [newArgs addObject:arg]; } va_end(args); char *newArgList = (char *)malloc(sizeof(id) * [newArgs count]); [newArgs getObjects:(id *)newArgList]; NSString* result = [[[NSString alloc] initWithFormat:format arguments:newArgList] autorelease]; free(newArgList); return result; } return nil; } The basic algorithm is: search the format string for the %1$@, %2$@ variables by searching for %@ if not found, call the normal stringWithFormat and return else, loop over the args if the format has a position variable (%i$@) for position i, add the arg to the new arg array else, don't add the arg take the new arg array, convert it back into a va_list, and call initWithFormat:arguments: to get the correct string. The idea is that I would run all [NSString stringWithFormat:] calls through this method instead. This might seem unnecessary to many, but click on to the referenced SO question (first line) to see examples of why I need to do this. Ideas? Thoughts? Better implementations? Better Solutions?

    Read the article

  • Asp.net hosting equivalent of Dreamhost (pricing, features and support)

    - by Cherian
    Disclaimer: I have browsed http://stackoverflow.com/questions/tagged/asp.net+hosting and didn’t find anything quite similar in value to Dreamhost. One of the biggest impediments IMHO for developing web applications on asp.net is the cost of deployment. I am not talking about building sites like Stackoverflow.com or plentyoffish.com. This is about sites that are bigger than brochureware and smaller than ones that require dedicated servers. Let me give you an example. xmec.org is an asp.net site I maintain for my college alumni. On an average it’s slated to hit around 1000-1100 views per day. At present it’s hosted on godaddy. The service is so damn pathetic; I am using it only because of the lack of options. The site doesn’t scale (no, it’s not the code) and the web control panels are extremely slow. The money I pay doesn’t justify the service or the performance. Every deployment push is a visit to the infuriating web control panel to set the permissions and the root directories. Had I developed it in python, this would have been deployed on Dreamhost.com with $10/year hosting fees (they have offers running all throughout) 50 GB space 5 MySQL Databases Shell / FTP Users POP / SMTP Access Unlimited Domains hosting Unlimited Sub domains hosting Unlimited Domains Forwarded/Mirrored Custom DNS (These are the only ones I could think of. More at the feature page) With a dream host shell, I even have a svn checked-out version of wordpress for my blog. Now, that’s control! To my question: Is there any asp.net (preferably .net 3.5. Dreamhost keeps on updating versions every fortnight) hosting company providing remotely similar feature-sets and pricing like Dreamhost. My requirements are: Less than $15-25/ year Typical WISP minus PHP .net 3.5 SP1 Full Trust mode(I can live with medium trust, if not for the IL emitting libraries) Isolated Application Pool 5 – 10 MySQL db’s Unlimited domain hosting MsSql 2005 or 2008 FTP support At Least 5 GB space SMTP IIS 7 Log files Accessibility Moderately good control panel Scripting, shell support Nominal bandwidth Another case in point: Recently I’ve been contemplating building a tool-website to find duplicates and weird characters in my Google contacts and fix them. With asp.net, the best part is that I can do this with LINQ to XML in less than 100 lines of code. What’s bad is the hosting part. I don’t think I stand to make any money out of this and therefore can’t afford to host it on GoGrid or DiscountAsp.net. Godaddy is not an option either. If I do this in python, I can push to this my existing $10 Dreamhost account with another domain pointed. No extra cost. Svn exported with scripts (capability) to change the connection string! Looking at the problem holistically, I think I represent a large breed of programmers playing it cheap and experimenting different things on a regular basis, one of which will become the next twitter/digg.

    Read the article

  • H.264 over RTP - Identify SPS and PPS Frames

    - by Toby
    I have a raw H.264 Stream from an IP Camera packed in RTP frames. I want to get raw H.264 data into a file so I can convert it with ffmpeg. So when I want to write the data into my raw H.264 file I found out it has to look like this: 00 00 01 [SPS] 00 00 01 [PPS] 00 00 01 [NALByte] [PAYLOAD RTP Frame 1] // Payload always without the first 2 Bytes -> NAL [PAYLOAD RTP Frame 2] [... until PAYLOAD Frame with Mark Bit received] // From here its a new Video Frame 00 00 01 [NAL BYTE] [PAYLOAD RTP Frame 1] .... So I get the SPS and the PPS from the Session Description Protocol out of my preceding RTSP communication. Additionally the camera sends the SPS and the PPSin two single messages before starting with the video stream itself. So I capture the messages in this order: 1. Preceding RTSP Communication here ( including SDP with SPS and PPS ) 2. RTP Frame with Payload: 67 42 80 28 DA 01 40 16 C4 // This is the SPS 3. RTP Frame with Payload: 68 CE 3C 80 // This is the PPS 4. RTP Frame with Payload: ... // Video Data Then there come some Frames with Payload and at some point a RTP Frame with the Marker Bit = 1. This means ( if I got it right) that I have a complete video frame. Afer this I write the Prefix Sequence ( 00 00 01 ) and the NALfrom the payload again and go on with the same procedure. Now my camera sends me after every 8 complete Video Frames the SPS and the PPS again. ( Again in two RTP Frames, as seen in the example above ). I know that especially the PPS can change in between streaming but that's not the problem. My questions are now: 1. Do I need to write the SPS/PPS every 8th Video Frame? If my SPS and my PPS don't change it should be enough to have them written at the very beginning of my file and nothing more? 2. How to distinguish between SPS/PPS and normal RTP Frames? In my C++ Code which parses the transmitted data I need make a difference between the RTP Frames with normal Payload an the ones carrying the SPS/PPS. How can I distinguish them? Okay the SPS/PPS frames are usually way smaller, but that's not a save call to rely on. Because if I ignore them I need to know which data I can throw away, or if I need to write them I need to put the 00 00 01 Prefix in front of them. ? Or is it a fixed rule that they occur every 8th Video Frame?

    Read the article

  • Embedded Javascript in Master Page or Pages That Use Master Page throw "Object Expected Error"

    - by Philter
    I'm semi-new to writing ASP.Net applications using master pages and I've run into an issue I've spent some time on but can't seem to solve. My situation is that I have a master page with a structure that looks like this: <head runat="server"> <title>Test Site</title> <link rel="Stylesheet" type="text/css" href="Default.css" /> <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript" src="js/Default.js" /> <meta http-equiv="Expires" content="0"/> <meta http-equiv="Cache-Control" content="no-cache"/> <meta http-equiv="Pragma" content="no-cache"/> <asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="cphHead" runat="server"> </asp:ContentPlaceHolder> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div id="divHeader"> <asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="cphPageTitle" runat="server"></asp:ContentPlaceHolder> </div> <div id="divMainContent"> <asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="cphMainContent" runat="server"></asp:ContentPlaceHolder> </div> </div> </form> </body> I then have a page that uses this master page that contains the following: <asp:Content ContentPlaceHolderID="cphHead" runat="server"> <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript" > function test() { alert("Hello World"); } </script> </asp:Content> <asp:Content ContentPlaceHolderID="cphMainContent" runat="server"> <fieldset> <img alt="Select As Of Date" src="Images/Calendar.png" id="aAsOfDate" class="clickable" runat="server" onclick="test();" /> <asp:Button runat="server" CssClass="buttonStyle" ID="btnSubmit" Text="Submit" OnClick="btnSubmit_Clicked"/> </fieldset> </asp:Content> When I run this page and click on the image I get an "Object Expected" error. However, if I place the test function into my Default.js external file it will function perfectly. I can't seem to figure out why this is happening. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • VB6 app not executing as scheduled task unless user is logged on

    - by Tedd Hansen
    Hi Would greatly apprechiate some help on this one! It may be a tricky one. :) Problem I have an VB6 application which is set up as scheduled task. It starts every time, but when executing CreateObject it fails if user is not logged on to computer. I am looking for information on what could cause this. Primary suspicion is that some Windows API fails. Key points Behaviour confirmed on Windows 2000, 2003, 2008 and Vista. The application executes as user X at scheduled time, executed by Windows Task Scheduler. It executes every time. Application does start! -- If user X is logged on via RDP it runs perfectly. (Note that user doesn't need to be connected, only logged on) -- If user X is not logged on to computer the application fails. Failure point Application fails when using CreateObject() to instansiate a DCOM object which is also part of the application. The DCOM objects declare .dll-references at startup (globally/on top of .bas-file) and run a small startup function. Failure must be during startup, possibly in one of the .dll-declarations. Thoughts After some Googling my initial suspicion was directed at MAPI. From what I could see MAPI required user to be logged on. The application has MAPI references. But even with all MAPI references removed it still does not work. What is the difference if an user is logged on? Registry mapping? Environment? explorer.exe is running. Isn't the user logged on when application executes as the user? What info would help? A definitive answer would be truly great. Any information regarding any VB6 feature/Windows API that could act differently depending on wether user is logged on or not would definitively help. Similar experiences may lead me in the right direction. Tips on debuggin this. Thanks! :)

    Read the article

  • jQuery remove div

    - by oshirowanen
    Hello, I have the following script jquery here: <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { $(".column").sortable( { connectWith: '.column' }, { handle: '.widget-header' }, }); $(".widget").addClass("ui-widget ui-widget-content ui-helper-clearfix ui-corner-all") .find(".widget-header") .addClass("ui-widget-header ui-corner-all") .prepend('<span class="ui-icon ui-icon-minusthick"></span>') .end() .find(".widget-content"); $(".widget-header .ui-icon").click(function() { $(this).toggleClass("ui-icon-minusthick").toggleClass("ui-icon-plusthick"); $(this).parents(".widget:first").find(".widget-content").toggle(); }); $(".column").disableSelection(); }); </script> html here: <div class="divWidgets"> <div class="column" id="column_1"> <div class="widget" id="Widget_1"> <div class="widget-header" id="Widget_1_Header">widget one</div> <div class="widget-content" id="Widget_1_Content">widget one content goes here</div> </div> <div class="widget" id="Widget_0"> <div class="widget-header" id="Widget_0_Header">widget zero</div> <div class="widget-content" id="Widget_0_Content">widget zero content goes here</div> </div> </div> <div class="column" id="column_2"> <div class="widget" id="Widget_3"> <div class="widget-header" id="Widget_3_Header">widget three</div> <div class="widget-content" id="Widget_3_Content">widget three content goes here</div> </div> <div class="widget" id="Widget_5"> <div class="widget-header" id="Widget_5_Header">widget five</div> <div class="widget-content" id="Widget_5_Content">widget five content goes here</div> </div> </div> </div> As you can see, this script places a "minus" button on the widgets, which will minimize the appropriate widget when clicked. How do I replace this "minus" icon with a "delete" which will totally delete the appropriate div when clicked?

    Read the article

  • Offline backup synchronization

    - by Pavan Kumar
    There is a Central Server running Windows Server 2003 and SQL Server 2005 and there are 7 client machines situated in various places and has XP Pro & SQL Server 2005 installed in all of them. They are not interconnected so they are physically seperate. One person goes to each of these centers maybe twice a month and takes the backup (Full database consisting of mdf and ldf files) with a pen drive and brings it to the Central server which contains the central database holding same schema as all the other client databases. I need to synchronize each backup database (belonging to different centers) one by one to update the existing data or inserting new data in the central database . The solution i got was Replication. The pendrive is brought to central server consisting of 7 instances of the databases and then the databases is attached to the central server one by one to the same SQL Server where the central database exists. Then my idea was to replicate the backup database one by one i.e using single subscription (Central Database) and multiple publication ( i.e 7 instances of databases in my case) toplogy by performing replication locally (i.e in the same machine). So i tried to develop a UI in C# .Net to programatically run the Transactional Replication with push subscription using RMO Programming (which is incomplete as of now because there is no point in developing when you already know it is not the solution). Transactional Replication can either be set to initialize with a snapshot or without a snapshot. If i go for the first option i.e with a snapshot , the data whatever is present in Central Database is overwritten by the new data . So the data present initially in the central database is lost. If i try to initialize without snapshot , no data (the data already has the updated and new data) will be sent from the backup database to server. The replication will work in a scenario where any incremental changes is done only after you set the replication . So the initial data whatever was present in the backup database when setting up the replication will not be replicated when running the snapshot agent for the first time to synchronize. Only changes in the backup database thereafter will be reflected to the central database .(Remember I am not going to insert new data or make any changes to the backup database after i attach it to the Central Server. ) So this solution is not feasible. I want a solution for synchronizing from one client database to central database present in the same machine using C#.NET. If you can provide me small example maybe with two databases(with same schema) DB1(Client) to DB2(Server) consisting of one or two tables it will be very helpful. The synchronization is not bidirectional.I want to only update existing data or insert new data from DB1 to DB2 (DB2 may contain some data initially). Thanks and Regards Pavan

    Read the article

  • Rotation Matrix calculates by column not by row

    - by pinnacler
    I have a class called forest and a property called fixedPositions that stores 100 points (x,y) and they are stored 250x2 (rows x columns) in MatLab. When I select 'fixedPositions', I can click scatter and it will plot the points. Now, I want to rotate the plotted points and I have a rotation matrix that will allow me to do that. The below code should work: theta = obj.heading * pi/180; apparent = [cos(theta) -sin(theta) ; sin(theta) cos(theta)] * obj.fixedPositions; But it wont. I get this error. ??? Error using == mtimes Inner matrix dimensions must agree. Error in == landmarkslandmarks.get.apparentPositions at 22 apparent = [cos(theta) -sin(theta) ; sin(theta) cos(theta)] * obj.fixedPositions; When I alter forest.fixedPositions to store the variables 2x250 instead of 250x2, the above code will work, but it wont plot. I'm going to be plotting fixedPositions constantly in a simulation, so I'd prefer to leave it as it, and make the rotation work instead. Any ideas? Also, fixed positions, is the position of the xy points as if you were looking straight ahead. i.e. heading = 0. heading is set to 45, meaning I want to rotate points clockwise 45 degrees. Here is my code: classdef landmarks properties fixedPositions %# positions in a fixed coordinate system. [x, y] heading = 45; %# direction in which the robot is facing end properties (Dependent) apparentPositions end methods function obj = landmarks(numberOfTrees) %# randomly generates numberOfTrees amount of x,y coordinates and set %the array or matrix (not sure which) to fixedPositions obj.fixedPositions = 100 * rand([numberOfTrees,2]) .* sign(rand([numberOfTrees,2]) - 0.5); end function obj = set.apparentPositions(obj,~) theta = obj.heading * pi/180; [cos(theta) -sin(theta) ; sin(theta) cos(theta)] * obj.fixedPositions; end function apparent = get.apparentPositions(obj) %# rotate obj.positions using obj.facing to generate the output theta = obj.heading * pi/180; apparent = [cos(theta) -sin(theta) ; sin(theta) cos(theta)] * obj.fixedPositions; end end end P.S. If you change one line to this: obj.fixedPositions = 100 * rand([2,numberOfTrees]) .* sign(rand([2,numberOfTrees]) - 0.5); Everything will work fine... it just wont plot.

    Read the article

  • select one checkbox from multiple MAIN Checkboxes,disable all other MAIN boxes,n enable child checkbox

    - by harshil
    <input type="checkbox" id="chkMain" /> <input type="checkbox" id="chkMain1" /> <input type="checkbox" id="chkMain2" /> <input class="child" type="checkbox" id="chk1" disabled="true" /> <input class="child" type="checkbox" id="chk2" disabled="true" /> <input class="child" type="checkbox" id="chk3" disabled="true" /> <input class="child" type="checkbox" id="chk4" disabled="true" /> <input class="child" type="checkbox" id="chk5" disabled="true" /> <input class="child" type="checkbox" id="chk6" disabled="true" /> <input class="child" type="checkbox" id="chk7" disabled="true" /> $(function(){ $("input[id^=chkMain]").click ( function() { if( !$(this).is ( ":checked" ) ){ $(".child").attr ( "disabled" , true ); } else{ $(".child").removeAttr ( "disabled" ); } }); }); this enables all the child boxes when either chkMain or chkMain1 or chkMain2 are checked. what i want is: when chkMain is checked the code should disable chkMain1 and chkMain2 but enabling child boxes. or when chkMain1 is checked the code should disable chkMain and chkMain2 but enabling child boxes.

    Read the article

  • Trying to output variables into repeater

    - by Phil
    I have a downloads box which attaches to the bottom of the page and gives the user file downloads (icon, filesize, description) like this; <asp:Repeater ID="DownloadsRepeater" runat="server"> <HeaderTemplate> <table width="70%"> <tr> <td colspan="3"><h2>Files you can download:</h2></td> </tr> </HeaderTemplate> <ItemTemplate> <tr> <td width="10%"> <a href="/documents/<%=Session("folder")%>/<%=filename%>"> <img src="images/<%=filename%>" border="0" alt="<%=filename%>" /></a> </td> <td width="25%"><% =filesize%></td> <td><a href="/documents/<%=Session("folder")%>/<%=filename%>"><%=description%></a></td> </tr> </table> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> Then I have code in my code behind to get the data etc like this; s = "select documents.filename, documents.description, documents.filesize from documents, contentdocuments, content where contentdocuments.contentid = content.id and content.id = @contentid and contentdocuments.documentsid = documents.id ORDER BY documents.description" x = New SqlCommand(s, c) x.Parameters.Add("@contentid", SqlDbType.Int) x.Parameters("@contentid").Value = contentid c.Open() r = x.ExecuteReader While r.Read If r.HasRows Then filename = getimage(r("filename")) If r("filesize") > String.Empty Then filesize = (r("filesize") / 1000) & "kb" End If description = r("description") End If DownloadsRepeater.DataSource = r DownloadsRepeater.DataBind() End While The desired result is that the user sees a file download icon, the filesize and the description. with the icon and the description being linked to the file. Can someone point out where I am going wrong and possibly post a sample of correct syntax for achieving this. Thanks!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 1605 1606 1607 1608 1609 1610 1611 1612 1613 1614 1615 1616  | Next Page >