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  • C# StreamReader.ReadLine() - Need to pick up line terminators

    - by Tony Trozzo
    I wrote a C# program to read an Excel .xls/.xlsx file and output to CSV and Unicode text. I wrote a separate program to remove blank records. This is accomplished by reading each line with StreamReader.ReadLine(), and then going character by character through the string and not writing the line to output if it contains all commas (for the CSV) or all tabs (for the Unicode text). The problem occurs when the Excel file contains embedded newlines (\x0A) inside the cells. I changed my XLS to CSV converter to find these new lines (since it goes cell by cell) and write them as \x0A, and normal lines just use StreamWriter.WriteLine(). The problem occurs in the separate program to remove blank records. When I read in with StreamReader.ReadLine(), by definition it only returns the string with the line, not the terminator. Since the embedded newlines show up as two separate lines, I can't tell which is a full record and which is an embedded newline for when I write them to the final file. I'm not even sure I can read in the \x0A because everything on the input registers as '\n'. I could go character by character, but this destroys my logic to remove blank lines. Any ideas would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Using RabbitMQ (Java client), is there a way to determine if network connection is closed during con

    - by MItch Branting
    I'm using RabbitMQ on RHEL 5.3 using the Java client. I have 2 nodes (machines). Node1 is consuming messages from a queue on Node2 using the Java helper class QueueingConsumer. QueueingConsumer consumer = new QueueingConsumer(channel); channel.basicConsume("MyQueueOnNode2", noAck, consumer); while (true) { QueueingConsumer.Delivery delivery = consumer.nextDelivery(); ... Process message - delivery.getBody() } If the interface is brought down on Node1 or Node2 (e.g. ifconfig eth1 down), the client (above) never knows the network isn't there anymore. Does RabbitMQ provide some type of configuration on the Java client that can be used to determine if the connection has gone away. Shutting down the RabbitMQ server on Node2 will trigger a ShutdownSignalException, which can be caught and the app can go into a reconnect loop. But bringing down the interface doesn't cause any type of exception to happen, so the code will be waiting forever on consumer.nextDelivery(). I've also tried using the timeout version of this call. e.g. QueueingConsumer consumer = new QueueingConsumer(channel); channel.basicConsume("MyQueueOnNode2", noAck, consumer); int timeout_ms = 30000; while (true) { QueueingConsumer.Delivery delivery = consumer.nextDelivery(timeout_ms); if (delivery == null) { if (channel.isOpen() == false) // Seems to always return true { throw new ShutdownSignalException(); } } else { ... Process message - delivery.getBody() } } but appears that this always returns true (even though the interface is down). I assume registering for the ShutdownListener on the connection will yield the same results, but haven't tried that yet. Is there a way to configure some sort of heartbeat, or do you just have to write custom lease logic (e.g. "I'm here now") in order to get this to work?

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  • Linq to SQL and concurrency with Rob Conery repository pattern

    - by David Hall
    I have implemented a DAL using Rob Conery's spin on the repository pattern (from the MVC Storefront project) where I map database objects to domain objects using Linq and use Linq to SQL to actually get the data. This is all working wonderfully giving me the full control over the shape of my domain objects that I want, but I have hit a problem with concurrency that I thought I'd ask about here. I have concurrency working but the solution feels like it might be wrong (just one of those gitchy feelings). The basic pattern is: private MyDataContext _datacontext private Table _tasks; public Repository(MyDataContext datacontext) { _dataContext = datacontext; } public void GetTasks() { _tasks = from t in _dataContext.Tasks; return from t in _tasks select new Domain.Task { Name = t.Name, Id = t.TaskId, Description = t.Description }; } public void SaveTask(Domain.Task task) { Task dbTask = null; // Logic for new tasks omitted... dbTask = (from t in _tasks where t.TaskId == task.Id select t).SingleOrDefault(); dbTask.Description = task.Description, dbTask.Name = task.Name, _dataContext.SubmitChanges(); } So with that implementation I've lost concurrency tracking because of the mapping to the domain task. I get it back by storing the private Table which is my datacontext list of tasks at the time of getting the original task. I then update the tasks from this stored Table and save what I've updated This is working - I get change conflict exceptions raised when there are concurrency violations, just as I want. However, it just screams to me that I've missed a trick. Is there a better way of doing this? I've looked at the .Attach method on the datacontext but that appears to require storing the original version in a similar way to what I'm already doing. I also know that I could avoid all this by doing away with the domain objects and letting the Linq to SQL generated objects all the way up my stack - but I dislike that just as much as I dislike the way I'm handling concurrency.

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  • How to populate Java (web) application with initial data using Spring/JPA/Hibernate

    - by Tuukka Mustonen
    I want to setup my database with initial data programmatically. I want to populate my database for development runs, not for testing runs (it's easy). The product is built on top of Spring and JPA/Hibernate. Developer checks out the project Developer runs command/script to setup database with initial data Developer starts application (server) and begins developing/testing then: Developer runs command/script to flush the database and set it up with new initial data because database structures or the initial data bundle were changed What I want is to setup my environment by required parts in order to call my DAOs and insert new objects into database. I do not want to create initial data sets in raw SQL, XML, take dumps of database or whatever. I want to programmatically create objects and persist them in database as I would in normal application logic. One way to accomplish this would be to start up my application normally and run a special servlet that does the initialization. But is that really the way to go? I would love to execute the initial data setup as Maven task and I don't know how to do that if I take the servlet approach. There is somewhat similar question. I took a quick glance at the suggested DBUnit and Unitils. But they seem to be heavily focused in setting up testing environments, which is not what I want here. DBUnit does initial data population, but only using xml/csv fixtures, which is not what I'm after here. Then, Maven has SQL plugin, but I don't want to handle raw SQL. Maven also has Hibernate plugin, but it seems to help only in Hibernate configuration and table schema creation (not in populating db with data). How to do this?

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  • In Asp.Net MVC 2 is there a better way to return 401 status codes without getting an auth redirect

    - by Greg Roberts
    I have a portion of my site that has a lightweight xml/json REST API. Most of my site is behind forms auth but only some of my API actions require authentication. I have a custom AuthorizeAttribute for my API that I use to check for certain permissions and when it fails it results in a 401. All is good, except since I'm using forms auth, Asp.net conveniently converts that into a 302 redirect to my login page. I've seen some previous questions that seem a bit hackish to either return a 403 instead or to put some logic in the global.asax protected void Application_EndRequest() that will essentially convert 302 to 401 where it meets whatever criteria. Previous Question Previous Question 2 What I'm doing now is sort of like one of the questions, but instead of checking the Application_EndRequest() for a 302 I make my authorize attribute return 666 which indicates to me that I need to set this to a 401. Here is my code: protected void Application_EndRequest() { if (Context.Response.StatusCode == MyAuthAttribute.AUTHORIZATION_FAILED_STATUS) { //check for 666 - status code of hidden 401 Context.Response.StatusCode = 401; } } Even though this works, my question is there something in Asp.net MVC 2 that would prevent me from having to do this? Or, in general is there a better way? I would think this would come up a lot for anyone doing REST api's or just people that do ajax requests in their controllers. The last thing you want is to do a request and get the content of a login page instead of json.

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  • How to play non buffered .wav with MediaStreamSource implementation in Silverlight 4?

    - by kyrisu
    Background I'm trying to stream a wave file in Silverlight 4 using MediaStreamSource implementation found here. The problem is I want to play the file while it's still buffering, or at least give user some visual feedback while it's buffering. For now my code looks like that: private void button1_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { HttpWebRequest request = (HttpWebRequest)HttpWebRequest.Create(new Uri(App.Current.Host.Source, "../test.wav")); //request.ContentType = "audio/x-wav"; request.AllowReadStreamBuffering = false; request.BeginGetResponse(new AsyncCallback(RequestCallback), request); } private void RequestCallback(IAsyncResult ar) { this.Dispatcher.BeginInvoke(delegate() { HttpWebRequest request = (HttpWebRequest)ar.AsyncState; HttpWebResponse response = (HttpWebResponse)request.EndGetResponse(ar); WaveMediaStreamSource wavMss = new WaveMediaStreamSource(response.GetResponseStream()); try { me.SetSource(wavMss); } catch (InvalidOperationException) { // This file is not valid } me.Play(); }); } The problem is that after settings request.AllowREadStreamBuffer to false the stream does not support seeking and the above mentioned implementation throws an exception (keep in mind I've put some of the position setting logic into if(stream.CanSeek) block): Read is not supported on the main thread when buffering is disabled Question Is there a way to play wav stream without buffering it in advance?

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  • Installable ISAM not found

    - by lucky
    I have a requirement in which i upload excel sheets to sql server database. The business logic is executed and display as reports in php. It is working fine till yesterday. Today i tried to upload excel files. It is throwing an error message stating:- Translated version of it by me:- The OLE DB provider "Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0" for linked server "(null)" has not found "installable ISAM." . Return This is the original message in german:-- [Microsoft][ODBC SQL Server Driver][SQL Server] OLE DB-Anbieter "Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0" für den Verbindungsserver "(null)" hat die Meldung "Installierbares ISAM nicht gefunden." zurückgeben. Query that i used in the stored procedure:- EXEC('SELECT * INTO temp FROM OPENROWSET(''Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0'', ''Excel 8.0;Database=' + @ba_bm_status + ''',' + '''SELECT * FROM [qry_BA_Controlling (Report)$]'')'); @ba_bm_status - i/p parameter of srored procedure qry_BA_Controlling (Report) - worksheet name webserver used:- IIS, connection is through odbc. I have no information about this error. Can you please help me in solving the same.

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  • MVC2 Apps (and others) sharing WCF services and authentication

    - by stupid-phil
    Hi, I've seen several similar scenarios explained here but not my particular one. I wonder if someone could tell me which direction to go in? I am developing two (and more later) MVC2 apps. There will also be another (thicker) client later on (WPF or Silverlight, TBD). These all need to share the same authentication. For the MVC2 apps they (preferably) need to be single log on - ie if a user logs in to one MVC2 app, they should be authorised on the other, as long as the cookie hasn't timed out. Forms authentication is to be used. All the apps need to use common business functionality and perform db access via a common WCF Service App. It would be nice (I think) if the WCF is not publicly accessible (ie blocked behind FW). The thicker client could use an additional service layer to access the Common WCF App. What this should look like is: MVCApp1 - WCFAppCommon MVCApp2 - WCFAppCommon ThickClient - WCFApp2 - WCFAppCommon Is it possible to carry out all the authentication/authorization in the WCFAppCommon? Otherwise I think I'll have to repeat all the security logic in the MVCApps and WCFApp2, whereas, to me, it seems to sit naturally in WCFAppCommon. On the otherhand, it seems if I authenticate/authorize in WCFAppCommon, I wouldn't be able to use Forms Authentication. Where I've seen possible solutions (that I haven't tried yet) they seem much more complex than Forms Authentication and a single DB. Any help appreciated, Phil

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  • WiX: Prevent 32-bit installer from running on 64-bit Windows

    - by Tom the Junglist
    Hi everyone, Due to user confusion, our app requires separate installers for 32-bit and 64-bit versions of Windows. While the 32-bit installer runs fine on win64, it has the potential to create support headaches and we would like to prevent this from happening. I want to prevent the 32-bit MSI installer from running on 64-bit Windows machines. To that end I have the following condition: <Condition Message="You are attempting to run the 32-bit installer on a 64-bit version of Windows."> <![CDATA[Msix64 AND (NOT Win64)]]> </Condition> With the Win64 defined like this: <?if $(var.Platform) = "x64"?> <?define PlatformString = "64-bit"?> <?define Win64 ?> <?else?> <?define PlatformString = "32-bit"?> <?endif?> Thing is, I can't get this check to work right. Either it fires all the time, or none of the time. The goal is to check presence of the run-time msix64 variable against the compile-time Win64 variable and throw an error if these don't line up, but the logic is not working how I intend it to. Has anyone come up with a better solution? Thanks! Tom

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  • LINQ To SQL ignore unique constraint exception and continue

    - by Martin
    I have a single table in a database called Users Users ------ ID (PK, Identity) Username (Unique Index) I have setup a unique index on the Username table to prevent duplicates. I am then enumerating through a collection and creating a new user in the database for each item. What I want to do is just insert a new user and ignore the exception if the unique key constraint is violated (as it's clearly a duplicate record in that case). This is to avoid having to craft where not exists kind of queries. First off, is this going to be any more efficient or should my insert code be checking for duplicates instead? I'm drawn more to the database having that logic as this prevents any other type of client from inserting duplicate data. My other issue is related to LINQ To SQL. I have the following code: public class TestRepo { DatabaseDataContext database = new DatabaseDataContext(); public void Add(string username) { database.Users.InsertOnSubmit(new User() { Username = username }); } public void Save() { database.SubmitChanges(); } } And then I iterate over a collection and insert new users, ignoring any exceptions: TestRepo repo = new TestRepo(); foreach (var name in new string[] { "Tim", "Bob", "John" }) { try { repo.Add(name); repo.Save(); } catch { } } The first time this is run, great I have three users in the table. If I remove the second one and run this code again, nothing is inserted. I expected the first insert to fail with the exception, the second to succeed (as I just removed that item from the DB) and the third to then fail. What seems to be happening is that once the SqlException is thrown (even though the loop continues to iterate) all of the next inserts fail - even when there isn't a row in the table that would cause a unique violation. Can anyone explain this? P.S. The only workaround I could find was to instantiate the repo each time before the insert, then it worked exactly as excepted - indicating that it's something to do with the LINQ To SQL DataContext. Thanks.

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  • Pass object to dynamically loaded ListView ItemTemplate

    - by mickyjtwin
    I have been following the following post on using multiple ItemTemplates in a ListView control. While following this example does produce output, I am trying ot figure out how to psas an object through to the ItemTemplate's user control, which I do not seem to be able to do/figure out. protected void lvwComments_OnItemCreated(object sender, ListViewItemEventArgs e) { ListViewDataItem currentItem = (e.Item as ListViewDataItem); Comment comment = (Comment)currentItem.DataItem; if (comment == null) return; string controlPath = string.Empty; switch (comment.Type) { case CommentType.User: controlPath = "~/layouts/controls/General Comment.ascx"; break; case CommentType.Official: controlPath = "~/layouts/controls/Official Comment.ascx"; break; } lvwComments.ItemTemplate = LoadTemplate(Controlpath); } The User Control is as follows: public partial class OfficialComment : UserControl { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { } } In the example, the values are being output in the ascx page: <%# Eval("ItemName") %> however I need to access the ListItem in this control to do other logic. I cannot figure out how I to send through my Comment item. The sender object and EventArgs do not contain the info.

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  • AS 400 Performance from .Net iSeries Provider

    - by Nathan
    Hey all, First off, I am not an AS 400 guy - at all. So please forgive me for asking any noobish questions here. Basically, I am working on a .Net application that needs to access the AS400 for some real-time data. Although I have the system working, I am getting very different performance results between queries. Typically, when I make the 1st request against a SPROC on the AS400, I am seeing ~ 14 seconds to get the full data set. After that initial call, any subsequent calls usually only take ~ 1 second to return. This performance improvement remains for ~ 20 mins or so before it takes 14 seconds again. The interesting part with this is that, if the stored procedure is executed directly on the iSeries Navigator, it always returns within milliseconds (no change in response time). I wonder if it is a caching / execution plan issue but I can only apply my SQL SERVER logic to the AS400, which is not always a match. Any suggestions on what I can do to recieve a more consistant response time or simply insight as to why the AS400 is acting in this manner when I was using the iSeries Data Provider for .Net? Is there a better access method that I should use? Just in case, here's the code I am using to connect to the AS400 Dim Conn As New IBM.Data.DB2.iSeries.iDB2Connection(ConnectionString) Dim Cmd As New IBM.Data.DB2.iSeries.iDB2Command("SPROC_NAME_HERE", Conn) Cmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure Using Conn Conn.Open() Dim Reader = Cmd.ExecuteReader() Using Reader While Reader.Read() 'Do Something End While Reader.Close() End Using Conn.Close() End Using

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  • SQLiteQueryBuilder.buildQuery not using selectArgs?

    - by user297468
    Alright, I'm trying to query a sqlite database. I was trying to be good and use the query method of SQLiteDatabase and pass in the values in the selectArgs parameter to ensure everything got properly escaped, but it wouldn't work. I never got any rows returned (no errors, either). I started getting curious about the SQL that this generated so I did some more poking around and found SQLiteQueryBuilder (and apparently Stack Overflow doesn't handle links with parentheses in them well, so I can't link to the anchor for the buildQuery method), which I assume uses the same logic to generate the SQL statement. I did this: SQLiteQueryBuilder builder = new SQLiteQueryBuilder(); builder.setTables(BarcodeDb.Barcodes.TABLE_NAME); String sql = builder.buildQuery(new String[] { BarcodeDb.Barcodes.ID, BarcodeDb.Barcodes.TIMESTAMP, BarcodeDb.Barcodes.TYPE, BarcodeDb.Barcodes.VALUE }, "? = '?' AND ? = '?'", new String[] { BarcodeDb.Barcodes.VALUE, barcode.getValue(), BarcodeDb.Barcodes.TYPE, barcode.getType()}, null, null, null, null); Log.d(tag, "Query is: " + sql); The SQL that gets logged at this point is: SELECT _id, timestamp, type, value FROM barcodes WHERE (? = '?' AND ? = '?') However, here's what the documentation for SQLiteQueryBuilder.buildQuery says about the selectAgs parameter: You may include ?s in selection, which will be replaced by the values from selectionArgs, in order that they appear in the selection. ...but it isn't working. Any ideas?

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  • MVP, WinForms - how to avoid bloated view, presenter and presentation model

    - by MatteS
    When implementing MVP pattern in winforms I often find bloated view interfaces with too many properties, setters and getters. An easy example with be a view with 3 buttons and 7 textboxes, all having value, enabled and visible properties exposed from the view. Adding validation results for this, and you could easily end up with an interface with 40ish properties. Using the Presentation Model, there'll be a model with the same number of properties aswell. How do you easily sync the view and the presentation model without having bloated presenter logic that pass all the values back and forth? (With that 80ish line presenter code, imagine with the presenter test that mocks the model and view will look like..160ish lines of code just to mock that transfer.) Is there any framework to handle this without resorting to winforms databinding? (you might want to use different views than a winforms view. According to some, this sync should be the presenters job..) Would you use AutoMapper? Maybe im asking the wrong questions, but it seems to me MVP easily gets bloated without some good solution here..

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  • MSTest: Problems with DeploymentItem attribute

    - by Juri
    Hi, I'm currently maintaining an "old" system written in C#.net, removing some obsolete features and doing some refactoring. Thanks god, the previous guy wrote some unit tests (MSTests). I quite comfortable with JUnit tests, but didn't do yet much with MSTests. The test methods have a DeploymentItem attribute, specifying a text file which is parsed by the business logic method that is being tested and a 2nd DeploymentItem where just a path has been specified containing a bunch of TIF files that have to be deployed too. [TestMethod()] [DeploymentItem(@"files\valid\valid_entries.txt")] [DeploymentItem(@"files\tif\")] public void ExistsTifTest() { ... } The tests worked before, but now I had to change the names of the TIF files contained in the \files\tif directory. According to a rule, the TIF filenames have to match a certain pattern which is also checked by the ExistsTifTest() method. Now I had to change the filenames in order to adapt them to the new requirements and suddently the TIF files are no more being deployed as before. Can someone give me a hint why this happens or what may be the cause? The same thing happens also if I add a new text-file say "my2ndTest.txt" beside the "valid_entries.txt" in the \files\valid\ directory with the according DeploymentItem attribute on the test method. The file doesn't get deployed? I got the images now deployed by defining the deployment path directly in the testrunconfig, but I'd like to understand why these things happen or why for instance my new file "my2ndTest.txt" doesn't get deployed while the others do. Thanks a lot. Juri

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  • How to programmatically start a WPF application from a unit test?

    - by Lernkurve
    Problem VS2010 and TFS2010 support creating so-called Coded UI Tests. All the demos I have found, start with the WPF application already running in the background when the Coded UI Test begins or the EXE is started using the absolute path to it. I, however, would like to start my WPF application under test from the unit test code. That way it'll also work on the build server and on my peer's working copies. How do I accomplish that? My discoveries so far a) This post shows how to start a XAML window. But that's not what I want. I want to start the App.xaml because it contains XAML resources and there is application logic in the code behind file. b) The second screenshot on this post shows a line starting with ApplicationUnterTest calculatorWindow = ApplicationUnderTest.Launch(...); which is conceptually pretty much what I am looking for, except that again this example uses an absolute path the the executable file. c) A Google search for "Programmatically start WPF" didn't help either.

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  • Generating the query plan takes 5 minutes, the query itself runs in milliseconds. What's up?

    - by TheImirOfGroofunkistan
    I have a fairly complex (or ugly depending on how you look at it) stored procedure running on SQL Server 2008. It bases a lot of the logic on a view that has a pk table and a fk table. The fk table is left joined to the pk table slightly more than 30 times (the fk table has a poor design - it uses name value pairs that I need to flatten out. Unfortunately, it's 3rd party and I cannot change it). Anyway, it had been running fine for weeks until I periodically noticed a run that would take 3-5 minutes. It turns out that this is the time it takes to generate the query plan. Once the query plan exists and is cached, the stored procedure itself runs very efficiently. Things run smoothly until there is a reason to regenerate and cache the query plan again. Has anyone seen this? Why does it take so long to generate the plan? Are there ways to make it come up with a plan faster?

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  • LINQ to Entity, using a SQL LIKE operator

    - by Mario
    I have a LINQ to ENTITY query that pulls from a table, but I need to be able to create a "fuzzy" type search. So I need to add a where clause that searches by lastname IF they add the criteria in the search box (Textbox, CAN be blank --- in which case it pulls EVERYTHING). Here is what I have so far: var query = from mem in context.Member orderby mem.LastName, mem.FirstName select new { FirstName = mem.FirstName, LastName = mem.LastName, }; That will pull everything out of the Member table that is in the Entity object. Then I have an addition to the logic: sLastName = formCollection["FuzzyLastName"].ToString(); if (!String.IsNullOrEmpty(sLastName)) query = query.Where(ln => ln.LastName.Contains(sLastName)); The problem is when the search button is pressed, nothing is returned (0 results). I have run the query against the SQL Server that I expect to happen here and it returns 6 results. This is the query I expect: SELECT mem.LastName, mem.FirstName FROM Members mem WHERE mem.LastName = 'xxx' (when xxx is entered into the textbox) Anyone see anything wrong with this?

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  • How would you solve this graph theory handshake problem in python?

    - by Zachary Burt
    I graduated college last year with a degree in Psychology, but I also took a lot of math for fun. I recently got the book "Introductory Graph Theory" by Gary Chartrand to brush up on my math and have some fun. Here is an exercise from the book that I'm finding particularly befuddling: Suppose you and your husband attended a party with three other married couples. Several handshakes took place. No one shook hands with himself (or herself) or with his (or her) spouse, and no one shook hands with the same person more than once. After all the handshaking was completed, suppose you asked each person, including your husband, how many hands he or she had shaken. Each person gave a different answer. a) How many hands did you shake? b) How many hands did your husband shake? Now, I've been reasoning about this for a while, and trying to draw sample graphs that could illustrate a solution, but I'm coming up empty-handed. My logic is this: there are 8 different vertices in the graph, and 7 of them have different degrees. The values for the degrees must therefore be 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, and x. The # of degrees for one married couple is (0, 6). Since all graphs have an even number of odd vertices, x must be either 5, 3, or 1. What's your solution to this problem? And, if you could solve it in python, how would you do it? (python is fun.) Cheers.

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  • How would you solve this graph theory handshake problem in python?

    - by Zachary Burt
    I graduated college last year with a degree in Psychology, but I also took a lot of math for fun. I recently got the book "Introductory Graph Theory" by Gary Chartrand to brush up on my math and have some fun. Here is an exercise from the book that I'm finding particularly befuddling: Suppose you and your husband attended a party with three other married couples. Several handshakes took place. No one shook hands with himself (or herself) or with his (or her) spouse, and no one shook hands with the same person more than once. After all the handshaking was completed, suppose you asked each person, including your husband, how many hands he or she had shaken. Each person gave a different answer. a) How many hands did you shake? b) How many hands did your husband shake? Now, I've been reasoning about this for a while, and trying to draw sample graphs that could illustrate a solution, but I'm coming up empty-handed. My logic is this: there are 8 different vertices in the graph, and 7 of them have different degrees. The values for the degrees must therefore be 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, and x. The # of degrees for one married couple is (0, 6). Since all graphs have an even number of odd vertices, x must be either 5, 3, or 1. What's your solution to this problem? And, if you could solve it in python, how would you do it? (python is fun.) Cheers.

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  • How can i handle a form submit using REAL OOP in PHP

    - by Lorence
    Im used to java and creating UML.. and i was wondering how can PHP be OOP, the objects live only until you make a request.. then they destroy, so if im using a database is useless to create a class and add the members (variables) to the class, they will be useless.. i cant pass the main system object from one page to another, or similar so how can PHP be compare to jave? you never do OOP .. i mean REAL OOP.. not creating classes , in fact your index will be a procedural file with some object instance and then ? how about if i make a html form and i want to submit the data.. i have to call a file which is not a class is a php procedural file were i grab the submited data with POST, from that file you will instance a class and do some logic there.. but for me thats not pure OOP.. can somebody point me to the right way of OOP using a form submit example ? Thanks!

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  • ASP Classic page quit working

    - by justSteve
    I've had a set of legacy pages running on my IIS7 server for at least a year. Sometime last week something changed and now this line: Response.Write CStr(myRS(0).name) & "=" & Cstr(myRS(0).value) which used to return nothing more exciting than the string: 'Updated=true' (the sproc processing input params, stores them to a table, checks for errors and when that's all done returns a success code by executing this statement: select 'true' as [Updated] Now my pageside error handler is being involved and offers: myError=Error from /logQuizScore.asp Error source: Microsoft VBScript runtime error Error number: 13 Error description: Type mismatch Important to note that all lots of pages use the same framework - same db, same coding format, connecitonstrings and (so far as I can tell) all others are working. Troubleshot to this point: The call to the stored procedure is working correctly (stuff is stored to the given table). The output from the stored procedure is working correctly (i can execute a direct call with the given parameters and stuff works. I can see profiler calling and passing. I can replace all code with 'select 'true' as updated' and the error is the same. everything up to the response.write statement above is correct. So something changed how ADO renders that particular recordset. So i try: Response.Write myRS.Item.count and get: Error number: 424 Error description: Object required The recordset object seems not to be instantiating but the command object _did execute. Repeat - lots of other pages just the same basic logic to hit other sprocs without a problem. full code snippet set cmd1 = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Command") cmd1.ActiveConnection = MM_cnCompliance4_STRING cmd1.CommandText = "dbo._usp_UserAnswers_INSERT" ... cmd1.CommandType = 4 cmd1.CommandTimeout = 0 cmd1.Prepared = true set myRS = cmd1.Execute Response.Write CStr(myRS(0).name) & "=" & Cstr(myRS(0).value)

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  • Rle Encoding...What's the wrong?

    - by FILIaS
    I'm trying to make a Rle Encoder Programme.I read the way it works on notes on net. And i tried to fix my code! Regardless I think that the structure and logic of code are right,the code doesnt work! It appears some strange 'Z' as it runs. I really cant find what;s wrong! Could u please give me a piece of advice? Thanx in advance... #include <stdio.h> int main() { int count; unsigned char currChar,prevChar=EOF; while(currChar=getchar() != EOF) { if ( ( (currChar='A')&&(currChar='Z') ) || ( (currChar='a')&&(currChar='z') ) ) { printf("%c",currChar); if(prevChar==currChar) { count=0; currChar=getchar(); while(currChar!='EOF') { if (currChar==prevChar) count++; else { if(count<=9) printf("%d%c",count,prevChar); else { printf("%d%c",reverse(count),prevChar); } prevChar=currChar; break; } } } else prevChar=currChar; if(currChar=='EOF') { printf("%d",count); break; } } else { printf("Error Message:Only characters are accepted! Please try again! False input!"); break; } } return 0; } int reverse(int x) { int piliko,ypoloipo,r=0; x=(x<0)?-x:x; while (x>0) { ypoloipo=x%10; piliko=x/10; r=10*r+ypoloipo; x=piliko; } printf("%d",r); return 0; }

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  • Nhibernate Guid with PK MySQL

    - by Andrew Kalashnikov
    Hello colleagues. I've got a question. I use NHibernate with MySql. At my entities I use Id(PK) for my business-logic usage and Guid(for replication). So my BaseDomain: public class BaseDomain { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual Guid Guid { get; set; } public class Properties { public const string Id = "Id"; public const string Guid = "Guid"; } public BaseDomain() { } } My usage domain: public class ActivityCategory : BaseDomain { public ActivityCategory() { } public virtual string Name { get; set; } public new class Properties { public const string Id = "Id"; public const string Guid = "Guid"; public const string Name = "Name"; private Properties() { } } } Mapping: <class name="ActivityCategory, Clients.Core" table='Activity_category'> <id name="Id" unsaved-value="0" type="int"> <column name="Id" not-null="true"/> <generator class="native"/> </id> <property name="Guid"/> <property name="Name"/> </class> But when I insert my entity: [Test] public void Test() { ActivityCategory ac = new ActivityCategory(); ac.Name = "Test"; using (var repo = new Repository<ActivityCategory>()) repo.Save(ac); } I always get '00000000-0000-0000-0000-000000000000' at my Guid field. What should I do for generate right Guid. May be mapping? Thanks a lot!

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  • Problem with Mapping Linq-to-Sql on different Types

    - by csharpnoob
    Hi, maybe someone can help. I want to have on mapped Linq-Class different Datatype. This is working: private System.Nullable<short> _deleted = 1; [Column(Storage = "_deleted", Name = "deleted", DbType = "SmallInt", CanBeNull = true)] public System.Nullable<short> deleted { get { return this._deleted; } set { this._deleted = value; } } Sure thing. But no when i want to place some logic for boolean, like this: private System.Nullable<short> _deleted = 1; [Column(Storage = "_deleted", Name = "deleted", DbType = "SmallInt", CanBeNull = true)] public bool deleted { get { if (this._deleted == 1) { return true; } return false; } set { if(value == true) { this._deleted = (short)1; }else { this._deleted = (short)0; } } } I get always runtime error: [TypeLoadException: GenericArguments[2], "System.Nullable`1[System.Int16]", on 'System.Data.Linq.Mapping.PropertyAccessor+Accessor`3[T,V,V2]' violates the constraint of type parameter 'V2'.] I can't change the database to bit.. I need to have casting in mapping class.

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