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• Why doesn't my test run tearDownAfterTestClass when it fails

  - by Memor-X

  in a test i am writing the setUpBeforeTests creates a new customer in the database who is then used to perform the tests with so naturally when i finish the test i should get rid of this test customer in tearDownAfterTestClass so that i can create then anew when i rerun the test and not get any false positives how when the tests all run fine i have no problem but if a test fails and i go to rerun it my setUpBeforeTests fails because i check for mysql errors in it like this try { if(!mysqli_query($connection,$query)) { $this->assertTrue(false); } } catch (Exception $exc) { $msg = '[tearDownAfterTestClass] Exception Error' . PHP_EOL . PHP_EOL; $msg .= 'Could not run query - '.mysqli_error($connection). PHP_EOL;; $this->fail($msg); } the error i get is that there is a primary key violation which is expected cause i'm trying to create a new customer using the same data (primary key is on email which is also used to log in) however that means when the test failed it didn't run tearDownAfterTestClass now i could just move everything in tearDownAfterTestClass to the start of setUpBeforeTests however to me that seems like bad programming since it defeates the purpose of even have tearDownAfterTestClass so i am wondering, why isn't my tearDownAfterTestClass running when a test fails NOTE: the database is a fundamental part of the system i'm testing and the database and system are on a separate development environment not the live one, the backup files for the database are almost 2 GBs and takes almost 1/2 an hour to restore, the purpose of the tear down is to remove any data we have added because of the test so that we don't have to restore the database every time we run the tests

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• Python - Checking for membership inside nested dict

  - by victorhooi

  heya, This is a followup questions to this one: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2901422/python-dictreader-skipping-rows-with-missing-columns Turns out I was being silly, and using the wrong ID field. I'm using Python 3.x here. I have a dict of employees, indexed by a string, "directory_id". Each value is a nested dict with employee attributes (phone number, surname etc.). One of these values is a secondary ID, say "internal_id", and another is their manager, call it "manager_internal_id". The "internal_id" field is non-mandatory, and not every employee has one. (I've simplified the fields a little, both to make it easier to read, and also for privacy/compliance reasons). The issue here is that we index (key) each employee by their directory_id, but when we lookup their manager, we need to find managers by their "internal_id". Before, when employee.keys() was a list of internal_ids, I was using a membership check on this. Now, the last part of my if statement won't work, since the internal_ids is part of the dict values, instead of the key itself. def lookup_supervisor(manager_internal_id, employees): if manager_internal_idis not None and manager_internal_id!= "" and manager_internal_id in employees.keys(): return (employees[manager_internal_id]['mail'], employees[manager_internal_id]['givenName'], employees[manager_internal_id]['sn']) else: return ('Supervisor Not Found', 'Supervisor Not Found', 'Supervisor Not Found') So the first question is, how do I check whether the manager_internal_id is present in the dict's values. I've tried substituting employee.keys() with employee.values(), that didn't work. Also, I'm hoping for something a little more efficient, not sure if there's a way to get a subset of the values, specifically, all the entries for employees[directory_id]['internal_id']. Hopefully there's some Pythonic way of doing this, without using a massive heap of nested for/if loops. My second question is, how do I then cleanly return the required employee attributes (mail, givenname, surname etc.). My for loop is iterating over each employee, and calling lookup_supervisor. I'm feeling a bit stupid/stumped here. def tidy_data(employees): for directory_id, data in employees.items(): # We really shouldnt' be passing employees back and forth like this - hmm, classes? data['SupervisorEmail'], data['SupervisorFirstName'], data['SupervisorSurname'] = lookup_supervisor(data['manager_internal_id'], employees) Thanks in advance =), Victor

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• Location of Embedly (JQuery-Preview) Results

  - by user749798

  Embedly/Jquery-Preview has been fantastic. However, I'm trying to change the location of the preview result, and having trouble. Right now, the result appears right below the input field...but I'd rather have it in a separate part of the page. Is there a way to do this? I've tried changing the location of the selector and loading divs, but that hasn't helped. It seems to ignore those divs and put it right below the submit button. Below is my code: <form accept-charset="UTF-8" action="private" class="new_comment" data-remote="true" id="new_comment" method="post"> <input class="photo_comm" id="comment_comment" name="comment[comment]" placeholder="add a comment or link..." size="30" type="text" /><span type="text" id="counter">1000</span> <input class="btn btn-primary btn-mini" data-disable-with="Submitting..." name="commit" type="submit" value="Post" /> </form> <!-- Placeholder that tells Preview where to put the loading icon--> <div class="loading"> <img src='http://embedly.github.com/jquery-preview/images/loading-rectangle.gif'> </div> <!-- Placeholder that tells Preview where to put the selector--> <div class="selector"></div> $('#comment_comment').preview({ key:'60f1dcdf3258476794784148a6eb65e7', // Sign up for a key: http://embed.ly/pricing selector : {type:'rich'}, preview : { submit : function(e, data){ e.preventDefault(); $.ajax({ dataType: 'script', url: this.form.attr('action'), type: 'POST', data: data }); }, }, autoplay : 0, maxwidth : 400, display : {display : 'rich'} });

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• ANT propertyfile entry is not resolving to its value

  - by Brian

  I have a value in a properties file that I want to increment while the build is running. The goal is to copy a set of files and append a number to the front of each in order to maintain the order in which they were copied into the directory. I am using the <propertyfile> task as follows: <propertyfile file="jsfiles.properties"> <entry key="file.number" type="int" operation="=" value="10" /> <entry key="file.number" type="int" default="010" operation="+" value="10" pattern="000" /> </propertyfile> Then I do the copy: <copy todir="${js-in.dir}"> <resources> ... </resources> <chainedmapper> <flattenmapper /> <globmapper from="*.js" to="${file.number}-*.js"/> </chainedmapper> </copy> This does exactly what I need it to EXCEPT that instead of the following output: 010-file1.js 020-file2.js 030-file3.js ... I get: ${file.number}-file1.js ${file.number}-file2.js ${file.number}-file3.js ... What am I doing wrong?

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• Borderless ImageButtons in WrapPanel

  - by Bill

  I am attempting to create a WrapPanel with seamless ImageButtons containing Artwork. I put together the following ContentTemplate in the hopes that it would provide the seamless look required; however a thin white-line remained around each of the buttons. Can anyone steer me in the right direction? <Button.ContentTemplate> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type local:ArtInfo}"> <Border Name="border" BorderThickness="0" BorderBrush="blue" Height="280" Width="250" Background="#262c40"> <StackPanel> <Grid> <Grid.Resources> <local:MyConverter x:Key="MyConverter"></local:MyConverter> <ObjectDataProvider x:Key="Properties.Settings" ObjectType="{x:Type lcl:Properties.Settings}" /> </Grid.Resources> <Image Name="ArtImage" Margin="10,15,0,0" Height="195" Width="195" VerticalAlignment="Top" > <Image.Source> <Binding Path="ArtImage"/> </Image.Source> </Image> </Grid> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=ArtClass}" Margin="10,-17,0,0" FontSize="11" Foreground="white" /> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=Student}" Margin="10,0,0,0" FontSize="11" Foreground="white" /> <TextBlock Text="1998" Margin="10,0,0,0" FontSize="11" Foreground="white" /> </StackPanel> </Border> </DataTemplate> </Button.ContentTemplate>

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• Ordering by a max or a min from another table

  - by Paul Tomblin

  I have a table that consists of a unique id, and a few other attributes. It holds "schedules". Then I have another table that holds a list of all the times each schedule has or will "fire". This isn't the exact schema, but it's close: create table schedule ( id varchar(40) primary key, attr1 int, attr2 varchar(20) ); create table schedule_times ( id varchar(40) foreign key schedule(id), fire_date date ); I want to query the schedule table, getting the attributes and the next and previous fire_dates, in Java, sometimes ordering on one of the attributes, but sometimes ordering on either previous fire_date or the next fire_date. Ordering by the attributes is easy, I just stick an "order by" into the string while I'm building my prepared statement. I'm not even sure how to go about selecting the last fire_date and the next one in a single query - I know that I can find the next fire_date for a given id by doing a SELECT min(fire_date) FROM schedule_times WHERE id = ? AND fire_date > sysdate; and the similar thing for previous fire_date using max() and fire_date < sysdate. I'm just drawing a blank on how to incorporate that into a single select from the schedule so I can get both next and previous fire_date in one shot, and also how to order by either of those attributes.

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• Go - Using a map for its set properties with user defined types

  - by Seth Hoenig

  I'm trying to use the built-in map type as a set for a type of my own (Point, in this case). The problem is, when I assign a Point to the map, and then later create a new, but equal point and use it as a key, the map behaves as though that key is not in the map. Is this not possible to do? // maptest.go package main import "fmt" func main() { set := make(map[*Point]bool) printSet(set) set[NewPoint(0, 0)] = true printSet(set) set[NewPoint(0, 2)] = true printSet(set) _, ok := set[NewPoint(3, 3)] // not in map if !ok { fmt.Print("correct error code for non existent element\n") } else { fmt.Print("incorrect error code for non existent element\n") } c, ok := set[NewPoint(0, 2)] // another one just like it already in map if ok { fmt.Print("correct error code for existent element\n") // should get this } else { fmt.Print("incorrect error code for existent element\n") // get this } fmt.Printf("c: %t\n", c) } func printSet(stuff map[*Point]bool) { fmt.Print("Set:\n") for k, v := range stuff { fmt.Printf("%s: %t\n", k, v) } } type Point struct { row int col int } func NewPoint(r, c int) *Point { return &Point{r, c} } func (p *Point) String() string { return fmt.Sprintf("{%d, %d}", p.row, p.col) } func (p *Point) Eq(o *Point) bool { return p.row == o.row && p.col == o.col }

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• What's the most efficient query?

  - by Aaron Carlino

  I have a table named Projects that has the following relationships: has many Contributions has many Payments In my result set, I need the following aggregate values: Number of unique contributors (DonorID on the Contribution table) Total contributed (SUM of Amount on Contribution table) Total paid (SUM of PaymentAmount on Payment table) Because there are so many aggregate functions and multiple joins, it gets messy do use standard aggregate functions the the GROUP BY clause. I also need the ability to sort and filter these fields. So I've come up with two options: Using subqueries: SELECT Project.ID AS PROJECT_ID, (SELECT SUM(PaymentAmount) FROM Payment WHERE ProjectID = PROJECT_ID) AS TotalPaidBack, (SELECT COUNT(DISTINCT DonorID) FROM Contribution WHERE RecipientID = PROJECT_ID) AS ContributorCount, (SELECT SUM(Amount) FROM Contribution WHERE RecipientID = PROJECT_ID) AS TotalReceived FROM Project; Using a temporary table: DROP TABLE IF EXISTS Project_Temp; CREATE TEMPORARY TABLE Project_Temp (project_id INT NOT NULL, total_payments INT, total_donors INT, total_received INT, PRIMARY KEY(project_id)) ENGINE=MEMORY; INSERT INTO Project_Temp (project_id,total_payments) SELECT `Project`.ID, IFNULL(SUM(PaymentAmount),0) FROM `Project` LEFT JOIN `Payment` ON ProjectID = `Project`.ID GROUP BY 1; INSERT INTO Project_Temp (project_id,total_donors,total_received) SELECT `Project`.ID, IFNULL(COUNT(DISTINCT DonorID),0), IFNULL(SUM(Amount),0) FROM `Project` LEFT JOIN `Contribution` ON RecipientID = `Project`.ID GROUP BY 1 ON DUPLICATE KEY UPDATE total_donors = VALUES(total_donors), total_received = VALUES(total_received); SELECT * FROM Project_Temp; Tests for both are pretty comparable, in the 0.7 - 0.8 seconds range with 1,000 rows. But I'm really concerned about scalability, and I don't want to have to re-engineer everything as my tables grow. What's the best approach?

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• Setting up relations/mappings for a SQLAlchemy many-to-many database

  - by Brent Ramerth

  I'm new to SQLAlchemy and relational databases, and I'm trying to set up a model for an annotated lexicon. I want to support an arbitrary number of key-value annotations for the words which can be added or removed at runtime. Since there will be a lot of repetition in the names of the keys, I don't want to use this solution directly, although the code is similar. My design has word objects and property objects. The words and properties are stored in separate tables with a property_values table that links the two. Here's the code: from sqlalchemy import Column, Integer, String, Table, create_engine from sqlalchemy import MetaData, ForeignKey from sqlalchemy.orm import relation, mapper, sessionmaker from sqlalchemy.ext.declarative import declarative_base engine = create_engine('sqlite:///test.db', echo=True) meta = MetaData(bind=engine) property_values = Table('property_values', meta, Column('word_id', Integer, ForeignKey('words.id')), Column('property_id', Integer, ForeignKey('properties.id')), Column('value', String(20)) ) words = Table('words', meta, Column('id', Integer, primary_key=True), Column('name', String(20)), Column('freq', Integer) ) properties = Table('properties', meta, Column('id', Integer, primary_key=True), Column('name', String(20), nullable=False, unique=True) ) meta.create_all() class Word(object): def __init__(self, name, freq=1): self.name = name self.freq = freq class Property(object): def __init__(self, name): self.name = name mapper(Property, properties) Now I'd like to be able to do the following: Session = sessionmaker(bind=engine) s = Session() word = Word('foo', 42) word['bar'] = 'yes' # or word.bar = 'yes' ? s.add(word) s.commit() Ideally this should add 1|foo|42 to the words table, add 1|bar to the properties table, and add 1|1|yes to the property_values table. However, I don't have the right mappings and relations in place to make this happen. I get the sense from reading the documentation at http://www.sqlalchemy.org/docs/05/mappers.html#association-pattern that I want to use an association proxy or something of that sort here, but the syntax is unclear to me. I experimented with this: mapper(Word, words, properties={ 'properties': relation(Property, secondary=property_values) }) but this mapper only fills in the foreign key values, and I need to fill in the other value as well. Any assistance would be greatly appreciated.

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• paypal sadbox IPN

  - by Phil Jackson

  Morning all. I am trying to test a SIMPLE php script to deal with the IPN response from paypal sandbox. <?php // read the post from PayPal system and add 'cmd' $req = 'cmd=_notify-validate'; foreach ($post as $key => $value) { $value = urlencode(stripslashes($value)); $req .= "&$key=$value"; } // post back to PayPal system to validate $header = "POST /cgi-bin/webscr HTTP/1.0\r\n"; $header .= "Content-Type: application/x-www-form-urlencoded\r\n"; $header .= "Content-Length: " . strlen($req) . "\r\n\r\n"; $fp = fsockopen ('ssl://www.sandbox.paypal.com/', 443, $errno, $errstr, 30); if ( !$fp ) { // HTTP ERROR $fp = fopen('thinbg.txt', 'a'); fwrite($fp, "false !fp - " . implode(" ", $post) ); fclose($fp); } else { fputs ($fp, $header . $req); while (!feof($fp)) { $res = fgets ($fp, 1024); if (strcmp ($res, "VERIFIED") == 0) { // PAYMENT VALIDATED & VERIFIED! $fp2 = fopen('thinbg.txt', 'a'); fwrite($fp2, "true - " . implode(" ", $post) ); fclose($fp2); } else if (strcmp ($res, "INVALID") == 0) { // PAYMENT INVALID & INVESTIGATE MANUALY! $fp2 = fopen('thinbg.txt', 'a'); fwrite($fp2, "false - " . implode(" ", $post) ); fclose($fp2); } } fclose ($fp); } ?> When I click on "send IPN" in the test ac"IPN successfully sent". when I look at the file that I created to check the vars it begins with "false !fp" yet still displays all the vars. Can anyone see whats happening and how I go about fixing. Regards, Phil

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• Rails - Why is HAML showing the full hash?

  - by Mr. Demetrius Michael

  View: !!! %html %head %title= full_title(yield(:title)) =stylesheet_link_tag "application", media: "all" =javascript_include_tag "application" =csrf_meta_tags =render 'layouts/shim' %body =render 'layouts/header' .container =flash.each do |key, value| %div{class: "alert alert-#{key}"} #{value} Controller def create @user = User.new(params[:user]) if @user.save flash[:success] = "This is Correct" redirect_to @user else flash[:wrong] = "no" render 'new' end end Regardless of the flash (:success or :wrong or otherwise) it always compiles the entire hash as html (below) Output: <!DOCTYPE html> .... <div class='container'> <div class='alert alert-wrong'>no</div> {:wrong=&gt;&quot;no&quot;} </div> </body> </html> I have no idea why {:wrong=&gt;&quot;no&quot;} is being displayed. I've been staring at this terminal for hours. What's interesting is that the hash is being outputted with the container id, but not in the alert class. It feels like an indentation problem, but I went through several permutations with no success.

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• Building asynchronous cache pattern with JSP

  - by merweirdo

  I have a JSP that will take some 8 minutes to render. The code logic itself can not be made more efficient (it will update often and be updated by basically a pointy haired boss). I tried wrapping it with a caching layer like <%@ taglib uri="/WEB-INF/classes/oscache.tld" prefix="oscache" %> <oscache:cache time="60"> <div class="pagecontent"> ..... my logic </div> </oscache:cache> This is nice until the 60 seconds is over. The next query after that blocks until the 8 minutes of rendering is done with again. I would need a way to build a pattern something like: If there is no version of the dynamic content in the cache run the actual logic (and populate the cache for subsequent requests) If there is a non-expired version of the dynamic content in the cache serve the output of the JSP logic from the cache If there is an expired version of the dynamic content in the cache serve the output of the JSP logic still from the cache AND run the JSP logic in the background so that the cache gets updated transparently to the user - avoiding the user have to wait for 8 minutes I found out that at least EHCache might be able to do some asynchronous cache updating but it did not sadly seem to apply to the JSP tags... Also I have to take in 10-20 parameters for the actual logic of the JSP and some of them should be used as a key for caching. Code example and/or pointers would be greatly appreciated. I do not frankly care if the solution provided is extremely ugly. I just want a simple 5 minute caching with asynchronous cache update taking into account some parameters as a key.

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• Dealing with expired authentication for a partially filled form?

  - by aaronls

  I have a large webform, and would like to prompt the user to login if their session expires, or have them login when they submit the form. It seems that having them login when they submit the form creates alot of challenges because they get redirected to the login page and then the postback data for the original form submission is lost. So I'm thinking about how to prompt them to login asynchrounsly when the session expires. So that they stay on the original form page, have a panel appear telling them the session has expired and they need to login, it submits the login asynchronously, the login panel disapears, and the user is still on the original partially filled form and can submit it. Is this easily doable using the existing ASP.NET Membership controls? When they submit the form will I need to worry about the session key? I mean, I am wondering if the session key the form submits will be the original one from before the session expired which won't match the new one generated after logging in again asynchrounously(I still do not understand the details of how ASP.NET tracks authentication/session IDs). Edit: Yes I am actually concerned about authentication expiration. The user must be authenticated for the submitted data to be considered valid.

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• How to properly set relationships in Core Data when using setValue and data already exists

  - by ern

  Let's say I have two objects: Articles and Categories. For the sake of this example all relevant categories have already been added to the data store. When looping through data that holds edits for articles, there is category relationship information that needs to be saved. I was planning on using the -setValue method in the Article class in order to set the relationships like so: - (void)setValue:(id)value forUndefinedKey:(NSString *)key { if([key isEqualToString:@"categories"]){ NSLog(@"trying to set categories..."); } } The problem is that value isn't a Category, it is just a string (or array of strings) holding the title of a category. I could certainly do a lookup within this method for each category and assign it, but that seems inefficient when processing a whole bunch of articles at once. Another option is to populate an array of all possible categories and just filter, but my question is where to store that array? Should it be a class method on Article? Is there a way to pass in additional data to the -setValue method? Is there another, better option for setting the relationship I'm not thinking of? Thanks for your help.

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• Joining Tables Based on Foreign Keys

  - by maestrojed

  I have a table that has a lot of fields that are foreign keys referencing a related table. I am writing a script in PHP that will do the db queries. When I query this table for its data I need to know the values associated with these keys not the key. How do most people go about this? A 101 way to do this would be to query this table for its data including the foreign keys and then query the related tables to get each key's value. This could be a lot of queries (~10). Question 1: I think I could write 1 query with a bunch of joins. Would that be better? This approach also requires the querying script to know which table fields are foreign keys. Since I have many tables like this but all with different fields, this means writing nice generic functions is hard. MySQL InnoDB tables allow for foreign constraints. I know the database has these set up correctly. Question 2: What about the idea of querying the table and identifying what the constraints are and then matching them up using whatever process I decide on from Question 1. I like this idea but never see it being used in code. Makes me think its not a good idea for some reason. I would use something like SHOW CREATE TABLE tbl_name; to find what constraints/relationships exist for that table. Thank you for any suggestions or advice.

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• Traversing through an arbitrary dictionary tree structure in C#

  - by Rudism

  I am trying to write a recursive C# function that will operate on generic dictionaries of the form IDictionary<string, T> where T is either another IDictionary<string, T> or a string. My first failed attempt looked something like this: public string HandleDict(IDictionary<string, string> dict){ // handle the leaf-node here } public string HandleDict<T>(IDictionary<string, IDictionary<string, T>> dict){ // loop through children foreach(string key in dict.Keys){ HandleDict(dict[key]); } } I also tried variants of HandleDict<T>(IDictionary<string, T>) where T : IDictionary<string, T> but that also doesn't quite work. I know that what I want to do could be achieved through a custom class as the parameter instead of dictionaries, and that my attempts are conceptually flawed (there's no end to the recursion in the generic function). I would still like to know if there is actually a way to do what I want here using just generic IDictionaries.

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• WordPress plugin to output a certain category on content page tweak help

  - by talkingD0G

  I'm using WordPress plugin Category Page to display the most recent 5 posts from a certain category on a regular content page (not the blog page) of a website. Right now the plugin is limited to display the post title linked to the post page. This is a video blog type site and I need the plugin to display the post title (as it does now) with the video as well. Probably just telling the script to show the content would work but I don't know how to tweak it. This is the section of the script that is outputting the post title: function page2cat_content_catlist($content){ global $post; if ( stristr( $content, '[catlist' )) { $search = "@(?:<p>)*\s*\[catlist\s*=\s*(\w+|^\+)\]\s*(?:</p>)*@i"; if (preg_match_all($search, $content, $matches)) { if (is_array($matches)) { $title = get_option('p2c_catlist_title'); if($title != "") $output = "<h4>".$title."</h4>"; else $output = ""; $output .= "<ul class='p2c_catlist'>"; $limit = get_option('p2c_catlist_limit'); foreach ($matches[1] as $key =>$v0) { $catposts = get_posts('category='.$v0."&numberposts=".$limit); foreach($catposts as $single): $output .= "<li><a href='".get_permalink($single->ID)." '>".$single->post_title."</a></li>"; endforeach; $search = $matches[0][$key]; $replace= $output; $content= str_replace ($search, $replace, $content); } $output .= "</ul>"; } } } return $content; } If anyone has any advice or knows how to help thanks in advance!

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• autologin component doesn't work on remote server

  - by user606521

  I am using autologin component from http://milesj.me/code/cakephp/auto-login (v 3.5.1). It works on my localhost WAMP server but fails on remote server. I am using this settings in beforeFilter() callback: $this->AutoLogin->settings = array( // Model settings 'model' => 'User', 'username' => 'username', 'password' => 'password', // Controller settings 'plugin' => '', 'controller' => 'users', // Cookie settings 'cookieName' => 'rememberMe', 'expires' => '+1 month', // Process logic 'active' => true, 'redirect' => true, 'requirePrompt' => true ); On remote server it simply doesn't autolog users after the browser was closed. I can't figure out what may cause the problem. -------------------- edit I figured out what is causing the problem but I don't know how to fix this. First of all cookie is set like this: $this->Cookie->write('key',array('username' => 'someusername', 'hash' => 'somehash', ...) ); Then it's readed like this: $cookie = $this->Cookie->read('key'); On my WAMP server $cookie is array('username' => 'someusername', 'hash' => 'somehash', ...) and on remote server returned $cookie is string(159) "{\"username\":\"YWxlay5iYXJzsdsdZXdza2ldssd21haWwuY29t\",\"password\":\"YWxlazc3ODEy\",\"hash\":\"aa15bffff9ca12cdcgfgb351d8bfg2f370bf458\",\"time\":1339923926}" and it should be: array( 'username' => "YWxlay5iYXJzsdsdZXdza2ldssd21haWwuY29t", 'password' => "YWxlazc3ODEy", ...) Why the retuned cookie is string not array?

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• Moving information between databases

  - by williamjones

  I'm on Postgres, and have two databases on the same machine, and I'd like to move some data from database Source to database Dest. Database Source: Table User has a primary key Table Comments has a primary key Table UserComments is a join table with two foreign keys for User and Comments Dest looks just like Source in structure, but already has information in User and Comments tables that needs to be retained. I'm thinking I'll probably have to do this in a few steps. Step 1, I would dump Source using the Postgres Copy command. Step 2, In Dest I would add a temporary second_key column to both User and Comments, and a new SecondUserComments join table. Step 3, I would import the dumped file into Dest using Copy again, with the keys input into the second_key columns. Step 4, I would add rows to UserComments in Dest based on the contents of SecondUserComments, only using the real primary keys this time. Could this be done with a SQL command or would I need a script? Step 5, delete the SecondUserComments table and remove the second_key columns. Does this sound like the best way to do this, or is there a better way I'm overlooking?

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• Tail recursion and memoization with C#

  - by Jay

  I'm writing a function that finds the full path of a directory based on a database table of entries. Each record contains a key, the directory's name, and the key of the parent directory (it's the Directory table in an MSI if you're familiar). I had an iterative solution, but it started looking a little nasty. I thought I could write an elegant tail recursive solution, but I'm not sure anymore. I'll show you my code and then explain the issues I'm facing. Dictionary<string, string> m_directoryKeyToFullPathDictionary = new Dictionary<string, string>(); ... private string ExpandDirectoryKey(Database database, string directoryKey) { // check for terminating condition string fullPath; if (m_directoryKeyToFullPathDictionary.TryGetValue(directoryKey, out fullPath)) { return fullPath; } // inductive step Record record = ExecuteQuery(database, "SELECT DefaultDir, Directory_Parent FROM Directory where Directory.Directory='{0}'", directoryKey); // null check string directoryName = record.GetString("DefaultDir"); string parentDirectoryKey = record.GetString("Directory_Parent"); return Path.Combine(ExpandDirectoryKey(database, parentDirectoryKey), directoryName); } This is how the code looked when I realized I had a problem (with some minor validation/massaging removed). I want to use memoization to short circuit whenever possible, but that requires me to make a function call to the dictionary to store the output of the recursive ExpandDirectoryKey call. I realize that I also have a Path.Combine call there, but I think that can be circumvented with a ... + Path.DirectorySeparatorChar + .... I thought about using a helper method that would memoize the directory and return the value so that I could call it like this at the end of the function above: return MemoizeHelper( m_directoryKeyToFullPathDictionary, Path.Combine(ExpandDirectoryKey(database, parentDirectoryKey)), directoryName); But I feel like that's cheating and not going to be optimized as tail recursion. Any ideas? Should I be using a completely different strategy? This doesn't need to be a super efficient algorithm at all, I'm just really curious. I'm using .NET 4.0, btw. Thanks!

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• How to "reduce" a hash?

  - by Julien Lebosquain

  Suppose I have any "long" hash, like a 16 bytes MD5 or a 20 bytes SHA1. I want to reduce this hash to fit on 4 bytes, for GetHashCode() purposes. First, I'm perfectly aware that I'll get more collisions. That's totally fine in my case, but I'd still prefer to get the less possible collisions. There are several solutions to my problem: I could take the 4 first bytes of the hash. I could take the 4 last bytes of the hash. I could take 4 random bytes of the hash. I could generate a hash of the hash, involving classic prime numbers multiplications. Are there other solutons I didn't think about? And more importantly, what method will give me the most unique hash code? I'm currently supposing they're almost equivalent. Microsoft choose that the public key token of an assembly is the last 8 bytes of the SHA1 hash of its public key, so I'll probably go for this solution but I'd like to know why.

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• Blackberry Keyboard Lock timeout

  - by Vernon

  I want this blackberry 9700 to "fully lock" as soon as I click the icon for the "Keyboard Lock" application. Currently I have to wait 5 to 7 seconds for the screen to go dark after each time I click the "Keyboard Lock" icon. During that time if something touches the touch pad, then the 5-7 second timer resets and you have to wait another 5 to 7 seconds for the screen to go dark and "fully lock" After it finally goes dark, touching the touch pad does not reset the timer. At that point it is "fully locked" and requires a key to be pressed. How can I get it to "fully lock" as soon as the lock icon is clicked? I want the screen to go dark immediately, and for it to require a key press to request an unlock. I have tried Options - Screen/Keyboard - Backlight Timeout ... etc ... none of that reduces the timeout for the "Keyboard Lock" application. And there does not seem to be an option screen for the "Keyboard Lock" application, that I can find. NOTE: This is occurring with BlackBerry 9700 v5.0.0.330 (Platform 5.1.0.91)

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• Is there a tool for managing redundant pages across a website?

  - by dmanexe

  I am in charge of constructing a website with a '2-dimensional' site map, as explained later. I am looking for (preferably a Wordpress plugin, as the site is built in Wordpress already) that would make managing thousands of pages a lot easier. To explain further, let me iterate my situation. I am building a website for a construction company, and they have several key cities and several key services. Now, they want a parent page for each service, and another unique page for the child sub-service, and finaly, a grandchild page for the city they are performing the service in. For example, if they were doing Concrete Construction in Los Angeles, the URL would look like: /concrete/construction/los-angeles The content on /los-angeles would be the same as on /malibu, or /burbank. However, there would be a different set of content for /concrete/design/los-angeles, but the entire page content (sans a few variables with city names) would be the same. Is there a way to manage or automate 'matrixing' this information on the site? I am looking for a tool that would allow me to easily add a 'city' with the same content across all grandchildren, per the child's content requirements. All of the grandchildren pages will have redundant content across them. Should something like this not exist, how difficult would it be to create, as a freelance side project? I need a tool like this, because I am approaching about ~500 cities and 50 services (Concrete Construction, Concrete Design, Concrete Engineering, etc)

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• Using an ORM with a database that has no defined relationships?

  - by Ahmad

  Consider a database(MSSQL 2005) that consists of 100+ tables which have primary keys defined to a certain degree. There are 'relationships' between tables, however these are not enforced with foreign key constraints. Consider the following simplified example of typical types of tables I am dealing with. The are clear relations between the User and City and Province tables. However, they key issues is the inconsistent data types in the tables and naming conventions. User: UserRowId [int] PK Name [varchar(50)] CityId [smallint] ProvinceRowId [bigint] City: CityRowId [bigint] PK CityDescription [varchar(100)] Province: ProvinceId [int] PK ProvinceDesc [varchar(50)] I am considering a rewrite of the application (in ASP.net MVC) that uses this data source as is similar in design to MVC storefront. However I am going through a proof of concept phase and this is one of the stumbling blocks I have come across. What are my options in terms of ORM choice that can be easily used and why? Should I even be considering an ORM? (The reason I ask this is that most explanations and tutorials all work with relatively cleanly designed existing databases, or newly created ones when compared to mine. I am thus having a very hard time trying to find a way forward with this problem) There is a huge amount of existing SQL queries, would a datamappper(eg IBatis.net) be more suitable since we could easily modify them to work and reuse the investment already made? I have found this question on SO which indicates to me that an ORM can be used - however I get the impression that this a question of mapping? Note: at the moment, the object model is not clearly defined as it was non-existent. The existing system pretty much did almost everything in SQL or consisted of overly complicated, and numerous queries to complete fucntionality. I am pretty much a noob and have zero experience around ORMs and MVC - so this an awesome learning curve I am on.

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• WPF ContextMenu bind some property to another property of the same control

  - by bebicasoft

  I have a ContextMenu and a ColumnHeaderStyle defined in Window.Resource section witch i use-it to a DataGrid ColumnHeader. My code is something like this: <ContextMenu x:Key="cm_columnHeaderMenu"/> <Style x:Key="DefaultColumnHeaderStyle" TargetType="{x:Type DataGridColumnHeader}"> <Setter Property="ContextMenu" Value="{StaticResource cm_columnHeaderMenu}" /> </Style> <DataGrid Grid.Column="2" Grid.Row="1" x:Name="dgridFiles" IsReadOnly="True" ColumnHeaderStyle="{StaticResource DefaultColumnHeaderStyle}"> I want to know if I can (and if the answer it true, then HOW I could do it) bind the ContextMenu Visibility property to same control ContextMenu Items.Count>0 property. Initially based on some other treeView control selections made there shoud be no items in the context menu, but i wish to add dinamically items in ContextMenu based on selection in treeView. This part is done, the context has those items. On some selections there are no-items, but still on the grid it appears an empty ContextMenu. So I believe the easiest part it would be to bind the Visibility to Items.Count property of the same control. Sorry if my english is not good enought, I'll try to explain better if i didnt make clear 1st time.

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