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• Understanding mail failure notices, 554

  - by goran

  I'd like to confirm the meaining of a mail failure notice. Here's the message Hi. This is the qmail-send program at mydomain.com I'm afraid I wasn't able to deliver your message to the following addresses. This is a permanent error; I've given up. Sorry it didn't work out. <[email protected]>: 1.2.3.4 does not like recipient. Remote host said: 554 <[email protected]>: Relay access denied Giving up on 1.2.3.4 The way I understand this is, that 1.2.3.4 is not setup to receive mail for this domain. dig domain.com MX shows ;; ANSWER SECTION: domain.com. 6245 IN MX 10 mail.domain.com. domain.com. 6245 IN MX 20 mx.anotherdomain.com. (1.2.3.4 is mx.anotherdomain.com.). The puzzling part is that I have reports that messages sent from gmail get delivered to this address. P.S. Is this a proper question for serverfault?

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• Can not access SQLServer database

  - by btrey

  I'm trying to convert an Access database to use a SQLServer backend. I've upsized the database and everything works on the server, but I'm unable to access it remotely. I'm running SQLServer Express 2005 on Windows Server 2003. The server is not configured as a domain controller, nor connected to a domain. The computers I'm trying to access the server from are part of a domain, but there are no local domain controllers. I'm at a remote location and the computers are configured and connected to the domain at the home office, then shipped to us. We normally log in with cached credentials and VPN into the home office when we need to access the domain. I can use Remote Desktop Connection to access the 2k3 server which is running SQLServer. If I log into the server with my username, I can bring up the database, access it via the Trusted Connection, and the database works. If I try to run the database locally, however, I get the Server Login dialog box. I can not use a Trusted Connection because my local login is to the home office domain and is not recognized by the SQLServer machine. If I try to use the username/password that is local to the SQLServer, I get a login failed error. I've tried entering the username as "username", "workgroup/username" (where "workgroup" is the name of the workgroup on the SQLServer), "sqlservername/username" and "[email protected]" where "1.2.3.4" is the IP of the SQLServer. In all cases, I get a login failed error. As I said, I can login to the server via Remote Desktop Connection with the same username and password and use the database, so permissions for the username appear to be correct for both a remote connection and for database access. Not sure where to go from here and any assistance would be appreciated.

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• Microsoft Application Request Routing with Windows Authentication

  - by theplatz

  I'm running into a problem trying to get Windows Authentication working in an environment that uses Microsoft Application Request Routing and was hoping someone might be able to help. The problem I'm running into is that only some requests are authenticated, while others fail with 401 errors. I have followed the Special Case of Running IIS 7.0 in a Web Farm instructions found at http://blogs.msdn.com/b/webtopics/archive/2009/01/19/service-principal-name-spn-checklist-for-kerberos-authentication-with-iis-7-0.aspx to no avail. My current server setup looks like the following: ARR Two servers set up with IIS shared configuration using IIS 7.5 on Windows 2008 R2 Anonymous authentication turned on for the Default Web Site Web Farm Two servers running IIS 7.5 on Windows 2008 R2 Three web sites set up using port binding to differentiate between virtual hosts. Ports being used are 8000, 8001, and 8002 Application pools for Windows Authentication all use a common domain account SPN added to domain account for http/<virthalhost-name>:<port-number> and http/<virtualhost-name>.<fully-qualified-domain>:<port-number> The IIS logs show the following when authentication is working/failing. If I understand correctly, all requests should show DOMAIN\User_Name: 2012-11-19 15:03:17 CLUSTER-IP-ADDRESS GET /home/stylesheets/techweb.landing.css - 8002 DOMAIN\User_Name ARR-HOST-1-IP-ADDRESS 200 0 0 62 2012-11-19 15:03:17 CLUSTER-IP-ADDRESS GET /home/images/user-background-right.gif - 8002 - ARR-HOST-1-IP-ADDRESS 401 2 5 0 2012-11-19 15:03:17 CLUSTER-IP-ADDRESS GET /home/images/user-background-left.gif - 8002 DOMAIN\User_Name ARR-HOST-IP-ADDRESS 200 0 0 31 2012-11-19 15:03:17 CLUSTER-IP-ADDRESS GET /home/images/user-icon.png - 8002 - ARR-HOST-1-IP-ADDRESS 401 2 5 0 2012-11-19 15:03:17 CLUSTER-IP-ADDRESS GET /home/images/user-icon.png - 8002 - ARR-HOST-1-IP-ADDRESS 401 1 2148074248 0 2012-11-19 15:03:17 CLUSTER-IP-ADDRESS GET /home/images/application-icon.png - 8002 - ARR-HOST-1-IP-ADDRESS 401 1 2148074248 0 2012-11-19 15:03:17 CLUSTER-IP-ADDRESS GET /home/images/user-background-right.gif - 8002 - ARR-HOST-1-IP-ADDRESS 401 1 3221225581 15 2012-11-19 15:03:17 CLUSTER-IP-ADDRESS GET /home/images/building.gif - 8002 DOMAIN\User_Name ARR-HOST-2-IP-ADDRESS 200 0 0 218 Does anyone know what might cause this problem and how I can resolve it?

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• SVN Authentication with LDAP and Active Directory

  - by Alex Holsgrove

  I am having a few problems getting SVN authentication to work with LDAP / Active Directory. My SVN installation works fine, but after enabling LDAP in my apache vhost, I just can't get my users to authenticate. I can use a selection of LDAP browsers to successfully connect to Active Directory, but just can't seem to get this to work. SVN is setup in /var/local/svn Server is svn.domain.local For testing, my repository is /var/local/svn/test My vhost file is as follows: <VirtualHost *:80> ServerAdmin [email protected] ServerAlias svn.domain.local ServerName svn.domain.local DocumentRoot /var/www/svn/ <Location /test> DAV svn #SVNListParentPath On SVNPath /var/local/svn/test AuthzSVNAccessFile /var/local/svn/svnaccess AuthzLDAPAuthoritative off AuthType Basic AuthName "SVN Server" AuthBasicProvider ldap AuthLDAPBindDN "CN=adminuser,OU=SBSAdmin Users,OU=Users,OU=MyBusiness,DC=domain,DC=local" AuthLDAPBindPassword "admin password" AuthLDAPURL "ldap://192.168.1.6:389/OU=SBSUsers,OU=Users,OU=MyBusiness,DC=domain,DC=local?sAMAccountName?sub?(objectClass=*)" Require valid-user </Location> CustomLog /var/log/apache2/svn/access.log combined ErrorLog /var/log/apache2/svn/error.log </VirtualHost> In my error.log, I don't seem to get any bind errors (should I be looking elsewhere?), but just the following: [Thu Jun 21 09:51:38 2012] [error] [client 192.168.1.142] user alex: authentication failure for "/test/": Password Mismatch, referer: http://svn.domain.local/test/ At the end of "AuthLDAPURL", I have seen people using TLS and NONE but neither seem to help in my case. I have the ldap modules loaded and have checked as much as I know, so any help would be most welcome. Thanks

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• nginx- Rewrite URL with Trailing Slash

  - by Bryan

  I have a specialized set of rewrite rules to accommodate a mutli site cms setup. I am trying to have nginx force a trailing slash on the request URL. I would like it to redirect requests for domain.com/some-random-article to domain.com/some-random-article/ I know there are semantic considerations with this, but I would like to do it for SEO purposes. Here is my current server config. server { listen 80; server_name domain.com mirror.domain.com; root /rails_apps/master/public; passenger_enabled on; # Redirect from www to non-www if ($host = 'domain.com' ) { rewrite ^/(.*)$ http://www.domain.com/$1 permanent; } location /assets/ { expires 1y; rewrite ^/assets/(.*)$ /assets/$http_host/$1 break; } # / -> index.html if (-f $document_root/cache/$host$uri/index.html) { rewrite (.*) /cache/$host$1/index.html break; } # /about -> /about.html if (-f $document_root/cache/$host$uri.html) { rewrite (.*) /cache/$host$1.html break; } # other files if (-f $document_root/cache/$host$uri) { rewrite (.*) /cache/$host$1 break; } } How would I modify this to add the trailing slash? I would assume there has to be a check for the slash so that you don't end up with domain.com/some-random-article//

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• Joining new DC to AD - DNS name does not exist

  - by Andrew Connell

  I had a DC fail on me recently and trying to add a new one to my domain, although I'm sensing I might have other issues in my domain. I'm a dev at heart and know just enough about AD to be dangerous so looking for some assistance. My working DC is RIVERCITY-DC12. I'm trying to promote RIVERCITY-DC14 as a DC to the RIVERCITY domain, but when I run DCPROMO, at the NETWORK CREDENTIALS step where I point to the name of the domain (rivercity.local), I get "An AD DC for the domain rivercity.local cannot be contacted" and in the details see "The error was DNS name does not exist" Looking at RIVERCITY-DC12, I can see DNS is working, I've been able to query it from other machines in my domain, and no errors are reported in the DNS category within the Event Viewer. When I checked the FMSO roles, it shows RIVERCITY-DC12 is the machine for all listed roles. Not sure what I should do next or how to troubleshoot/investigate after searching around for a solution... ideas? Environment: Domain: rivercity (rivercity.local) Forest functional level: Windows 2000 (I'm more than happy to raise this) Windows Server 2008 All servers are Windows Server 2008 R2 SP1 (fully patched)

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• TLS_REQCERT and PHP with LDAPS

  - by John

  Problem: Secure LDAP queries via command-line and PHP to an AD domain controller with a self-signed certificate. Background: I am working on a project where I need to enable LDAP look-ups from a PHP web application to a MS AD domain controller that is using a self-signed certificate. This self-signed certificate is also using a domain name that is not a FQDN - think of something like people.campus as the domain name. The web application would take the user's credentials and pass them on to the AD domain controller to verify if the credntials are a match or not. This seems simple, but I am having problems trying to get PHP and the self-signed certificate to work. Some people have suggested that I changed the TLS_REQCERT variable from "request" to "never" within the OpenLDAP configuration. I am concerned that this might have larger implications such as a man-in-the-middle attack and I am not comfortable changing this setting to never. I have also read some places online where one can take a certificate and place it as a trusted source within the openldap configuration file. I am curious if that is something that I could do for the situation that I have? Can I, from the command line, obtain the self-signed certificate that the AD domain controller is using, save it to a file, and then have openldap use that file for the trust that it needs so that I do not need to adjust the variable from request to never? I do not have access to the AD domain controller and as a result cannot export the certificate. If there is a way to obtain the certificate from the command line, what commands do I need to use? Is there an alternate method of handling this issue that would be better in the long run? I have some CentOS servers and some Ubuntu servers that I am working with to try and get this going on. Thanks in advance for your help and ideas.

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• Virtualize SBS 2003 - P2V vs migrating to new VM

  - by jlehtinen

  I need to virtualize a SBS 2003 server in my work environment. I need some tips on what people think is the best way to proceed. Background: The SBS 2003 server is the primary DC for the domain and also hosts FTP, RRAS(VPN), DNS, and file shares. Exchange is NOT used, neither is SQL server. DHCP is done via a firewall appliance. I have added a Server 2003 VM to the domain and promoted it to the DC role. AD/DNS is replicating here correctly. This was mainly done to provide fault-tolerance to the domain, I was not intending to make this VM the primary DC. I've already asked about buying upgraded licensing for Server 2008/2012 but was refused due to cost. Options: I see (at least) two routes I could take to complete this. From what I've read option 2 is the "preferred" method, but there's a few steps where I'm not clear on what to expect. Option 1.) P2V the primary DC Power off primary DC Power off secondary DC (to prevent USN rollback in case P2V has issue) P2V (cold clone) primary DC Boot new PDC VM Allow new hardware to detect Remove old NIC hardware from device manager Assign old IPs to new virtual NICs Reboot PDC VM, confirm connectivity and no major issues Power on secondary DC, confirm replication Option 2.) Create new VM, transfer roles, remove original DC from domain Create new VM, install SBS 2003 Do I need the original SBS install discs for this? MS migration doc mentions this. Add VM to domain, promote to DC role Does this start 7 day timer where two SBS servers can be in same domain? Set up RRAS on new VM Set up IIS/FTP on new VM Move file shares to new VM Transfer FSMO roles to new VM DC dcpromo original primary DC out of domain

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• Apache2 default vhost in alphabetical order or override with _default_ vhost?

  - by benbradley

  I've got multiple named vhosts on an Apache web server (CentOS 5, Apache 2.2.3). Each vhost has their own config file in /etc/httpd/vhosts.d and these vhost config files are included from the main httpd conf with... Include vhosts.d/*.conf Here's an example of one of the vhost confs... NameVirtualHost *:80 <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName www.domain.biz ServerAlias domain.biz www.domain.biz DocumentRoot /var/www/www.domain.biz <Directory /var/www/www.domain.biz> Options +FollowSymLinks Order Allow,Deny Allow from all </Directory> CustomLog /var/log/httpd/www.domain.biz_access.log combined ErrorLog /var/log/httpd/www.domain.biz_error.log </VirtualHost> Now I when anyone tries to access the server directly by using the public IP address, they get the first vhost specified in the aggregated config (so in my case it's alphabetical order from the vhosts.d directory). Anyone accessing the server directly by IP address, I'd like them to just get an 403 or a 404. I've discovered several ways to set a default/catch-all vhost and some conflicting opinions. I could create a new vhost conf in vhosts.d called 000aaadefault.conf or something but that feels a bit nasty. I could have a <VirtualHost> block in my main httpd.conf before the vhosts.d directory is included. I could just specify a DocumentRoot in my main httpd.conf What about specifying a default vhost in httpd.conf with _default_ http://httpd.apache.org/docs/2.2/vhosts/examples.html#default Would having a <VirtualHost _default_:*> block in my httpd.conf before I Include vhosts.d/*.conf be the best way for a catch-all?

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• nginx- Rewrite URL with Trailing Slash

  - by Bryan

  I have a specialized set of rewrite rules to accommodate a mutli site cms setup. I am trying to have nginx force a trailing slash on the request URL. I would like it to redirect requests for domain.com/some-random-article to domain.com/some-random-article/ I know there are semantic considerations with this, but I would like to do it for SEO purposes. Here is my current server config. server { listen 80; server_name domain.com mirror.domain.com; root /rails_apps/master/public; passenger_enabled on; # Redirect from www to non-www if ($host = 'domain.com' ) { rewrite ^/(.*)$ http://www.domain.com/$1 permanent; } location /assets/ { expires 1y; rewrite ^/assets/(.*)$ /assets/$http_host/$1 break; } # / -> index.html if (-f $document_root/cache/$host$uri/index.html) { rewrite (.*) /cache/$host$1/index.html break; } # /about -> /about.html if (-f $document_root/cache/$host$uri.html) { rewrite (.*) /cache/$host$1.html break; } # other files if (-f $document_root/cache/$host$uri) { rewrite (.*) /cache/$host$1 break; } } How would I modify this to add the trailing slash? I would assume there has to be a check for the slash so that you don't end up with domain.com/some-random-article//

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• Troubles with apache and virtual hosts

  - by xZero

  I have a BIG problem. I have VPS with Debian OS, and LAMP installed. Fresh install. For control panel i using Webmin. Now i trying to setup multiple sub-domains on my server using webmin for example: downloads.my-domain.com cpanel.my-domains.com forum.my-domains.com But problem what is happening is next, while i using no virtual hosts, everything works perfectly when i accessing it using my-domain.com, but when i add Virtual host, i cann access it but my-domain.com becomes unavilable because it redirects to virtual hosts i added. When i add more than 2 virtual hosts, problem is still here. Also, when i try to access to virtual server for example downloads.my-domain.com, it redirects again to cpanel.my-domains.com When i delete virtual hosts, access to my-domain.com is succesfull... What i known: - That is not problem with my domain provider. I correctly added subdomains and added host record to my VPS IP. - I added unique name to every single virtual host. - There are no two same virtual hosts - Every virtaul hosts have own directory: for example: downloads.my-domain.com have own WWW dir: /var/downloads Can somebody help me? Thanks.

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• DNS caching server config problem

  - by Alex

  I have a Bind DNS caching-only server setup that is working. I am bringing up a new AD domain controller that will also be a DNS server for that AD but I don't want it responding to any DNS queries except those that are AD related. So, my goal is to leave this caching server as the primary DNS server for stations on the network and have it forward requests for the AD domain to the domain controller. My understanding is that I just need a forward zone for that domain pointing to the domain controller. However it does not seem to be working. So that leaves me to think that my caching server is not forwarding properly. For example, this AD is going to have a naming convention of hostname.mydomain.local. If I do an nslookup and specify the domain controller's IP address as the server, I can query addresses that exist in DNS on that server, such as dc1.mydomain.local. However, queries to my caching server times out (I get a response from the caching server if I query mydomain.local but none of the objects in that domain). Any suggestions? Here is my named.conf file: options { directory "/var/named"; listen-on { 192.168.0.14; 127.0.0.1; }; forwarders { ; ; }; forward first; }; zone "." in { type hint; file "db.cache"; }; zone "0.0.127.in-addr.arpa" in { type master; file "db.127.0.0"; }; //forward zone for mydomain.local zone "mydomain.local" { type forward; forwarders { 192.168.1.21; }; };

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• How to setup bindings for development IIS 7.5 with lot of sites

  - by Antonio Bakula

  I am a programmer in a small ASP.NET shop with very little expirience in server administration, and I have to setup IIS 7.5 to host lot of sites on newly installed windows server 2008 R2, these sites are test "clones" for sites on "real" web server and they should be accessible only in local network (domain). Developers should add new sites for our new customers. Project managers use this server to check progress and test new sites and new features, QA people have to have access to this site and test before we copy it to the "real" web server. Developers only have access to IIS console, in fact they can use RDP to test server with their developer domain credentials and permissions, also developers are local admins on that machine (tester). On our previous server I used different port numbers for each site. That worked but don't like this solution, I would prefer to use subdomains. But here are the problems: manually adding DNS records is not an option because we do not wont that developers have to administer domain DNS server, and currently this had to be done with domain administrator credentials. Is there a some way to add DNS record automatically ? I tried to add DNS record for subdomains on test server with wildcard (*.tester) and that seems to work for some time but that change coused some bad problems in our domain network and admin forbid me to mess with DNS, he said that I have to add DNS record for every subdomain manually and that I can not use wildcards, and there is nothing that I can do about it, mainly for "politicall" reasons :( obviously our admin is pretty much uncooperative, outsorced from different organization and I can't do anything about that. can I add another DNS server on that machine ? What must be setup on clients machines to "tell" them to use domain DNS server and tester domain server ? So please I need someone to give me some advice, what should I do ? Is different port numbers only option left ? Thanks !

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• Entlib validation to syntax to accept only numeric month numbers?

  - by ElHaix

  I've got an enum defined as such: Private Enum AllowedMonthNumbers _1 _2 _3 _4 _5 _6 _7 _8 _9 _10 _11 _12 End Enum Then a property validator defined as: <TypeConversionValidator(GetType(Int32), MessageTemplate:="Card expiry month must be numeric.", Ruleset:="CreditCard")> _ <EnumConversionValidator(GetType(AllowedMonthNumbers), MessageTemplate:="Card expiry month must be between 1 and 12.", Ruleset:="CreditCard")> _ The validation expects "_#", as when I remove the TypeConversionValidator, it passes with setting the value to "_3" or any other number in the enum. What I need is for this to only accept b/t 1-12, and simply having numeric values in the enum won't work. Any tips? Thanks. UPDATE I replaced the EnumConversionValidator with a RangeValidator, and attempting to set the parameter to "1", but received the following error: <RangeValidator(1, RangeBoundaryType.Inclusive, 12, RangeBoundaryType.Inclusive, MessageTemplate:="..."> However that's now giving me the following error: System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapException : System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapException: Server was unable to process request. ---> System.ArgumentException: Object must be of type Int32. at System.Int32.CompareTo(Object value) at Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Validation.Validators.RangeChecker`1.IsInRange(T target) at Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Validation.Validators.RangeValidator`1.DoValidate(T objectToValidate, Object currentTarget, String key, ValidationResults validationResults) at Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Validation.Validator`1.DoValidate(Object objectToValidate, Object currentTarget, String key, ValidationResults validationResults) at Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Validation.Validators.AndCompositeValidator.DoValidate(Object objectToValidate, Object currentTarget, String key, ValidationResults validationResults) at Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Validation.Validators.ValueAccessValidator.DoValidate(Object objectToValidate, Object currentTarget, String key, ValidationResults validationResults) at Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Validation.Validators.AndCompositeValidator.DoValidate(Object objectToValidate, Object currentTarget, String key, ValidationResults validationResults) at Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Validation.Validators.GenericValidatorWrapper`1.DoValidate(T objectToValidate, Object currentTarget, String key, ValidationResults validationResults) at Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Validation.Validator`1.Validate(T target, ValidationResults validationResults) at Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Validation.Validation.Validate[T](T target, String[] rulesets) at ....

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• Using LINQ in generic collections

  - by Hugo S Ferreira

  Hi, Please consider the following snippet from an implementation of the Interpreter pattern: public override object Execute(Interpreter interpreter, object ctx) { var list = ctx as IEnumerable<string>; return (list != null) ? list.FirstOrDefault() : null; } What about if I want to use the same function for integers? public override object Execute(Interpreter interpreter, object ctx) { var list = ctx as IEnumerable<string>; if (list != null) return list.FirstOrDefault(); var list = ctx as IEnumerable<int>; return (list != null) ? list.FirstOrDefault() : null; } What I wanted was something like: public override object Execute(Interpreter interpreter, object ctx) { var list = ctx as IEnumerable; return (list != null) ? list.FirstOrDefault() : null; } But Linq doesn't act on IEnumerables. Instead, to get to this solution, I would be forced to write something like: public override object Execute(Interpreter interpreter, object ctx) { var list = ctx as IEnumerable; if (list != null) foreach(var i in list) { yield return i; return; } return null; } Or use a generic method: public override T Execute<T>(Interpreter interpreter, object ctx) { var list = ctx as IEnumerable<T>; return (list != null) ? list.FirstOrDefault() : null; } Which would break the Interpreter pattern (as it was implemented in this system). Covariance would also fail (at least in C#3), though would it work, it would be the exact behavior I wanted: public override object Execute(Interpreter interpreter, object ctx) { var list = ctx as IEnumerable<object>; return (list != null) ? list.FirstOrDefault() : null; } So, my question is: what's the best way to achieve the intended behavior? Thanks :-)

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• Is using a StringBuilder for writing XML ok?

  - by Jack Lawson

  It feels dirty. But maybe it isn't... is it ok to use a StringBuilder for writing XML? My gut instinct says "although this feels wrong, it's probably pretty darn performant because it's not loading extra libraries and overhead." Here's what it looks like. I'm building an OpenSearch XML doc based on the domain you come in from. public void ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) { context.Response.ContentType = "text/xml"; string domain = WebUtils.ReturnParsedSourceUrl(null); //returns something like www.sample.com string cachedChan = context.Cache[domain + "_opensearchdescription"] as String; if (cachedChan == null) { StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); sb.Append("<?xml version=\"1.0\" encoding=\"UTF-8\"?>"); sb.Append("<OpenSearchDescription xmlns=\"http://a9.com/-/spec/opensearch/1.1/\" xmlns:moz=\"http://www.mozilla.org/2006/browser/search/\">"); sb.Append(" <ShortName>Search</ShortName>"); sb.Append(" <Description>Use " + domain + " to search.</Description>"); sb.Append(" <Contact>[email protected]</Contact>"); sb.Append(" <Url type=\"text/html\" method=\"get\" template=\"http://" + domain + "/Search.aspx?q={searchTerms}\" />"); sb.Append(" <moz:SearchForm>http://" + domain + "/Search.aspx</moz:SearchForm>"); sb.Append(" <Image height=\"16\" width=\"16\" type=\"image/x-icon\">http://" + domain + "/favicon.ico</Image>"); sb.Append("</OpenSearchDescription>"); cachedChan = sb.ToString(); context.Cache.Insert(domain + "_opensearchdescription", cachedChan, null, DateTime.Now.AddDays(14), TimeSpan.Zero); } context.Response.Write(cachedChan); }

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• What is the best practice for using lock within inherited classes

  - by JDMX

  I want to know if one class is inheriting from another, is it better to have the classes share a lock object that is defined at the base class or to have a lock object defined at each inheritance level. A very simple example of a lock object on each level of the class public class Foo { private object thisLock = new object(); private int ivalue; public int Value { get { lock( thisLock ) { return ivalue; } } set { lock( thisLock ) { ivalue= value; } } } } public class Foo2: Foo { private object thisLock2 = new object(); public int DoubleValue { get { lock( thisLock2 ) { return base.Value * 2; } } set { lock( thisLock2 ) { base.Value = value / 2; } } } } public class Foo6: Foo2 { private object thisLock6 = new object(); public int TripleDoubleValue { get { lock( thisLock6 ) { return base.DoubleValue * 3; } } set { lock( thisLock6 ) { base.DoubleValue = value / 3; } } } } A very simple example of a shared lock object public class Foo { protected object thisLock = new object(); private int ivalue; public int Value { get { lock( thisLock ) { return ivalue; } } set { lock( thisLock ) { ivalue= value; } } } } public class Foo2: Foo { public int DoubleValue { get { lock( thisLock ) { return base.Value * 2; } } set { lock( thisLock ) { base.Value = value / 2; } } } } public class Foo6: Foo2 { public int TripleDoubleValue { get { lock( thisLock ) { return base.DoubleValue * 3; } } set { lock( thisLock ) { base.DoubleValue = value / 3; } } } } Which example is the preferred way to manage locking within an inherited class?

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• Building Reducisaurus URLs

  - by Alix Axel

  I'm trying to use Reducisaurus Web Service to minify CSS and Javascript but I've run into a problem... Suppose I've two unminified CSS at: http:/domain.com/dynamic/styles/theme.php?color=red http:/domain.com/dynamic/styles/typography.php?font=Arial According to the docs I should call the web service like this: http:/reducisaurus.appspot.com/css?url=http:/domain.com/dynamic/styles/theme.php?color=red And if I want to minify both CSS files at once: http:/reducisaurus.appspot.com/css?url1=http:/domain.com/dynamic/styles/theme.php?color=red&url2=http:/domain.com/dynamic/styles/theme.php?color=red If I wanted to specify a different number of seconds for the cache (3600 for instance) I would use: http:/reducisaurus.appspot.com/css?url=http:/domain.com/dynamic/styles/theme.php?color=red&expire_urls=3600 And again for both CSS files at once: http:/reducisaurus.appspot.com/css?url1=http:/domain.com/dynamic/styles/theme.php?color=red&url2=http:/domain.com/dynamic/styles/theme.php?color=red&expire_urls=3600 Now my question is, how does Reducisaurus knows how to separate the URLs I want? How does it know that &expire_urls=3600 is not part of my URL? And how does it know that &url2=... is not a GET argument of url1? I'm I doing this right? Do I need to urlencode my URLs? I took a peek into the source code and although my Java is very poor it seems that the methods acquireFromRemoteUrl() and getSortedParameterNames() from the BaseServlet.java file hold the answers to my question - if a GET argument name contains - or _ they should be ignored?! What about multiple &url(n)s?

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• httpHandler - subfolder issue

  - by Patto

  Hi, I am trying to redirect my old typepad blog to my new blog (permanent 301 redirect) that runs with wordpress. The new blog will also be on a new server. the old Blog had the following structure: http://subdomain.domain.com/weblog/year/month/what-ever-article.html The new Blog looks like this: http://www.domain.com/Blog/year/month/what-ever-article.html I am using an http handler that I found online and tried to work with it: public class MyHttpModule :IHttpModule { public MyHttpModule() { // // TODO: Add constructor logic here // } #region IHttpModule Members public void Dispose() { } public void Init(HttpApplication context) { context.BeginRequest += new EventHandler(context_BeginRequest); } void context_BeginRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { string oldURL = System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Request.Url.ToString(); string newURL = String.Empty; //oldURL = if (oldURL.ToString().ToLower().IndexOf("articles") >= 0 || System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Request.Url.ToString().ToLower().IndexOf("weblog") >= 0) { newURL = oldURL.Replace("subdomain.domain.com/weblog", "www.domain.com/Blog/index.php"); if (newURL.ToLower().Contains("subdomain")) { newURL = "http://www.domain.com/Blog"; } } else { newURL = "http://www.domain.com/Blog"; } System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Response.Clear(); System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Response.StatusCode = 301; System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Response.AddHeader("Location", newURL); System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Response.End(); } #endregion } To use this code, I put the handler into the web.config <httpModules> <add name="MyHttpModule" type="MyHttpModule, App_Code"/> </httpModules> The issue that I have is that when I want to redirect from the http://subdomain.domain.com/weblog/year/month/what-ever-article.html, I get an error that the folder would not exist. Is there any way to change my script or add an catch all to the web.config that forwards the URL to my script? When I use "http://subdomain.domain.com/weblog/year/month/what-ever-article.html" in oldURL string, then the redirect works just fine... so I must have some IIS or web.config settings wrong. Thanks in advance, Patrick

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• Synchronizing Access to a member of the ASP.NET session

  - by Sam

  I'm building a Javascript application and eash user has an individual UserSession. The application makes a bunch of Ajax calls. Each Ajax call needs access to a single UserSession object for the user. Each Ajax call needs a UserSession object. Data in the UserSession object is unique to each user. Originally, during each Ajax call I would create a new UserSession object and it's data members were stored in the ASP.NET Session. However, I found that the UserSession object was being instantiated a lot. To minimize the construction of the UserSession object, I wrapped it in a Singleton pattern and sychronized access to it. I believe that the synchronization is happening application wide, however I only need it to happen per user. I saw a post here that says the ASP.NET cache is synchronized, however the time between creating the object and inserting it into the cache another Thread could start construction it's another object and insert it into the cache. Here is the way I'm currently synchronizing access to the object. Is there a better way than using "lock"... should be be locking on the HttpContext.Session object? private static object SessionLock = new object(); public static WebSession GetSession { get { lock (SessionLock) { try { var context = HttpContext.Current; WebSession result = null; if (context.Session["MySession"] == null) { result = new WebSession(context); context.Session["MySession"] = result; } else { result = (WebSession)context.Session["MySession"]; } return result; } catch (Exception ex) { ex.Handle(); return null; } } } }

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• Silverlight WinDg Memory Release Issue

  - by Chris Newton

  Hi, I have used WinDbg succesfully on a number of occasions to track down and fix memory leaks (or more accurately the CLRs inability to garbage collect a released object), but am stuck with one particular control. The control is displayed within a child window and when the window is closed a reference to the control remains and cannot be garbage collected. I have resolved what I believe to be the majority of the issues that could have caused the leak, but the !gcroot of the affected object is not clear (to me at least) as to what is still holding on to this object. The ouput is always the same regardless of the content being presented in the child window: DOMAIN(03FB7238):HANDLE(Pinned):79b12f8:Root: 06704260(System.Object[])- 05719f00(System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary2[[System.IntPtr, mscorlib],[System.Object, mscorlib]])-> 067c1310(System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary2+Entry[[System.IntPtr, mscorlib],[System.Object, mscorlib]][])- 064d42b0(System.Windows.Controls.Grid)- 064d4314(System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary2[[MS.Internal.IManagedPeerBase, System.Windows],[System.Object, mscorlib]])-> 064d4360(System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary2+Entry[[MS.Internal.IManagedPeerBase, System.Windows],[System.Object, mscorlib]][])- 064d3860(System.Windows.Controls.Border)- 064d4218(System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary2[[MS.Internal.IManagedPeerBase, System.Windows],[System.Object, mscorlib]])-> 064d4264(System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary2+Entry[[MS.Internal.IManagedPeerBase, System.Windows],[System.Object, mscorlib]][])- 064d3bfc(System.Windows.Controls.ContentPresenter)- 064d3d64(System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary2[[MS.Internal.IManagedPeerBase, System.Windows],[System.Object, mscorlib]])-> 064d3db0(System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary2+Entry[[MS.Internal.IManagedPeerBase, System.Windows],[System.Object, mscorlib]][])- 064d3dec(System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary2[[System.UInt32, mscorlib],[System.Windows.DependencyObject, System.Windows]])-> 064d3e38(System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary2+Entry[[System.UInt32, mscorlib],[System.Windows.DependencyObject, System.Windows]][])- 06490b04(Insurer.Analytics.SharedResources.Controls.HistoricalKPIViewerControl) If anyone has any ideas about what could potentially be the problem, or if you require more information, please let me know. Kind Regards, Chris

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• Why null reference exception in SetMolePublicInstance?

  - by OldGrantonian

  I get a "null reference" exception in the following line: MoleRuntime.SetMolePublicInstance(stub, receiverType, objReceiver, name, null); The program builds and compiles correctly. There are no complaints about any of the parameters to the method. Here's the specification of SetMolePublicInstance, from the object browser: SetMolePublicInstance(System.Delegate _stub, System.Type receiverType, object _receiver, string name, params System.Type[] parameterTypes) Here are the parameter values for "Locals": + stub {Method = {System.String <StaticMethodUnitTestWithDeq>b__0()}} System.Func<string> + receiverType {Name = "OrigValue" FullName = "OrigValueP.OrigValue"} System.Type {System.RuntimeType} objReceiver {OrigValueP.OrigValue} object {OrigValueP.OrigValue} name "TestString" string parameterTypes null object[] I know that TestString() takes no parameters and returns string, so as a starter to try to get things working, I specified "null" for the final parameter to SetMolePublicInstance. As already mentioned, this compiles OK. Here's the stack trace: Unhandled Exception: System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at Microsoft.ExtendedReflection.Collections.Indexable.ConvertAllToArray[TInput,TOutput](TInput[] array, Converter`2 converter) at Microsoft.Moles.Framework.Moles.MoleRuntime.SetMole(Delegate _stub, Type receiverType, Object _receiver, String name, MoleBindingFlags flags, Type[] parameterTypes) at Microsoft.Moles.Framework.Moles.MoleRuntime.SetMolePublicInstance(Delegate _stub, Type receiverType, Object _receiver, String name, Type[] parameterTypes) at DeqP.Deq.Replace[T](Func`1 stub, Type receiverType, Object objReceiver, String name) in C:\0VisProjects\DecP_04\DecP\DeqC.cs:line 38 at DeqPTest.DecCTest.StaticMethodUnitTestWithDeq() in C:\0VisProjects\DecP_04\DecPTest\DeqCTest.cs:line 28 at Starter.Start.Main(String[] args) in C:\0VisProjects\DecP_04\Starter\Starter.cs:line 14 Press any key to continue . . . To avoid the null parameter, I changed the final "null" to "parameterTypes" as in the following line: MoleRuntime.SetMolePublicInstance(stub, receiverType, objReceiver, name, parameterTypes); I then tried each of the following (before the line): int[] parameterTypes = null; // if this is null, I don't think the type will matter int[] parameterTypes = new int[0]; object[] parameterTypes = new object[0]; // this would allow for various parameter types All three attempts produce a red squiggly line under the entire line for SetMolePublicInstance Mouseover showed the following message: The best overloaded method match for 'Microsoft.Moles.Framework.Moles.MoleRuntime.SetMolePublicInstance(System.Delegate, System.Type, object, string, params System.Type[])' has some invalid arguments. I'm assuming that the first four arguments are OK, and that the problem is with the params array.

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• Uniq in awk; removing duplicate values in a column using awk

  - by D W

  I have a large datafile in the following format below: ENST00000371026 WDR78,WDR78,WDR78, WD repeat domain 78 isoform 1,WD repeat domain 78 isoform 1,WD repeat domain 78 isoform 2, ENST00000371023 WDR32 WD repeat domain 32 isoform 2 ENST00000400908 RERE,KIAA0458, atrophin-1 like protein isoform a,Homo sapiens mRNA for KIAA0458 protein, partial cds., The columns are tab separated. Multiple values within columns are comma separated. I would like to remove the duplicate values in the second column to result in something like this: ENST00000371026 WDR78 WD repeat domain 78 isoform 1,WD repeat domain 78 isoform 1,WD repeat domain 78 isoform 2, ENST00000371023 WDR32 WD repeat domain 32 isoform 2 ENST00000400908 RERE,KIAA0458 atrophin-1 like protein isoform a,Homo sapiens mRNA for KIAA0458 protein, partial cds., I tried the following code below but it doesn't seem to remove the duplicate values. awk ' BEGIN { FS="\t" } ; { split($2, valueArray,","); j=0; for (i in valueArray) { if (!( valueArray[i] in duplicateArray)) { duplicateArray[j] = valueArray[i]; j++; } }; printf $1 "\t"; for (j in duplicateArray) { if (duplicateArray[j]) { printf duplicateArray[j] ","; } } printf "\t"; print $3 }' knownGeneFromUCSC.txt How can I remove the duplicates in column 2 correctly?

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• .htaccess - alias all www-only requests to subdirectory

  - by CodeMoose

  Trying to install the wonderful Concrete5 CMS to use as my main site engine - the problem is it has about 15 different files and directories, and they clutter up my root. I'd really like to move it to a /_concrete/ subdirectory, and still maintain it in the domain root. htaccess has never been my strong suit - after a lot of research and learning, and a lot of error 500s, my frustration is overriding my pride and I'm posting here. Here's exactly what I'm trying to accomplish: Any requests that come through www.domain.com are forwarded to www.domain.com/_concrete/, except in the case of an existing file. The end-user URL shouldn't change - they will still see the site as www.domain.com, even though they're being served www.domain.com/_concrete/. Multiple subdomains exist on this site as sub-folders within the root - thus, only requests coming through www.domain.com should be redirected. Here's the closest I got with my htaccess, which produces an error 500: RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^(www\.)?domain\.com [NC] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !^_concrete RewriteRule ^(.*)$ _concrete/$1 [L,QSA] This is the result of 4 hours of sweat and blood (mostly blood), so I have to be close. I'm hoping one of your fine minds can point out a stupid mistake and put this thing to rest swiftly. Thanks for your time! Addendum: I previously posted .htaccess - alias domain root to subfolder a while ago, which got me started. Please don't fall into the trap of thinking it's a duplicate.

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• Query to bring count from comma seperated Value

  - by Mugil

  I have Two Tables One for Storing Products and Other for Storing Orders List. CREATE TABLE ProductsList(ProductId INT NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY, ProductName VARCHAR(50)) INSERT INTO ProductsList(ProductId, ProductName) VALUES(1,'Product A'), (2,'Product B'), (3,'Product C'), (4,'Product D'), (5,'Product E'), (6,'Product F'), (7,'Product G'), (8,'Product H'), (9,'Product I'), (10,'Product J'); CREATE TABLE OrderList(OrderId INT NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY AUTO_INCREMENT, EmailId VARCHAR(50), CSVProductIds VARCHAR(50)) SELECT * FROM OrderList INSERT INTO OrderList(EmailId, CSVProductIds) VALUES('[email protected]', '2,4,1,5,7'), ('[email protected]', '5,7,4'), ('[email protected]', '2'), ('[email protected]', '8,9'), ('[email protected]', '4,5,9'), ('[email protected]', '1,2,3'), ('[email protected]', '9,10'), ('[email protected]', '1,5'); Output ItemName NoOfOrders Product A 4 Product B 3 Product C 1 Product D 3 Product E 4 Product F 0 Product G 2 Product H 1 Product I 2 Product J 1 The Order List Stores the ItemsId as Comma separated value for every customer who places order.Like this i am having more than 40k Records in my dB table Now I am assigned with a task of creating report in which I should display Items and No of People ordered Items as Shown Below I Used Query as below in my PHP to bring the Orders One By One and storing in array. SELECT COUNT(PL.EmailId) FROM OrderList PL WHERE CSVProductIds LIKE '2' OR CSVProductIds LIKE '%,2,%' OR CSVProductIds LIKE '%,2' OR CSVProductIds LIKE '2,%'; 1.Is it possible to get the same out put by using Single Query 2.Does using a like in mysql query slows down the dB when the table has more no of records i.e 40k rows

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