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  • How to pass the 'argument-line' of one PowerShell function to another?

    - by jwfearn
    I'm trying to write some PowerShell functions that do some stuff and then transparently call through to existing built-in function. I want to pass along all the arguments untouched. I don't want to have to know any details of the arguments. I tired using 'splat' to do this with @args but that didn't work as I expected. In the example below, I've written a toy function called myls which supposed to print hello! and then call the same built-in function, Get-ChildItem, that the built-in alias ls calls with the rest of the argument line intact. What I have so far works pretty well: function myls { Write-Output "hello!" Invoke-Expression("Get-ChildItem "+$MyInvocation.UnboundArguments -join " ") } A correct version of myls should be able to handle being called with no arguments, with one argument, with named arguments, from a line containing multiple semi-colon delimited commands, and with variables in the arguments including string variables containing spaces. The tests below compare myls and the builtin ls: [NOTE: output elided and/or compacted to save space] PS> md C:\p\d\x, C:\p\d\y, C:\p\d\"jay z" PS> cd C:\p\d PS> ls # no args PS> myls # pass PS> cd .. PS> ls d # one arg PS> myls d # pass PS> $a="A"; $z="Z"; $y="y"; $jz="jay z" PS> $a; ls d; $z # multiple statements PS> $a; myls d; $z # pass PS> $a; ls d -Exclude x; $z # named args PS> $a; myls d -Exclude x; $z # pass PS> $a; ls d -Exclude $y; $z # variables in arg-line PS> $a; myls d -Exclude $y; $z # pass PS> $a; ls d -Exclude $jz; $z # variables containing spaces in arg-line PS> $a; myls d -Exclude $jz; $z # FAIL! Is there a way I can re-write myls to get the behavior I want?

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  • Fragment not showing up and breaks other buttons on Layout

    - by Devin Crane
    I'm learning how to use Fragments, and trying to add a fragment tag_button.xml at runtime to a FrameLayout tagFragmentContainer deep within another layout, deepLayout.xml. I get no errors, but the fragment doesn't show up. When I make its container visible, I can see a small sliver of layout between the other elements already existing, but then it disappears after onCreateView(), and all the remaining buttons are broken, which is even more confusing to me. tag_button.xml is just a regular layout file with some text and a button. tagFragmentContainer, within a LinearLayout in the middle of a large layout file, deepLayout.xml: <LinearLayout android:id="@+id/tagButtonsLayout" android:layout_marginBottom="10dip" android:visibility="gone" style="@style/Form"> <FrameLayout android:id="@+id/tagFragmentContainer" android:layout_marginBottom="10dip" style="@style/Form"> </FrameLayout> </LinearLayout> In deepLayoutActivity, I make visible tagButtonsLayout and start TagButtonActivity: final LinearLayout anotherlm = (LinearLayout) findViewById(R.id.tagButtonsLayout); anotherlm.setVisibility(View.VISIBLE); Intent i = new Intent (this, TagButtonActivity.class); startActivity(i); TagButtonActivity is as follows: public class TagButtonActivity extends FragmentActivity { @Override protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.action_expense); if (savedInstanceState != null) return; TagButtonFragment firstFragment = new TagButtonFragment(); getSupportFragmentManager().beginTransaction().add(R.id.tagFragmentContainer, firstFragment, "tagOne").commit(); } } TagButtonFragment: public class TagButtonFragment extends Fragment { @Override public View onCreateView(LayoutInflater inflater, ViewGroup container, Bundle savedInstanceState) { // Inflate the layout for this fragment return inflater.inflate(R.layout.tag_button, container, false); } } tag_button.xml: <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" style="@style/Form"> <TextView android:id="@+id/tag_button_header" style="@style/FieldHeader" android:text="example text"/> <RelativeLayout android:id="@+id/tag_button_block" android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_marginLeft="2dip" android:layout_marginTop="3dip" android:layout_marginBottom="3dip" android:layout_marginRight="2dip" android:layout_height="43dip" android:clickable="true" android:background="@drawable/row_spinner_selector"> <ImageView android:id="@+id/question_arrow" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_marginLeft="10dip" android:layout_marginRight="10dip" android:layout_alignParentRight="true" android:layout_centerVertical="true" android:src="@drawable/arrow_right"/> <TextView android:id="@+id/tag_question_text" android:layout_toLeftOf="@id/question_arrow" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_marginLeft="10dip" android:layout_centerVertical="true" android:textColor="@android:color/black" android:singleLine="true" android:ellipsize="end" android:textSize="15sp" android:text="@string/not_selected"/> </RelativeLayout> </LinearLayout> I would certainly appreciate any help in figuring this out from someone who knows fragments better than me! Thanks!

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  • System architecture: simple approach for setting up background tasks behind a web application -- wil

    - by Tim Molendijk
    I have a Django web application and I have some tasks that should operate (or actually: be initiated) on the background. The application is deployed as follows: apache2-mpm-worker; mod_wsgi in daemon mode (1 process, 15 threads). The background tasks have the following characteristics: they need to operate in a regular interval (every 5 minutes or so); they require the application context (i.e. the application packages need to be available in memory); they do not need any input other than database access, in order to perform some not-so-heavy tasks such as sending out e-mail and updating the state of the database. Now I was thinking that the most simple approach to this problem would be simply to piggyback on the existing application process (as spawned by mod_wsgi). By implementing the task as part of the application and providing an HTTP interface for it, I would prevent the overhead of another process that is holding all of the application into memory. A simple cronjob can be setup that sends a request to this HTTP interface every 5 minutes and that would be it. Since the application process provides 15 threads and the tasks are quite lightweight and only running every 5 minutes, I figure they would not be hindering the performance of the web application's user-facing operations. Yet... I have done some online research and I have seen nobody advocating this approach. Many articles suggest a significantly more complex approach based on a full-blown messaging component (such as Celery, which uses RabbitMQ). Although that's sexy, it sounds like overkill to me. Some articles suggest setting up a cronjob that executes a script which performs the tasks. But that doesn't feel very attractive either, as it results in creating a new process that loads the entire application into memory, performs some tiny task, and destroys the process again. And this is repeated every 5 minutes. Does not sound like an elegant solution. So, I'm looking for some feedback on my suggested approach as described in the paragraph before the preceeding paragraph. Is my reasoning correct? Am I overlooking (potential) problems? What about my assumption that application's performance will not be impeded?

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  • Determine the 'Overtype' mode using Javascript

    - by Snorkpete
    We are creating a web app to replace an old-school green-screen application. In the green-screen app, as the user presses the Insert key to switch between overtype and insert modes, the cursor changes to indicate which input mode the user is currently in. In IE (which is the official browser of the company), overtype mode also works, but there's no visual indication as to whether overtype mode is on or not, until the user starts typing and possibly over-writes existing information unexpectedly. I'd like to put some sort of visual indicator on the screen if in overtype mode. How can you determine if the browser is in 'overtype mode' from Javascript? Is there some property or function i can query to determine if the browser is in overtype mode? Even an IE-specific solution would be helpful, since our corporate policy dictates the browser to use as IE7 (pure torture, btw). (I do know that one solution is to do check for key presses of the Insert key. However, it's a solution that I'd prefer to avoid since that method seems a bit flaky & error-prone because I can't guarantee what mode the user would be in BEFORE he/she hits my page. ) The reasoning behind this question: The functionality of this portion of the green-screen app is such that the user can select from a list of 'preformatted bodies of text'. crude eg. The excess for this policy is: $xxxxxx and max limit is:$xxxxxx Date of policy is: xx/xx/xxxx and expires : xx/xx/xxxx Some other irrelevant text After selecting this 'preformatted text', the user would then use overtype to replace the x's with actual values, without disturbing the alignment of the rest of the text. (To be clear, they can still edit any part of the 'preformatted text' if they so wished. It's just that usually, they just wish to replace specific portions of the text. Keeping the alignment is important since these sections of text can end up on printed documents.) Of course, the same effect can be achieved by just selecting the x's to replace first, but it would be helpful (with respect to easing the transition to the web app) to allow old methods of doing things to continue to work, while still allowing 'web methods' to be used by the more tech-savvy users. Essentially, we're trying to make the initial transition from the green-screen app to the web app be as seemless as possible to minimise the resistance from the long-time green-screeners.

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  • Using OpenID as the only authentication method

    - by iconiK
    I have read the other questions and they mostly talk about the security of doing so. That's not entirely my concern, mostly because the website is question is a browser-based game. However, the larger issue is the user - not every user is literate enough to understand OpenID. Sure RPX makes this pretty easy, which is what I'll use, but what if the user does not have an account at Google or Facebook or whatever, or does not trust the system to log in with an existing account? They'd have to get an account at another provide - I'm sure most will know how to do it, let alone be bothered to do it. There is also the problem of how to manage it in the application. A user might want to use multiple identities with a single account, so it's not as simple as username + password to deal with. How do I store the OpenID identities of a user in the database? Using OpenID gives me a benefit too: RPX can provide extensive profile information, so I can just prefill the profile form and ask the user to edit as required. I currently have this: UserID Email ------ --------------- 86000 [email protected] 86001 [email protected] UserOpenID OpenID ---------- ------ 86000 16733 86001 16839 86002 19361 OpenID Provider Identifier ------ -------- ---------------- 16733 Yahoo https:\\me.yahoo.com\bob#d36bd 16839 Yahoo https:\\me.yahoo.com\bigbobby#x75af 19361 Yahoo https:\\me.yahoo.com\alice#c19fd Is that the right way to store OpenID identifiers in the database? How would I match the identifier RPX gave me with one in the database to log in the user (if the identifier is known). So here are concrete questions: How would I make it accessible to users not having an OpenID or not wanting to use one? (security concerns over say, logging in with their Google account for example) How do I store the identifier in the database? (I'm not sure if the tables above are right) What measures do I need to take in order to prevent someone from logging in as another user and happily doing anything with their account? (as I understand RPX sends the identifier via HTTP, so what anyone would have to do is to just somehow grab it then enter it in the "OpenID" field) What else do I need to be aware of when using OpenID?

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  • Asp.net hosting equivalent of Dreamhost (pricing, features and support)

    - by Cherian
    Disclaimer: I have browsed http://stackoverflow.com/questions/tagged/asp.net+hosting and didn’t find anything quite similar in value to Dreamhost. One of the biggest impediments IMHO for developing web applications on asp.net is the cost of deployment. I am not talking about building sites like Stackoverflow.com or plentyoffish.com. This is about sites that are bigger than brochureware and smaller than ones that require dedicated servers. Let me give you an example. xmec.org is an asp.net site I maintain for my college alumni. On an average it’s slated to hit around 1000-1100 views per day. At present it’s hosted on godaddy. The service is so damn pathetic; I am using it only because of the lack of options. The site doesn’t scale (no, it’s not the code) and the web control panels are extremely slow. The money I pay doesn’t justify the service or the performance. Every deployment push is a visit to the infuriating web control panel to set the permissions and the root directories. Had I developed it in python, this would have been deployed on Dreamhost.com with $10/year hosting fees (they have offers running all throughout) 50 GB space 5 MySQL Databases Shell / FTP Users POP / SMTP Access Unlimited Domains hosting Unlimited Sub domains hosting Unlimited Domains Forwarded/Mirrored Custom DNS (These are the only ones I could think of. More at the feature page) With a dream host shell, I even have a svn checked-out version of wordpress for my blog. Now, that’s control! To my question: Is there any asp.net (preferably .net 3.5. Dreamhost keeps on updating versions every fortnight) hosting company providing remotely similar feature-sets and pricing like Dreamhost. My requirements are: Less than $15-25/ year Typical WISP minus PHP .net 3.5 SP1 Full Trust mode(I can live with medium trust, if not for the IL emitting libraries) Isolated Application Pool 5 – 10 MySQL db’s Unlimited domain hosting MsSql 2005 or 2008 FTP support At Least 5 GB space SMTP IIS 7 Log files Accessibility Moderately good control panel Scripting, shell support Nominal bandwidth Another case in point: Recently I’ve been contemplating building a tool-website to find duplicates and weird characters in my Google contacts and fix them. With asp.net, the best part is that I can do this with LINQ to XML in less than 100 lines of code. What’s bad is the hosting part. I don’t think I stand to make any money out of this and therefore can’t afford to host it on GoGrid or DiscountAsp.net. Godaddy is not an option either. If I do this in python, I can push to this my existing $10 Dreamhost account with another domain pointed. No extra cost. Svn exported with scripts (capability) to change the connection string! Looking at the problem holistically, I think I represent a large breed of programmers playing it cheap and experimenting different things on a regular basis, one of which will become the next twitter/digg.

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  • Where to put a glossary of important terms and patterns in documentation?

    - by Tetha
    Greetings. I want to document certain patterns in the code in order to build up a consistent terminology (in order to easen communication about the software). I am, however, unsure, where to define the terms given. In order to get on the same level, an example: I have a code generator. This code generator receives a certain InputStructure from the Parser (yes, the name InputStructure might be less than ideal). This InputStructure is then transformed into various subsequent datastructures (like an abstract description of the validation process). Each of these datastructures can be either transformed into another value of the same datastructure or it can be transformed into the next datastructure. This should sound like Pipes and Filters to some degree. Given this, I call an operation which takes a datastructures and constructs a value of the same datastructure a transformation, while I call an operation which takes a datastructure and produces a different follow-up datastructure a derivation. The final step of deriving a string containing code is called emitting. (So, overall, the codegenerator takes the input-structure and transforms, transforms, derives, transforms, derives and finally emits). I think emphasizing these terms will be benefitial in communications, because then it is easy to talk about things. If you hear "transformation", you know "Ok, I only need to think about these two datastructures", if you hear "emitting", you know "Ok, I only need to know this datastructure and the target language.". However, where do I document these patterns? The current code base uses visitors and offers classes called like ValidatorTransformationBase<ResultType> (or InputStructureTransformationBase<ResultType>, and so one and so on). I do not really want to add the definition of such terms to the interfaces, because in that case, I'd have to repeat myself on each and every interface, which clearly violates DRY. I am considering to emphasize the distinction between Transformations and Derivations by adding further interfaces (I would have to think about a better name for the TransformationBase-classes, but then I could do thinks like ValidatorTransformation extends ValidatorTransformationBase<Validator>, or ValidatorDerivationFromInputStructure extends InputStructureTransformation<Validator>). I also think I should add a custom page to the doxygen documentation already existing, as in "Glossary" or "Architecture Principles", which contains such principles. The only disadvantage of this would be that a contributor will need to find this page in order to actually learn about this. Am I missing possibilities or am I judging something wrong here in your opinion? -- Regards, Tetha

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  • Javascript childNodes does not find all children of a div when appendchild has been used

    - by yesterdayze
    Alright, I am hoping someone can help me out. I apologize up front that this one may be confusing. I have included an example to try to help ease the confusion as this is better seen then heard. I have created a webpage that contains a group or set of groups. Each group has a subgroup. In a nutshell what is happening is this page will allow me to combine multiple groups containing subgroups into a new group. The page will give the chance to rename the old subgroups before they are combined into new groups in order to avoid confusion. When a group is renamed it will check to make sure there is not already a group with that name. If there is it will copy itself out of it's own group and into that group and then delete the original. If the group does not already exist it will create that group, copy itself in and then delete the original. Subgroups can also be renamed at which point they will move into the group with the same name if it exists, or create a new one if it doesn't. The page has a main div. The main div contains 'new sub group' divs. Inside each of those is another div containing the 'old sub group' divs. I use a loop through the child nodes of the 'new sub group' div when renaming a group in order to find each child node. These are then copied into a new div within the main div. The crux of the problem is this. If I loop through a DIV and copy all of the DIVs in it into a new or existing DIV all is well. When I then try to take that DIV and copy all of it's DIVs into another or new DIV it always skips one of the moved DIVs. For simplicity I have copied the entire working code below. To recreate the issue click the spot where the image should appear next to the name ewrewrwe and rename it to something else. All is well. Now click that new group the same way and name it something else. You will see it skip one each time. I have linked the page here: http://vtbikenight.com/test.html The link is clean, it is my personal website I use for a local motorycle group I am part of. Thanks for the help everyone!!! Please let me know if I can clarify on anything. I know the code is not the best right now, it is just demo code and my intent is to get the concept working then streamline it all.

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  • Tree Node Checked behavior on a TreeView in Compact Framework 3.5 running on Windows Mobile 6.5

    - by Hydroslide
    I have been upgrading an existing .NET Windows Mobile application to use the 3.5 version of the compact framework and to run on Windows Mobile 6.5. I have a form with a TreeView. The TreeView.Checkboxes property is set to true so that each node has a check box. This gives no trouble in all previous versions of Windows Mobile. However, in version 6.5 when you click on a check box it appears to check and then uncheck instantaneously. But it only raises the AfterCheck event once. The only way I can get a check to stick is by double clicking it (which is the wrong behavior). Has anyone seen this behavior? Does anyone know of a workaround for it? I have included a simple test form. Dump this form into a Visual Studio 2008 Smart Device application targeted at Windows Mobile 6 to see what I mean. Public Class frmTree Inherits System.Windows.Forms.Form #Region " Windows Form Designer generated code " Public Sub New() MyBase.new() ' This call is required by the Windows Form Designer. InitializeComponent() ' Add any initialization after the InitializeComponent() call. End Sub 'Form overrides dispose to clean up the component list. <System.Diagnostics.DebuggerNonUserCode()> _ Protected Overrides Sub Dispose(ByVal disposing As Boolean) If disposing AndAlso components IsNot Nothing Then components.Dispose() End If MyBase.Dispose(disposing) End Sub 'Required by the Windows Form Designer Private components As System.ComponentModel.IContainer Friend WithEvents TreeView1 As System.Windows.Forms.TreeView Private mainMenu1 As System.Windows.Forms.MainMenu 'NOTE: The following procedure is required by the Windows Form Designer 'It can be modified using the Windows Form Designer. 'Do not modify it using the code editor. <System.Diagnostics.DebuggerStepThrough()> _ Private Sub InitializeComponent() Dim TreeNode1 As System.Windows.Forms.TreeNode = New System.Windows.Forms.TreeNode("Node0") Dim TreeNode2 As System.Windows.Forms.TreeNode = New System.Windows.Forms.TreeNode("Node2") Dim TreeNode3 As System.Windows.Forms.TreeNode = New System.Windows.Forms.TreeNode("Node3") Dim TreeNode4 As System.Windows.Forms.TreeNode = New System.Windows.Forms.TreeNode("Node4") Dim TreeNode5 As System.Windows.Forms.TreeNode = New System.Windows.Forms.TreeNode("Node1") Dim TreeNode6 As System.Windows.Forms.TreeNode = New System.Windows.Forms.TreeNode("Node5") Dim TreeNode7 As System.Windows.Forms.TreeNode = New System.Windows.Forms.TreeNode("Node6") Dim TreeNode8 As System.Windows.Forms.TreeNode = New System.Windows.Forms.TreeNode("Node7") Me.mainMenu1 = New System.Windows.Forms.MainMenu Me.TreeView1 = New System.Windows.Forms.TreeView Me.SuspendLayout() ' 'TreeView1 ' Me.TreeView1.CheckBoxes = True Me.TreeView1.Location = New System.Drawing.Point(37, 41) Me.TreeView1.Name = "TreeView1" TreeNode2.Text = "Node2" TreeNode3.Text = "Node3" TreeNode4.Text = "Node4" TreeNode1.Nodes.AddRange(New System.Windows.Forms.TreeNode() {TreeNode2, TreeNode3, TreeNode4}) TreeNode1.Text = "Node0" TreeNode6.Text = "Node5" TreeNode7.Text = "Node6" TreeNode8.Text = "Node7" TreeNode5.Nodes.AddRange(New System.Windows.Forms.TreeNode() {TreeNode6, TreeNode7, TreeNode8}) TreeNode5.Text = "Node1" Me.TreeView1.Nodes.AddRange(New System.Windows.Forms.TreeNode() {TreeNode1, TreeNode5}) Me.TreeView1.Size = New System.Drawing.Size(171, 179) Me.TreeView1.TabIndex = 0 ' 'frmTree ' Me.AutoScaleDimensions = New System.Drawing.SizeF(96.0!, 96.0!) Me.AutoScaleMode = System.Windows.Forms.AutoScaleMode.Dpi Me.AutoScroll = True Me.ClientSize = New System.Drawing.Size(240, 268) Me.Controls.Add(Me.TreeView1) Me.Menu = Me.mainMenu1 Me.Name = "frmTree" Me.Text = "frmTree" Me.ResumeLayout(False) End Sub #End Region End Class

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  • hibernate column uniqueness question

    - by Seth
    I'm still in the process of learning hibernate/hql and I have a question that's half best practices question/half sanity check. Let's say I have a class A: @Entity public class A { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy=GenerationType.AUTO) private Long id; @Column(unique=true) private String name = ""; //getters, setters, etc. omitted for brevity } I want to enforce that every instance of A that gets saved has a unique name (hence the @Column annotation), but I also want to be able to handle the case where there's already an A instance saved that has that name. I see two ways of doing this: 1) I can catch the org.hibernate.exception.ConstraintViolationException that could be thrown during the session.saveOrUpdate() call and try to handle it. 2) I can query for existing instances of A that already have that name in the DAO before calling session.saveOrUpdate(). Right now I'm leaning towards approach 2, because in approach 1 I don't know how to programmatically figure out which constraint was violated (there are a couple of other unique members in A). Right now my DAO.save() code looks roughly like this: public void save(A a) throws DataAccessException, NonUniqueNameException { Session session = sessionFactory.getCurrentSession(); try { session.beginTransaction(); Query query = null; //if id isn't null, make sure we don't count this object as a duplicate if(obj.getId() == null) { query = session.createQuery("select count(a) from A a where a.name = :name").setParameter("name", obj.getName()); } else { query = session.createQuery("select count(a) from A a where a.name = :name " + "and a.id != :id").setParameter("name", obj.getName()).setParameter("name", obj.getName()); } Long numNameDuplicates = (Long)query.uniqueResult(); if(numNameDuplicates > 0) throw new NonUniqueNameException(); session.saveOrUpdate(a); session.getTransaction().commit(); } catch(RuntimeException e) { session.getTransaction().rollback(); throw new DataAccessException(e); //my own class } } Am I going about this in the right way? Can hibernate tell me programmatically (i.e. not as an error string) which value is violating the uniqueness constraint? By separating the query from the commit, am I inviting thread-safety errors, or am I safe? How is this usually done? Thanks!

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  • Is it possible to change HANDLE that has been opened for synchronous I/O to be opened for asynchrono

    - by Martin Dobšík
    Dear all, Most of my daily programming work in Windows is nowadays around I/O operations of all kind (pipes, consoles, files, sockets, ...). I am well aware of different methods of reading and writing from/to different kinds of handles (Synchronous, asynchronous waiting for completion on events, waiting on file HANDLEs, I/O completion ports, and alertable I/O). We use many of those. For some of our applications it would be very useful to have only one way to treat all handles. I mean, the program may not know, what kind of handle it has received and we would like to use, let's say, I/O completion ports for all. So first I would ask: Let's assume I have a handle: HANDLE h; which has been received by my process for I/O from somewhere. Is there any easy and reliable way to find out what flags it has been created with? The main flag in question is FILE_FLAG_OVERLAPPED. The only way known to me so far, is to try to register such handle into I/O completion port (using CreateIoCompletionPort()). If that succeeds the handle has been created with FILE_FLAG_OVERLAPPED. But then only I/O completion port must be used, as the handle can not be unregistered from it without closing the HANDLE h itself. Providing there is an easy a way to determine presence of FILE_FLAG_OVERLAPPED, there would come my second question: Is there any way how to add such flag to already existing handle? That would make a handle that has been originally open for synchronous operations to be open for asynchronous. Would there be a way how to create opposite (remove the FILE_FLAG_OVERLAPPED to create synchronous handle from asynchronous)? I have not found any direct way after reading through MSDN and googling a lot. Would there be at least some trick that could do the same? Like re-creating the handle in same way using CreateFile() function or something similar? Something even partly documented or not documented at all? The main place where I would need this, is to determine the the way (or change the way) process should read/write from handles sent to it by third party applications. We can not control how third party products create their handles. Dear Windows gurus: help please! With regards Martin

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  • Spring transaction demarcation causes new Hibernate session despite use of OSIV

    - by Kelly Ellis
    I'm using Hibernate with OpenSessionInViewInterceptor so that a single Hibernate session will be used for the entire HTTP request (or so I wish). The problem is that Spring-configured transaction boundaries are causing a new session to be created, so I'm running into the following problem (pseudocode): Start in method marked @Transactional(propagation = Propagation.SUPPORTS, readOnly = false) Hibernate session #1 starts Call DAO method to update object foo; foo gets loaded into session cache for session #1 Call another method to update foo.bar, this one is marked @Transactional(propagation = Propagation.REQUIRED, readOnly = false) Transaction demarcation causes suspension of current transaction synchronization, which temporarily unbinds the current Hibernate session Hibernate session #2 starts since there's no currently-existing session Update field bar on foo (loading foo into session cache #2); persist to DB Transaction completes and method returns, session #1 resumes Call yet another method to update another field on foo Load foo from session cache #1, with old, incorrect value of bar Update field foo.baz, persist foo to DB foo.bar's old value overwrites the change we made in the previous step Configuration looks like: <bean name="openSessionInViewInterceptor" class="org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.support.OpenSessionInViewInterceptor" autowire="byName"> <property name="flushModeName"> <value>FLUSH_AUTO</value> </property> </bean> <bean id="txManager" class="org.springframework.jdbc.datasource.DataSourceTransactionManager"> <property name="dataSource" ref="myDataSource" /> </bean> <bean id="sessionFactory" class="org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.LocalSessionFactoryBean"> <property name="useTransactionAwareDataSource" value="true" /> <property name="mappingLocations"> <list> <value>/WEB-INF/xml/hibernate/content.hbm.xml</value> </list> </property> <property name="lobHandler"> <ref local="oracleLobHandler" /> </property> <!--property name="entityInterceptor" ref="auditLogInterceptor" /--> <property name="hibernateProperties" ref="HibernateProperties" /> <property name="dataSource" ref="myDataSource" /> </bean> I've done some debugging and figured out exactly where this is happening, here is the stack trace: Daemon Thread [http-8080-1] (Suspended (entry into method doUnbindResource in TransactionSynchronizationManager)) TransactionSynchronizationManager.doUnbindResource(Object) line: 222 TransactionSynchronizationManager.unbindResource(Object) line: 200 SpringSessionSynchronization.suspend() line: 115 DataSourceTransactionManager(AbstractPlatformTransactionManager).doSuspendSynchronization() line: 620 DataSourceTransactionManager(AbstractPlatformTransactionManager).suspend(Object) line: 549 DataSourceTransactionManager(AbstractPlatformTransactionManager).getTransaction(TransactionDefinition) line: 372 TransactionInterceptor(TransactionAspectSupport).createTransactionIfNecessary(TransactionAttribute, String) line: 263 TransactionInterceptor.invoke(MethodInvocation) line: 101 ReflectiveMethodInvocation.proceed() line: 171 JdkDynamicAopProxy.invoke(Object, Method, Object[]) line: 204 $Proxy14.changeVisibility(Long, ContentStatusVO, ContentAuditData) line: not available I can't figure out why transaction boundaries (even "nested" ones - though here we're just moving from SUPPORTS to REQUIRED) would cause the Hibernate session to be suspended, even though OpenSessionInViewInterceptor is in use. When the session is unbound, I see the following in my logs: [2010-02-16 18:20:59,150] DEBUG org.springframework.transaction.support.TransactionSynchronizationManager Removed value [org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.SessionHolder@7def534e] for key [org.hibernate.impl.SessionFactoryImpl@693f23a2] from thread [http-8080-1]

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  • Parse XML and populate in List Box

    - by cedar715
    I've posted the same question here and I've also got couple of good answers as well. While I was trying the same answers, I was getting compilation errors. Later I got to know that we are using .NET 2.0 and our existing application has no references to LINQ files. After searching in SO, i tried to figured out partly: public partial class Item { public object CHK { get; set; } public int SEL { get; set; } public string VALUE { get; set; } } Parsing: XmlDocument doc = new XmlDocument(); doc.LoadXml("<LISTBOX_ST> <item><CHK></CHK><SEL>00001</SEL><VALUE>val01</VALUE></item> <item><CHK></CHK><SEL>00002</SEL><VALUE>val02</VALUE></item> <item><CHK></CHK><SEL>00003</SEL><VALUE>val03</VALUE></item> <item><CHK></CHK><SEL>00004</SEL><VALUE>val04</VALUE></item> <item><CHK></CHK><SEL>00005</SEL><VALUE>val05</VALUE></item> </LISTBOX_ST>"); List<Item> _lbList = new List<Item>(); foreach (XmlNode node in doc.DocumentElement.ChildNodes) { string text = node.InnerText; //or loop through its children as well //HOW - TO - POPULATE THE ITEM OBJECT ?????? } listBox1.DataSource = _lbList; listBox1.DisplayMember = "VALUE"; listBox1.ValueMember = "SEL"; How to read two child nodes - SEL and VALUE of node and populate the same in the new Item DTO??

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  • N2 CMS SlidingCurtain control is not visible

    - by Carl Raymond
    I just set up a new N2 site by starting with the MVC 2 Web Application template in Visual Studio, then following the directions in N2 CMS Developer Documentation in the section Integrating with Existing ASP.NET MVC Application. I have the basic site running now, but with one problem: the sliding curtain widget that holds the administrative controls is not visible in the upper right corner (when logged in, of course). I can make it visible the hard way by using Firebug to locate it in the DOM, and then disabling a couple of the CSS positioning elements. Once I do that, it seems to work normally. After I open it that way, I can click the various controls, or close it up (and I see the animation). But then it's off screen again. My master page has the sliding curtain just inside the <body> tag: <body> <n2:SlidingCurtain runat="server"> <n2:ControlPanel runat="server" /> </n2:SlidingCurtain> ... The site.css file generated in the base MVC site doesn't seem to do any positioning that would affect this. Firebug shows that right after by <body> tag, I have this: <div class="sc" id="SC" style="top: -2px; left: -574px;"><div class="scContent"> .... The style for <div class="sc" ...> is element.style { left:-574px; top:-2px; } .sc { background:#FFFFFF none repeat-x scroll 0 0; border-color:#CCCCBB; border-style:none solid solid none; border-width:1px; left:-200px; position:fixed; top:-200px; z-index:990; } If I disable both top: and both left: rules, the widget appears.

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  • Drawing a texture with an alpha channel doesn't work -- draws black

    - by DevDevDev
    I am modifying GLPaint to use a different background, so in this case it is white. Anyway the existing stamp they are using assumes the background is black, so I made a new background with an alpha channel. When I draw on the canvas it is still black, what gives? When I actually draw, I just bind the texture and it works. Something is wrong in this initialization. Here is the photo - (id)initWithCoder:(NSCoder*)coder { CGImageRef brushImage; CGContextRef brushContext; GLubyte *brushData; size_t width, height; if (self = [super initWithCoder:coder]) { CAEAGLLayer *eaglLayer = (CAEAGLLayer *)self.layer; eaglLayer.opaque = YES; // In this application, we want to retain the EAGLDrawable contents after a call to presentRenderbuffer. eaglLayer.drawableProperties = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: [NSNumber numberWithBool:YES], kEAGLDrawablePropertyRetainedBacking, kEAGLColorFormatRGBA8, kEAGLDrawablePropertyColorFormat, nil]; context = [[EAGLContext alloc] initWithAPI:kEAGLRenderingAPIOpenGLES1]; if (!context || ![EAGLContext setCurrentContext:context]) { [self release]; return nil; } // Create a texture from an image // First create a UIImage object from the data in a image file, and then extract the Core Graphics image brushImage = [UIImage imageNamed:@"test.png"].CGImage; // Get the width and height of the image width = CGImageGetWidth(brushImage); height = CGImageGetHeight(brushImage); // Texture dimensions must be a power of 2. If you write an application that allows users to supply an image, // you'll want to add code that checks the dimensions and takes appropriate action if they are not a power of 2. // Make sure the image exists if(brushImage) { brushData = (GLubyte *) calloc(width * height * 4, sizeof(GLubyte)); brushContext = CGBitmapContextCreate(brushData, width, width, 8, width * 4, CGImageGetColorSpace(brushImage), kCGImageAlphaPremultipliedLast); CGContextDrawImage(brushContext, CGRectMake(0.0, 0.0, (CGFloat)width, (CGFloat)height), brushImage); CGContextRelease(brushContext); glGenTextures(1, &brushTexture); glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D, brushTexture); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_MIN_FILTER, GL_LINEAR); glTexImage2D(GL_TEXTURE_2D, 0, GL_RGBA, width, height, 0, GL_RGBA, GL_UNSIGNED_BYTE, brushData); free(brushData); } //Set up OpenGL states glMatrixMode(GL_PROJECTION); CGRect frame = self.bounds; glOrthof(0, frame.size.width, 0, frame.size.height, -1, 1); glViewport(0, 0, frame.size.width, frame.size.height); glMatrixMode(GL_MODELVIEW); glDisable(GL_DITHER); glEnable(GL_TEXTURE_2D); glEnable(GL_BLEND); glBlendFunc(GL_SRC_ALPHA, GL_ONE_MINUS_DST_ALPHA); glEnable(GL_POINT_SPRITE_OES); glTexEnvf(GL_POINT_SPRITE_OES, GL_COORD_REPLACE_OES, GL_TRUE); glPointSize(width / kBrushScale); } return self; }

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  • Tunnel over HTTPS

    - by ephemient
    At my workplace, the traffic blocker/firewall has been getting progressively worse. I can't connect to my home machine on port 22, and lack of ssh access makes me sad. I was previously able to use SSH by moving it to port 5050, but I think some recent filters now treat this traffic as IM and redirect it through another proxy, maybe. That's my best guess; in any case, my ssh connections now terminate before I get to log in. These days I've been using Ajaxterm over HTTPS, as port 443 is still unmolested, but this is far from ideal. (Sucky terminal emulation, lack of port forwarding, my browser leaks memory at an amazing rate...) I tried setting up mod_proxy_connect on top of mod_ssl, with the idea that I could send a CONNECT localhost:22 HTTP/1.1 request through HTTPS, and then I'd be all set. Sadly, this seems to not work; the HTTPS connection works, up until I finish sending my request; then SSL craps out. It appears as though mod_proxy_connect takes over the whole connection instead of continuing to pipe through mod_ssl, confusing the heck out of the HTTPS client. Is there a way to get this to work? I don't want to do this over plain HTTP, for several reasons: Leaving a big fat open proxy like that just stinks A big fat open proxy is not good over HTTPS either, but with authentication required it feels fine to me HTTP goes through a proxy -- I'm not too concerned about my traffic being sniffed, as it's ssh that'll be going "plaintext" through the tunnel -- but it's a lot more likely to be mangled than HTTPS, which fundamentally cannot be proxied Requirements: Must work over port 443, without disturbing other HTTPS traffic (i.e. I can't just put the ssh server on port 443, because I would no longer be able to serve pages over HTTPS) I have or can write a simple port forwarder client that runs under Windows (or Cygwin) Edit DAG: Tunnelling SSH over HTTP(S) has been pointed out to me, but it doesn't help: at the end of the article, they mention Bug 29744 - CONNECT does not work over existing SSL connection preventing tunnelling over HTTPS, exactly the problem I was running into. At this point, I am probably looking at some CGI script, but I don't want to list that as a requirement if there's better solutions available.

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  • How to use ResourceManager in a "website" mode ?

    - by Erick
    I am trying here to do a manual translation for the application I am working with. (There is already a working LocalizationModule but it's working dodgy, so I can't use <asp:Localize /> tags. Normally with ResourceManager you are supposed to be using it as Namespace.Folder.Resourcename (in an application). Currently I am translating an existing asp.net "website" (not web application so no namespace here....). The resources are located into a folder name "Locales/resources" which contains "fr-ca.resx" and "en-us.resx". So I used a code with something like this : public static string T(string search) { System.Resources.ResourceManager resMan = new System.Resources.ResourceManager( "Locales", System.Reflection.Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly(), null ); var text = resMan.GetString(search, System.Threading.Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentCulture); if (text == null) return "null"; else if (text == string.Empty) return "empty"; else return text; } and inside the page I have something like this <%= Locale.T("T_HOME") %> When I refresh I have this : Could not find any resources appropriate for the specified culture or the neutral culture. Make sure "Locales.resources" was correctly embedded or linked into assembly "App_Code.9yopn1f7" at compile time, or that all the satellite assemblies required are loadable and fully signed. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.Resources.MissingManifestResourceException: Could not find any resources appropriate for the specified culture or the neutral culture. Make sure "Locales.resources" was correctly embedded or linked into assembly "App_Code.9yopn1f7" at compile time, or that all the satellite assemblies required are loadable and fully signed. Source Error: Line 14: System.Resources.ResourceManager resMan = new System.Resources.ResourceManager( "Locales", System.Reflection.Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly(), null ); Line 15: Line 16: var text = resMan.GetString(search, System.Threading.Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentCulture); Line 17: Line 18: if (text == null) Source File: c:\inetpub\vhosts\galerieocarre.com\subdomains\dev\httpdocs\App_Code\Locale.cs Line: 16 I even tried to load the resource with Locales.fr-ca or only fr-ca nothing quite work here.

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  • Volunteer for a potential employer?

    - by EoRaptor013
    I've been looking for work since March, and haven't had much luck. Recently, however, I interviewed with a small company near my home for a C#, .NET, SQL development position. I hit it off very well with the hiring manager during the phone screen, and even more so during the face to face. Unfortunately, I failed the practical test: wiring up a web form, creating a couple of SQL stored procedures, saving new data with validation, and creating a minimal search screen. I knew what I was doing, but I was too slow to meet their standards as all the work needed to be done within an hour. Nevertheless, I really liked the place, the environment, the people who I would have been working with, and the boss. (I gave the company an 11 on Joel's 12 point scale.) So, the obvious next step was to scrape the rust off. I've been trying to create little projects for myself, but I don't know that I've been effective in getting any faster. What with all that goes into creating a project, I'm not heads-down coding as much as I think I need. Now, with all that introduction, here's the question. I have been thinking about calling the hiring manager at that place, and asking him to let me volunteer for three or four weeks, with no strings attached. I think it would benefit me, and wouldn't cost him anything (as long as I didn't slow the existing people down!). At the end of that period, he might, or might not, be inclined to hire me, but even if not, I would have had as much as 160 hours of in the trenches development. Maybe not all shiny, but no more rust, I would think. Does this plan make any sense at all? I certainly don't want to sound desperate (although, I'm not far from being there), and I very much need the tuneup, lube, and change the oil. What's the downside, if any, to me doing this? Do any of you see red flags going up—either from the prerspective of the hiring manager, or from the perspective of a developer?

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  • How to actually use Swing Application Framework?

    - by Joonas Pulakka
    Hello, I'd like to learn how to effectively use Swing Application Framework. Most of the the examples I've found are blog entries that just explain how to great it is to extend SingleFrameApplication and override its startup method, but that's about it. Sun's article is almost two years old, as is the project's own introduction, and there has apparently been some evolution since then. Are there any recent and thorough tutorials/HOWTOs available anywhere? There is JavaDoc of course, but it's hard to get the big picture from there. Any pointers are appreciated. Update: I realized that there's a mailing list archive at the project's site. While somewhat clumsy (compared to StackOverflow ;) it seems to be quite active. Still it's a pity that there are no real tutorials anywhere. The information is scattered here and there. Update 2: Let me clarify - I'm not having trouble using Swing (the widget toolkit) itself, I'm talking about its Application Framework, which is supposed to ease things like application lifecycle (startup, exit and whatever happens between them), action management etc. - that is, things that most Swing applications will need. It's cool to get such framework to be standard part of Java. The only problem is to learn how it's intended to be used. Update 3: For the interested, there was just some discussion at the project's forum regarding the current state and future of JSR 296. Shortly: the current version 1.03 is considered to be quite usable, but the API is not stable and it will change to the final version in Java 7. The package name will also change so Java 7 will not break current applications made on SAF. Update 4: Karsten Lentzsch stated at the above mentioned forum: "I doubt that it can be included in Java 7; and I'll vote against it.". I would rather not question the sincerity of this great guru, and it's certainly wise not to let anything flawed to slip into the core JDK, but frankly it's a strange situation - he is the author of JGoodies Swing Suite which is partly a commercial competitor of JSR 296, and he is sitting in the committee that will decide whether this JSR will be included to standard Java. It was the same thing with JSR 295 Beans Binding which I wrote about earlier. Given the current state of SAF, I think the best solution is to wrap the current implementation into a "homebrew" framework, which can then accommodate possible changes to the existing API.

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  • Possible uncommitted transactions causing "System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Timeout expired" erro

    - by Michael
    My application requires a user to log in and allows them to edit a list of things. However, it seems that if the same user always logs in and out and edits the list, this user will run into a "System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Timeout expired." error. I've read comments about increasing the timeout period but I've also read a comment about it possibly caused by uncommitted transactions. And I do have one going in the application. I'll provide the code I'm working with and there is an IF statement in there that I was a little iffy about but it seemed like a reasonable thing to do. I'll just go over what's going on here, there is a list of objects to update or add into the database. New objects created in the application are given an ID of 0 while existing objects have their own ID's generated from the DB. If the user chooses to delete some objects, their IDs are stored in a separate list of Integers. Once the user is ready to save their changes, the two lists are passed into this method. By use of the IF statement, objects with ID of 0 are added (using the Add stored procedure) and those objects with non-zero IDs are updated (using the Update stored procedure). After all this, a FOR loop goes through all the integers in the "removal" list and uses the Delete stored procedure to remove them. A transaction is used for all this. Public Shared Sub UpdateSomethings(ByVal SomethingList As List(Of Something), ByVal RemovalList As List(Of Integer)) Using DBConnection As New SqlConnection(conn) DBConnection.Open() Dim MyTransaction As SqlTransaction MyTransaction = DBConnection.BeginTransaction() Try For Each SomethingItem As Something In SomethingList Using MyCommand As New SqlCommand() MyCommand.Connection = DBConnection If SomethingItem.ID > 0 Then MyCommand.CommandText = "UpdateSomething" Else MyCommand.CommandText = "AddSomething" End If MyCommand.Transaction = MyTransaction MyCommand.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure With MyCommand.Parameters If MyCommand.CommandText = "UpdateSomething" Then .Add("@id", SqlDbType.Int).Value = SomethingItem.ID End If .Add("@stuff", SqlDbType.Varchar).Value = SomethingItem.Stuff End With MyCommand.ExecuteNonQuery() End Using Next For Each ID As Integer In RemovalList Using MyCommand As New SqlCommand("DeleteSomething", DBConnection) MyCommand.Transaction = MyTransaction MyCommand.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure With MyCommand.Parameters .Add("@id", SqlDbType.Int).Value = ID End With MyCommand.ExecuteNonQuery() End Using Next MyTransaction.Commit() Catch ex As Exception MyTransaction.Rollback() 'Exception handling goes here End Try End Using End Sub There are three stored procedures used here as well as some looping so I can see how something can be holding everything up if the list is large enough. Other users can log in to the system at the same time just fine though. I'm using Visual Studio 2008 to debug and am using SQL Server 2000 for the DB.

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  • php adding images to another image, exact positioning

    - by user271619
    I have a cool snippet of code that works well, except one thing. The code will take an icon I want to add to an existing picture. I can position it where I want too! Which is exactly what I need to do. However, I'm stuck on one thing, concerning the placement. The code "starting position" (on the main image: navIcons.png) is from the Bottom Right. I have 2 variables: $move_left = 10; & $move_up = 8;. So, the means I can position the icon.png 10px left, and 8px up, from the bottom right corner. I really really want to start the positioning from the Top Left of the image, so I'm really moving the icon 10px right & 8px down, from the top left position of the main image. Can someone look at my code and see if I'm just missing something that inverts that starting position? function attachIcon($imgname) { $mark = imagecreatefrompng($imgname); imagesavealpha($mark, true); list($icon_width, $icon_height) = getimagesize($imgname); $img = imagecreatefrompng('images/sprites/navIcons.png'); imagesavealpha($img, true); $move_left = 10; $move_up = 9; list($mainpic_width, $mainpic_height) = getimagesize('images/sprites/navIcons.png'); imagecopy($img, $mark, $mainpic_width-$icon_width-$move_left, $mainpic_height-$icon_height-$move_up, 0, 0, $icon_width, $icon_height); imagepng($img); // display the image + positioned icon in the browser //imagepng($img,'newnavIcon.png'); // rewrite the image with icon attached. } header('Content-Type: image/png'); attachIcon('icon.png'); ? For those who are wondering why I'd even bother doing this. In a nutshell, I like to add 16x16 icons to 1 single image, while using css to display that individual icon. This does involve me downloading the image (sprite) and open photoshop, add the new icon (positioning it), and reuploading it to the server. Not a massive ordeal, but just having fun with php.

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  • ActiveMQ 5.2.0 + REST + HTTP POST = java.lang.OutOfMemoryError

    - by Bruce Loth
    First off, I am a newbie when it comes to JMS & ActiveMQ. I have been looking into a messaging solution to serve as middleware for a message producer that will insert XML messages into a queue via HTTP POST. The producer is an existing system written in C++ that cannot be modified (so Java and the C++ API are out). Using the "demo" examples and some trial and error, I have cobbled together a working example of what I want to do (on a windows box). The web.xml I configured in a test directory under "webapps" specifies that the HTTP POST messages received from the producer are to be handled by the MessageServlet. I added a line for the text app in "activemq.xml" ('ow' is the test app dir): I created a test script to "insert" messages into the queue which works well. The problem I am running into is that it as I continue to insert messages via REST/HTTP POST, the memory consumption and thread count used by ActiveMQ continues to rise (It happens when I have timely consumers as well as slow or non-existent consumers). When memory consumption gets around 250MB's and the thread count exceeds 5000 (as shown in windows task manager), ActiveMQ crashes and I see this in the log: Exception in thread "ActiveMQ Transport Initiator: vm://localhost#3564" java.lang.OutOfMemoryError: unable to create new native thread It is as if Jetty is spawning a new thread to handle each HTTP POST and the thread never dies. I did look at this page: http://activemq.apache.org/javalangoutofmemory.html and tried but that didn't fix the problem (although I didn't fully understand the implications of the change either). Does anyone have any ideas? Thanks! Bruce Loth PS - I included the "test message producer" python script below for what it is worth. I created batches of 100 messages and continued to run the script manually from the command line while watching the memory consumption and thread count of ActiveMQ in task manager. def foo(): import httplib, urllib body = "<?xml version='1.0' encoding='UTF-8'?>\n \ <ROOT>\n \ [snip: xml deleted to save space] </ROOT>" headers = {"content-type": "text/xml", "content-length": str(len(body))} conn = httplib.HTTPConnection("127.0.0.1:8161") conn.request("POST", "/ow/message/RDRCP_Inbox?type=queue", body, headers) response = conn.getresponse() print response.status, response.reason data = response.read() conn.close() ## end method definition ## Begin test code count = 0; while(count < 100): # Test with batches of 100 msgs count += 1 foo()

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  • Proper binding data to combobox and handling its events.

    - by Wodzu
    Hi guys. I have a table in SQL Server which looks like this: ID Code Name Surname 1 MS Mike Smith 2 JD John Doe 3 UP Unknown Person and so on... Now I want to bind the data from this table into the ComboBox in a way that in the ComboBox I have displayed value from the Code column. I am doing the binding in this way: SqlDataAdapter sqlAdapter = new SqlDataAdapter("SELECT * FROM dbo.Users ORDER BY Code", MainConnection); sqlAdapter.Fill(dsUsers, "Users"); cbxUsers.DataSource = dsUsers.Tables["Users"]; cmUsers = (CurrencyManager)cbxUsers.BindingContext[dsUsers.Tables["Users"]]; cbxUsers.DisplayMember = "Code"; And this code seems to work. I can scroll through the list of Codes. Also I can start to write code by hand and ComboBox will autocomplete the code for me. However, I wanted to put a label at the top of the combobox to display Name and Surname of the currently selected user code. My line of though was like that: "So, I need to find an event which will fire up after the change of code in combobox and in that event I will get the current DataRow..." I was browsing through the events of combobox, tried many of them but without a success. For example: private void cbxUsers_SelectionChangeCommitted(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (cmUsers != null) { DataRowView drvCurrentRowView = (DataRowView)cmUsers.Current; DataRow drCurrentRow = drvCurrentRowView.Row; lblNameSurname.Text = Convert.ToString(drCurrentRow["Name"]) + " " + Convert.ToString(drCurrentRow["Surname"]); } } This give me a strange results. Firstly when I scroll via mouse scroll it doesn't return me the row wich I am expecting to obtain. For example on JD it shows me "Mike Smith", on MS it shows me "John Doe" and on UP it shows me "Mike Smith" again! The other problem is that when I start to type in ComboBox and press enter it doesn't trigger the event. However, everything works as expected when I bind data to lblNameSurname.Text in this way: lblNameSurname.DataBindings.Add("Text", dsusers.Tables["Users"], "Name"); The problem here is that I can bind only one column and I want to have two. I don't want to use two labels for it (one to display name and other to display surname). So, what is the solution to my problem? Also, I have one question related to the data selection in ComboBox. Now, when I type something in the combobox it allows me to type letters that are not existing in the list. For example, I start to type "J" and instead of finishing with "D" so I would have "JD", I type "Jsomerandomtexthere". Combobox will allow that but such item does not exists on the list. In other words, I want combobox to prevent user from typing code which is not on the list of codes. Thanks in advance for your time.

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  • Can you find a pattern to sync files knowing only dates and filenames?

    - by Robert MacLean
    Imagine if you will a operating system that had the following methods for files Create File: Creates (writes) a new file to disk. Calling this if a file exists causes a fault. Update File: Updates an existing file. Call this if a file doesn't exist causes a fault. Read File: Reads data from a file. Enumerate files: Gets all files in a folder. Files themselves in this operating system only have the following meta data: Created Time: The original date and time the file was created, by the Create File method. Modified Time: The date and time the file was last modified by the Update File method. If the file has never been modified, this will equal the Create Time. You have been given the task of writing an application which will sync the files between two directories (lets call them bill and ted) on a machine. However it is not that simple, the client has required that The application never faults (see methods above). That while the application is running the users can add and update files and those will be sync'd next time the application runs. Files can be added to either the ted or bill directories. File names cannot be altered. The application will perform one sync per time it is run. The application must be almost entirely in memory, in other words you cannot create a log of filenames and write that to disk and then check that the next time. The exception to point 6 is that you can store date and times between runs. Each date/time is associated with a key labeled A through J (so you have 10 to use) so you can compare keys between runs. There is no way to catch exceptions in the application. Answer will be accepted based on the following conditions: First answer to meet all requirements will be accepted. If there is no way to meet all requirements, the answer which ensures the smallest amount of missed changes per sync will be accepted. A bounty will be created (100 points) as soon as possible for the prize. The winner will be selected one day before the bounty ends. Please ask questions in the comments and I will gladly update and refine the question on those.

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  • Ajax problem not displaying data using multiple javascript calls...

    - by Ronedog
    I'm writing an app that uses ajax to retrieve data from a mysql db using php. Because of the nature of the app, the user clicks an href link that has an "onclick" event used to call the javascript/ajax. I'm retrieving the data from mysql, then calling a separate php function which creates a small html table with the necessary data in it. The new table gets passed back to the responseText and is displayed inside a div tag. The tables only have around 10-20 rows of data in them. This functionality is working fine and displays the data in html form exactly as it needs to be on the page. The problem is this. the HREF "onclick" event needs to run multiple scripts one right after the other. The first script updates the "existing" data and inside the "update_existing" function is a call to refresh a section of the page with the updated HTML from the responseText. Then when that is done a "display_html" function is called which also updates a different section of the page with it's newly created HTML table. The event looks like this: Update This string gets built dynamically using php with parameters supplied, but for this example I simply took the parameters out so it didn't get confusing. The "update_existion() function actually calls the display_html() function which updates a section of the page as needed. I need to update a different section of the page on the same click of the mouse right after the update, which is why I'm calling the display_html() again, right after it. The problem is only the last call is being updated on my screen. In other words, the 2nd function call "display_html()" executes and displays the refreshed data just fine, but the previous call to update_existing() runs and updates the database properly, but doesn't display on the screen unless I press the browsers "refresh" button, which of course displays the new data exactly how I want it to, but I don't want the users to have to press the "refresh" button. I tried adding multiple "display_html() calls one right after the other, separating all of them with the semicolon and learned that only the very last function call actually refreshed the div element on the html page with the table information, although all the previous display_html() calls worked, they couldn't be seen on the page without a refresh of the browser. Is this a problem with javascript, or the ajax call, or is this a limitation in the DOM that only allows one element to be updated at a time. The ajax call is asynchroneous, but I've tried both, only async works period. This is the same in both Firefox and Internet Explorer Any ideas what's going on and how to get around it so I can run these multiple scripts?

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