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• The perfect web UI framework (with Microsoft stack?) - architecture question?

  - by Igorek

  I'm looking for suggestions for the following issue, and I realize there is really not going to be a perfect answer to my question: I have a UI built in WinForms.NET (v4.0 framework) with WCF back-end and EF4 model objects, that I am looking to port to the web. UI is not huge and is not super complex and is structured well. But it is not a super simple system either. I am looking to pick a technology stack for the web-frontend that will target desktop & partially mobile platforms, provide a good development platform to build on, and facilitate code reuse across UI and back-end tiers... I would rather avoid: custom coding of UI-centric scripts, because they are hard to debug, non-compiled, usually a maintenance nightmare, almost always start to contain business logic, and duplicate some of the logic that back-end tiers have (especially validation) custom-coding for Desktop Web and Mobile Web UI's separately (although I realize that mobile web UI will likely contain fewer of data-entry screens and more reporting screens) non-.NET technology stacks I would love to: target the reporting capabilities of the system toward mobile web browsers not have to write a single line of script (javascript, jquery, etc.) utilize a good collection of controls that produces an elegant UI use .NET for everything The way I see it right now, I need to re-write this app in Silverlight, utilize a 3rd party UI framework like Telerik, and re-do the reports UI again for mobile platforms separately. However, I'm rather concerned about the shelf-life of Silverlight and the needed to deploy a different architecture to deal with mobile platform. Is there an ASP.NET/MVC/Ajax architecture/framework/library that would allow me to get at the power of .NET and without painful (imho) client-side scripting, while providing a decent user experience Thank you

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• Using javascript and php together

  - by EmmyS

  I have a PHP form that needs some very simple validation on submit. I'd rather do the validation client-side, as there's quite a bit of server-side validation that happens to deal with writing form values to a database. So I just want to call a javascript function onsubmit to compare values in two password fields. This is what I've got: function validate(form){ var password = form.password.value; var password2 = form.password2.value; alert("password:"+password+" password2:" + password2); if (password != password2) { alert("not equal"); document.getElementByID("passwordError").style.display="inline"; return false; } alert("equal"); return true; } The idea being that a default-hidden div containing an error message would be displayed if the two passwords don't match. The alerts are just to display the values of password and password2, and then again to indicate whether they match or not (will not be used in production code). I'm using an input type=submit button, and calling the function in the form tag: <form action="<?php echo $_SERVER['PHP_SELF']; ?>" method="post" onsubmit="return validate(this);"> Everything is alerting as expected when entering non-matching values. I would have hoped (and assumed, based on past use) that if the function returned false, the actual submit would not occur. And yet, it is. I'm testing by entering non-matching values in the password fields, and the alerts clearly show me the values and the not equal result, but the actual form action is still occurring and it's trying to write to my database. I'm pretty new at PHP; is there something about it that will not let me combine with javascript this way? Would it be better to use an input type=button and include submit() in the function itself if it returns true?

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• Pointers, am I doing them correctly? Objective-c/cocoa

  - by Chris

  I have this in my @interface struct track currentTrack; struct track previousTrack; int anInt; Since these are not objects, I do not have to have them like int* anInt right? And if setting non-object values like ints, boolean, etc, I do not have to release the old value right (assuming non-GC environment)? The struct contains objects: typedef struct track { NSString* theId; NSString* title; } *track; Am I doing that correctly? Lastly, I access the struct like this: [currentTrack.title ...]; currentTrack.theId = @"asdf"; //LINE 1 I'm also manually managing the memory (from a setter) for the struct like this: [currentTrack.title autorelease]; currentTrack.title = [newTitle retain]; If I'm understanding the garbage collection correctly, I should be able to ditch that and just set it like LINE 1 (above)? Also with garbage collection, I don't need a dealloc method right? If I use garbage collection does this mean it only runs on OS 10.5+? And any other thing I should know before I switch to garbage collected code? Sorry there are so many questions. Very new to objective-c and desktop programming. Thanks

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• Sharepoint user details not visible to other users

  - by richardoz

  I am managing a SharePoint site that uses Form Based Authentication. We have several generic lists, document libraries and active task lists that users can create update and delete. Users can use the people pickers to select/search for everyone. But the users cannot see other users names, email addresses etc. in display lists or the people pickers. If I log in as the site collection administrator, I can see everyones details. So I know the data is available. Updated details on this problem (non-administrators) SharePoint users cannot see other users information. Example: User A assigns a task to user B. User A creates a new task and uses the people picker to find user B. User B is only visible by the login name “bname” and any information about user B is not visible or searchable within the people picker. Once user B is assigned the task, user A no longer sees the name in the task list – even though user A created it. No modified by, created by, assigned to or owner field data is visible to non-administrator users. Facts: Extranet site is configured to use Forms Based Authentication. Intranet uses windows based authentication Users of both the intranet and extranet have the same problem All databases are local The site uses SSRS integration SharePoint WSS on Windows 2003 Std -- After activating the verbose logging it looks like SharePoint is definately asking SQL server for only the user info for the currently logged in user: SELECT TOP 6 /lots-of-columns/ FROM UserData INNER MERGE JOIN Docs AS t1 ON ( 1 = 1 AND UserData.[tp_RowOrdinal] = 0 AND t1.SiteId = UserData.tp_SiteId AND t1.SiteId = @L2 AND t1.DirName = UserData.tp_DirName AND t1.LeafName = UserData.tp_LeafName AND t1.Level = UserData.tp_Level AND t1.IsCurrentVersion = 1 AND (1 = 1) ) LEFT OUTER JOIN AllUserData AS t2 ON ( UserData.[tp_Author]=t2.[tp_ID] AND UserData.[tp_RowOrdinal] = 0 AND t2.[tp_RowOrdinal] = 0 AND ( (t2.tp_IsCurrent = 1) ) AND t2.[tp_CalculatedVersion] = 0 AND t2.[tp_DeleteTransactionId] = 0x AND t2.tp_ListId = @L3 AND UserData.tp_ListId = @L4 AND t2.[tp_Author]=162 /* this is the currently logged in user */ ) WHERE (UserData.tp_IsCurrent = 1) AND UserData.tp_SiteId=@L2 AND (UserData.tp_DirName=@DN) AND UserData.tp_RowOrdinal=0 AND ( ( (UserData.[datetime1] IS NULL ) OR (UserData.[datetime1] = @L5DTP) ) AND t1.SiteId=@L2 AND (t1.DirName=@DN) ) ORDER BY UserData.[tp_Modified] Desc, UserData.[tp_ID] Asc Again, any ideas would be appreciated.

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• To what extent should code try to explain fatal exceptions?

  - by Andrzej Doyle

  I suspect that all non-trivial software is likely to experience situations where it hits an external problem it cannot work around and thus needs to fail. This might be due to bad configuration, an external server being down, disk full, etc. In these situations, especially if the software is running in non-interactive mode, I expect that all one can really do is log an error and wait for the admin to read the logs and fix the problem. If someone happens to interact with the software in the meantime, e.g. a request comes in to a server that failed to initialize properly, then perhaps an appropriate hint can be given to check the logs and maybe even the error can be echoed (depending on whether you can tell if they're a technical guy as opposed to a business user). For the moment though let's not think too hard about this part. My question is, to what extent should the software be responsible for trying to explain the meaning of the fatal error? In general, how much competence/knowledge are you allowed to presume on administrators of the software, and how much should you include troubleshooting information and potential resolution steps when logging fatal errors? Of course if there's something that's unique to the runtime context this should definitely be logged; but lets assume your software needs to talk to Active Directory via LDAP and gets back an error "[LDAP: error code 49 - 80090308: LdapErr: DSID-0C090334, comment: AcceptSecurityContext error, data 525, vece]". Is it reasonable to assume that the maintainers will be able to Google the error code and work out what it means, or should the software try to parse the error code and log that this is caused by an incorrect user DN in the LDAP config? I don't know if there is a definitive best-practices answer for this, so I'm keen to hear a variety of views.

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• Error copying file from app bundle

  - by Michael Chen

  I used the FireFox add-on SQLite Manager, created a database, which saved to my desktop as "DB.sqlite". I copied the file into my supporting files for the project. But when I run the app, immediately I get the error "Assertion failure in -[AppDelegate copyDatabaseIfNeeded], /Users/Mac/Desktop/Note/Note/AppDelegate.m:32 2014-08-19 23:38:02.830 Note[28309:60b] Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInternalInconsistencyException', reason: 'Failed to create writable database file with message 'The operation couldn’t be completed. (Cocoa error 4.)'.' First throw call stack: "... Here is the App Delegate Code where the error takes place -(void) copyDatabaseIfNeeded { NSFileManager *fileManager = [NSFileManager defaultManager]; NSError *error; NSString *dbPath = [self getDBPath]; BOOL success = [fileManager fileExistsAtPath:dbPath]; if (!success) { NSString *defaultDBPath = [[ [NSBundle mainBundle ] resourcePath] stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"DB.sqlite"]; success = [fileManager copyItemAtPath:defaultDBPath toPath:dbPath error:&error]; if (!success) NSAssert1(0, @"Failed to create writable database file with message '%@'.", [error localizedDescription]); } } I am very new to Sqlite, so I maybe I didn't create a database correctly in the FireFox Sqlite manager, or maybe I didn't "properly" copy the .sqlite file in? (I did check the target membership in the sqlite and it correctly has my project selected. Also, the .sqlite file names all match up perfectly.)

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• How can you make a PHP application require a key to work?

  - by jasondavis

  About 4 years ago I used a php product called amember pro, it is a membership script which has plugins for lie 30 different payment processors, it was an easy way to set up an automated membership site where users would pay a payment and get access to a certain area. The script used ioncube http://www.ioncube.com/sa_encoder.php to prevent non-paying users from using the script, it requered that you register the domain that the script would be used on, you were then given a key to enter into the file that would make the system/script work. Now I am wanting to know how to do such a task, I know ioncube encoder just makes it hard to see the code, in the script I mention, they would just have a small section at the tp of 1 of the included pages that was encrypted and without that part of the code it would break and in addition if the owner of the script did not put you domain in the list and give you a valid key it would not work, also if you tried to use the script on a different domain it would not work. I realize that somewhere in the encrypted code that is must of sent you key to there server and checked that it was valid for the domain name it is on, or possibly it did not even do that, maybe the key would just verify that it matched the domain the script was on, that more likely what it did. Here is where the real question is, How would you make a script require the portion that is encrypted? If I made a script and had a small encrypted part at the top, it would seem a user would be able to easily just remove the encrypted part and figure out what the non encrypted part is doing and fix it to work. Any ideas?

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• Sending files using Winsock - optimal send() data length?

  - by Meta

  I am using Winsock with non-blocking sockets to send a file to a client. The way I'm doing it right now is that I read a chunk of 8192 bytes from the file, and then loop until all of it successfully goes through send() (obviously handling WSAEWOULDBLOCK as it occurs). I then move on and read the next 8192 bytes, and so on... Although I can use any other number than 8192 when I test the transfer on my local machine, once I try it over a network, it seems like 8191 is the largest number I can use. When I try to use any number higher than 8191 (starting with 8192), the file transfer becomes extremely slow (about 5 times slower). Is there any reason why 8191 is so special? I've done some more testing and it turns out that using 8000 is slightly faster (by 0.5%). If you understand why 8191 is so special, can you tell me if there is a number better than the others (better than 8000)? I have a feeling that it has something to do with the fact that the default send buffer allocated to the socket by Winsock is 8KB, but I don't understand why. It might also have something to do with the Nagle algorithm, but again, I'm not sure how. Note that I have not modified the SO_SNDBUF option nor the TCP_NODELAY option. Or am I doing this all wrong? What's the best way of sending a file over a non-blocking socket?

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• Returning HTML in the JS portion of a respond_to block throws errors in IE

  - by Horace Loeb

  Here's a common pattern in my controller actions: respond_to do |format| format.html {} format.js { render :layout => false } end I.e., if the request is non-AJAX, I'll send the HTML content in a layout on a brand new page. If the request is AJAX, I'll send down the same content, but without a layout (so that it can be inserted into the existing page or put into a lightbox or whatever). So I'm always returning HTML in the format.js portion, yet Rails sets the Content-Type response header to text/javascript. This causes IE to throw this fun little error message: Of course I could set the content-type of the response every time I did this (or use an after_filter or whatever), but it seems like I'm trying to do something relatively standard and I don't want to add additional boilerplate code. How do I fix this problem? Alternatively, if the only way to fix the problem is to change the content-type of the response, what's the best way to achieve the behavior I want (i.e., sending down content with layout for non-AJAX and the same content without a layout for AJAX) without having to deal with these errors? Edit: This blog post has some more info

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• The CLR has been unable to transition from COM context [...] for 60 seconds

  - by BlueRaja The Green Unicorn

  I am getting this error on code that used to work. I have not changed the code. Here is the full error: The CLR has been unable to transition from COM context 0x3322d98 to COM context 0x3322f08 for 60 seconds. The thread that owns the destination context/apartment is most likely either doing a non pumping wait or processing a very long running operation without pumping Windows messages. This situation generally has a negative performance impact and may even lead to the application becoming non responsive or memory usage accumulating continually over time. To avoid this problem, all single threaded apartment (STA) threads should use pumping wait primitives (such as CoWaitForMultipleHandles) and routinely pump messages during long running operations. And here is the code that caused it: var openFileDialog1 = new System.Windows.Forms.OpenFileDialog(); openFileDialog1.DefaultExt = "mdb"; openFileDialog1.Filter = "Management Database (manage.mdb)|manage.mdb"; //Stalls indefinitely on the following line, then gives the CLR error //one minute later. The dialog never opens. if(openFileDialog1.ShowDialog() == DialogResult.OK) { .... } Yes, I am sure the dialog is not open in the background, and no, I don't have any explicit COM code or unmanaged marshalling or multithreading. I have no idea why the OpenFileDialog won't open - any ideas?

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• C++: parsing with simple regular expression or shoud I use sscanf?

  - by Helltone

  I need to parse a string like func1(arg1, arg2); func2(arg3, arg4);. It's not a very complex parsing problem, so I would prefer to avoid resorting to flex/bison or similar utilities. My first approch was to try to use POSIX C regcomp/regexec or Boost implementation of C++ std::regex. I wrote the following regular expression, which does not work (I'll explain why further on). "^" "[ ;\t\n]*" "(" // (1) identifier "[a-zA-Z_][a-zA-Z0-9_]*" ")" "[ \t\n]*" "(" // (2) non-marking "\[" "(" // (3) non-marking "[ \t]*" "(" // (4..n-1) argument "[a-zA-Z0-9_]+" ")" "[ \t\n]*" "," ")*" "[ \t\n]*" "(" // (n) last argument "[a-zA-Z0-9_]+" ")" "]" ")?" "[ \t\n]*" ";" Note that the group 1 captures the identifier and groups 4..n-1 are intended to capture arguments except the last, which is captured by group n. When I apply this regex to, say func(arg1, arg2, arg3) the result I get is an array {func, arg2, arg3}. This is wrong because arg1 is not in it! The problem is that in the standard regex libraries, submarkings only capture the last match. In other words, if you have for instance the regex "((a*|b*))*" applied on "babb", the results of the inner match will be bb and all previous captures will have been forgotten. Another thing that annoys me here is that in case of error there is no way to know which character was not recognized as these functions provide very little information about the state of the parser when the input is rejected. So I don't know if I'm missing something here... In this case should I use sscanf or similar instead? Note that I prefer to use C/C++ standard libraries (and maybe boost).

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• I am not able to kill a child process using TerminateProcess

  - by user1681210

  I have a problem to kill a child process using TerminateProcess. I call to this function and the process still there (in the Task Manager) This piece of code is called many times launching the same program.exe many times and these process are there in the task manager which i think is not good. sorry, I am quiet new in c++ I will really appreciate any help. thanks a lot!! the code is the following: STARTUPINFO childProcStartupInfo; memset( &childProcStartupInfo, 0, sizeof(childProcStartupInfo)); childProcStartupInfo.cb = sizeof(childProcStartupInfo); childProcStartupInfo.hStdInput = hFromParent; // stdin childProcStartupInfo.hStdOutput = hToParent; // stdout childProcStartupInfo.hStdError = hToParentDup; // stderr childProcStartupInfo.dwFlags = STARTF_USESTDHANDLES | STARTF_USESHOWWINDOW; childProcStartupInfo.wShowWindow = SW_HIDE; PROCESS_INFORMATION childProcInfo; /* for CreateProcess call */ bOk = CreateProcess( NULL, // filename pCmdLine, // full command line for child NULL, // process security descriptor */ NULL, // thread security descriptor */ TRUE, // inherit handles? Also use if STARTF_USESTDHANDLES */ 0, // creation flags */ NULL, // inherited environment address */ NULL, // startup dir; NULL = start in current */ &childProcStartupInfo, // pointer to startup info (input) */ &childProcInfo); // pointer to process info (output) */ CloseHandle( hFromParent ); CloseHandle( hToParent ); CloseHandle( hToParentDup ); CloseHandle( childProcInfo.hThread); CloseHandle( childProcInfo.hProcess); TerminateProcess( childProcInfo.hProcess ,0); //this is not working, the process thanks

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• Hibernate not saving foreign key, but with junit it's ok

  - by Leonardo

  Hi All, I have this strange problem. In a J2ee webapp with spring, smartgwt and hibernate, it happens that I have a class A wich has a set of class B, both of them mapped to table A and table B. I wrote a simple test case for testing the service manager which is supposed to do insert, update, delete and everything work as expected especially during insert. In the end I have one record in A and records in B with foreign key to A. But when I try to call the service from the web app, the entity in B are saved without a foreign key reference. I am sure that the service is the same. One thing I noticed is that enabling hibernate logging, seems that when the service is called from the application, one more update is made: insert A insert B update A update B update B (foreign key only) update A <--- ??? update B <--- ??? Instead, when junit test case is run, the update is as follows: insert A insert B update A update B update B (foreign key only) I suppose the latest update is what is causing the erroe, maybe it is overwriting values. Considering that the app is using spring, with the well known mechanism of DAO + Manager, where can I investigate to solve this issue ? Someone told me that the session is not closed, so hibernate would do one more update before release the objects by itself. I am pretty sure that all the configuration hbm, xml, and the rest are fine...but I maybe wrong. thanks

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• movieClip in Array displays null, and aren't showing up on stage.addChild(Array[i])

  - by jtdino

  i am new to Actionscript3, i need to know why i keep getting Parameter child must be non-null. And my code won't display 5 enemyBlock objects onto the stage but only just one. any tips and help will be much appreciated. thanks in advance. returns: TypeError: Error #2007: Parameter child must be non-null. at flash.display::DisplayObjectContainer/addChild() at flash.display::Stage/addChild() at BlockDrop_fla::MainTimeline/EnemyBlockPos() at BlockDrop_fla::MainTimeline/frame2() // declare varibles var isEnemyMoving:Boolean = false; var enemyArray:Array; var enemyBlock:MovieClip = new EnemyBlock(); // assign EnemyBlock class to enemyBlock var enemyBlockMC:MovieClip; var count:int = 5; var mapWidth:Number = 800; var mapHeight:Number = 600; function EnemyBlockPos() :void { // assign new MovieClip not null enemyBlockMC = new MovieClip; enemyArray = new Array(); for(var i=1; i<= count; i++){ // add class to MC enemyBlockMC.addChild(enemyBlock); // randomize position enemyBlock.x = Math.round(Math.random()*mapWidth); enemyBlock.y = Math.round(Math.random()*mapHeight); // set motion enemyBlock.movement = 5; // add MC to array enemyArray.push(enemyBlockMC); } for (var w = 1; w <= enemyArray.length; w++) { addChild(enemyArray[w]); } } // endOf EnemyBlockPos

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• How to specify MQ channel table location for .net web application using web.config

  - by Matt

  I've been going around in circles for a while on this one now. I'm trying to connect to a distributed queue manager using a supplied channel table file. I can get this to work if I specify the environmental variable MQCHLLIB and MQCHLTAB on my server. However the IBM documentation states that the .net config file can override these variables. Here is what I have placed in my web.config file: ... <configSections> <section name="CHANNELS" type="System.Configuration.NameValueSectionHandler" /> </configSections> <CHANNELS> <add key="ChannelDefinitionDirectory" value="C:\temp"></add> <add key="ChannelDefinitionFile" value="DSM_MOM_TEST.tab"></add> </CHANNELS> ... And here is the code that is executing: Hashtable properties = new Hashtable(); //Add managed connection type to parameters. const String connectionType = MQC.TRANSPORT_MQSERIES_CLIENT; properties.Add(MQC.TRANSPORT_PROPERTY, connectionType); return new MQQueueManager(queueManagerName, properties); queueManagerName is set to the generic queue manager "*Q101T". However this isn't working and I get an error returned: 2058 MQRC_Q_MGR_NAME_ERROR I've been unable to find any more documentation on how to get this to work other than the environmental variables and the standard mqclient.ini should be overriden by the channels stanza in the web.config. Is there something that I've missed in the code? Any tips would be greatly appreciated.

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• "rsAccessDenied" error for SSRS 2008

  - by JackLocke

  Hi All, I have been trying to access SSRS Web Service URL hxxp://myServer:80/ReportServer (from Reporting Service Configuration Manager), but my IE always shows "rsAccessDenied" message saying that my account doesn't have privilage required to view. Here are my system specs. Its my laptop with Windows 7 x64, and SQL Server 2008 with SP1 and I am using Mixed Mode Authentication with My account as SysAdmin privilages and this is what I have been trying / tried ... (ofcourse with restarting the service everytime I make any change in configuration), I changed service account from Reporting Service Configuration Manager to make it use My account but nothing happend. I tried running my IE as admin, by RUN AS ADMIN but still same message. Then I read somewhere I have to delete/recreate my encryption keys as well, so I tried again with that, then it was asking me to enter ID/PWD to access server here I am totally blank because it was not accepting my account credentials !!!. Weird thing is I can see my existing reports if I follow this URL hxxp://myServer:80/Reports , for which My guess is solely used to view reports. I have read post here about kind of same problem, but it seems that OP just left forum after asking question... Also, MSDN does have these helps hxxp://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms156034.aspx hxxp://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb630430.aspx but both of this didn't workout for me. I will really appriciate it if any one can help me out. Jack p.s. I was not allowed to post more than 1 URL because of my "reputation" so I had to change the string a bit. Please replace hxxp wih http in URLs.

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• question about jQuery droppable/draggable.

  - by FALCONSEYE

  I modified a sample photo manager application. photo manager application Instead of photos, I have employee records coming from a query. My version will let managers mark employees as on vacation, or at work. One of the things I did is to include employee ids like <a href="123">. I get the ids from event.target. This works for the click function but not for the "droppable" function. This is what I have for the click function: $('ul.gallery > li').click(function(ev) { var $item = $(this); var $unid = ev.target; var $target = $(ev.target); if ($target.is('a.ui-icon-suitcase')) { deleteImage($item,$unid); } else if ($target.is('a.ui-icon-arrowreturnthick-1-w')) { recycleImage($item,$unid); } return false; }); ev.target correctly gives the employee id. when i try the same in one of the droppable functions: $gallery.droppable({ accept: '#suitcase li', activeClass: 'custom-state-active', drop: function(ev, ui) { var $unid = ev.target; alert($unid); recycleImage(ui.draggable,$unid); } }); the alert(ui) gives me [object]. What's in this object? How do i get the href out of this? thanks

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• Formulae for U and V buffer offset

  - by Abhi

  Hi all ! What should be the buffer offset value for U & V in YUV444 format type? Like for an example if i am using YV12 format the value is as follows: ppData.inputIDMAChannel.UBufOffset = iInputHeight * iInputWidth + (iInputHeight * iInputWidth)/4; ppData.inputIDMAChannel.VBufOffset = iInputHeight * iInputWidth; iInputHeight = 160 & iInputWidth = 112 ppdata is an object for the following structure: typedef struct ppConfigDataStruct { //--------------------------------------------------------------- // General controls //--------------------------------------------------------------- UINT8 IntType; // FIRSTMODULE_INTERRUPT: the interrupt will be // rised once the first sub-module finished its job. // FRAME_INTERRUPT: the interrput will be rised // after all sub-modules finished their jobs. //--------------------------------------------------------------- // Format controls //--------------------------------------------------------------- // For input idmaChannel inputIDMAChannel; BOOL bCombineEnable; idmaChannel inputcombIDMAChannel; UINT8 inputcombAlpha; UINT32 inputcombColorkey; icAlphaType alphaType; // For output idmaChannel outputIDMAChannel; CSCEQUATION CSCEquation; // Selects R2Y or Y2R CSC Equation icCSCCoeffs CSCCoeffs; // Selects R2Y or Y2R CSC Equation icFlipRot FlipRot; // Flip/Rotate controls for VF BOOL allowNopPP; // flag to indicate we need a NOP PP processing }*pPpConfigData, ppConfigData; and idmaChannel structure is as follows: typedef struct idmaChannelStruct { icFormat FrameFormat; // YUV or RGB icFrameSize FrameSize; // frame size UINT32 LineStride;// stride in bytes icPixelFormat PixelFormat;// Input frame RGB format, set NULL // to use standard settings. icDataWidth DataWidth;// Bits per pixel for RGB format UINT32 UBufOffset;// offset of U buffer from Y buffer start address // ignored if non-planar image format UINT32 VBufOffset;// offset of U buffer from Y buffer start address // ignored if non-planar image format } idmaChannel, *pIdmaChannel; I want the formulae for ppData.inputIDMAChannel.UBufOffset & ppData.inputIDMAChannel.VBufOffset for YUV444 Thanks in advance

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• Pump Messages During Long Operations + C#

  - by Newbie

  Hi I have a web service that is doing huge computation and is taking more than a minute. I have generated the proxy file of the web service and then from my client end I am using the dll(of course I generated the proxy dll). My client side code is TimeSeries3D t = new TimeSeries3D(); int portfolioId = 4387919; string[] str = new string[2]; str[0] = "MKT_CAP"; DateRange dr = new DateRange(); dr.mStartDate = DateTime.Today; dr.mEndDate = DateTime.Today; Service1 sc = new Service1(); t = sc.GetAttributesForPortfolio(portfolioId, true, str, dr); But since it is taking to much time for the server to compute, after 1 minute I am receiving an error message The CLR has been unable to transition from COM context 0x33caf30 to COM context 0x33cb0a0 for 60 seconds. The thread that owns the destination context/apartment is most likely either doing a non pumping wait or processing a very long running operation without pumping Windows messages. This situation generally has a negative performance impact and may even lead to the application becoming non responsive or memory usage accumulating continually over time. To avoid this problem, all single threaded apartment (STA) threads should use pumping wait primitives (such as CoWaitForMultipleHandles) and routinely pump messages during long running operations. Kindly guide me what to do? Thanks

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• How can you ask a sensitive work question anonymously but still inform readers of your credibility a

  - by Rob

  I would like to request opinions about my career/situation at work with a software development project. I would like to ask anonymously or created a new stackoverflow.com account because I think I may be identified by co-workers at my employer since I have referred them to (non-sensititive) technical questions I have asked here. So they might know my account and be able to follow my activity. If I create a new account it will have no reputation and some readers may ignore it, for example, because they might think that the user only wishes to take ideas from here and not contribute, i.e. not a committed stackoverflow poster. What are your thoughts? (I do feel that it is appropriate to ask such pogramming career/situational questions here as many others have and there are some good questions -and answers and it seems that the stackoverflow community accepts such questions even thought the site's strict guidelines are for specific answers and not discussion, and non-subjective questions. And thank goodness that is the case - not all problems faced by programmers are about the craft but also the human factors around it - where else would folks go?)

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• Should a developer be a coauthor to a paper presented about the application they developed?

  - by ved

  In our organization, project teams come up with a need and funding and developers are given a basic scope and are allowed to develop the solution. There is a certain degree of implementation freedom given to the developers. They drive the solution to pilot and live deployment from its inception. If the solution is presented in a conference as a technical paper/white paper what is the protocol for the list of authors: because for the most part I see the project manager's and the dev team manager's names as authors but no mention of the actual developer. Is this correct? A lot of us developers feel pretty bummed to never see our names as the coauthors. Appreciate any pointers. Answers to the FOLLOW UP questions (1) in what field of study is the paper, and what are the standards of authorship for that field? The paper is for Flood Plain Management - there is nothing on the abstract guidelines, I have called the contact person listed for comment - waiting to hear. 2) was the paper literally about the software application as your question implies, or were the software issues incidental to the topic of the paper? The paper specifically deals with a GIS Application that is used in Coastal Engineering, yes the software is not incidental, but the meat of the paper and mentioned in the Title. 2

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• Best MAILING LIST solution for a CONFERENCE and its 400 participants

  - by Ole Morten Amundsen

  Dear community, what would you recommend for mailling lists? The conference is non-profit, named Smidig2010 (=Agile2010 in norwegian), will have about 400-500 participants 16.-17.november. At the time of writing this, we have not opened for registration, but would like people to be able to participate, ask questions, get informed and get inspired. We've used a forum before, but forums don't seem to be a good fit for this. I would like to set up a mailinglist, It'll have to be KISS, for the users: enter your email (a input box at our site smidig2010.no) get a confirmation mail, click a link. start posting, reading through archives, answering others etc. I like the look and feel of googlegroups, but I don't like the signup/account creation overhead imposed on the user. I've heard you may combine googlegroups with mailman and stuff, but, yeah, I can't believe our own incompetence on this subject! Btw, we are mostly developers and the conference app is being written in ruby on rails. Being non-profit, we prefer free, but we take everything into consideration. Any suggestions?

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• How to wait until location is completely found? (Core Location)

  - by sudo rm -rf

  Hello. I have a problem within my app. I'm trying to find the user's location to the best preciseness in order to determine their zip-code. Currently I have a button that, when pressed, starts a method named locateMe. -(IBAction)locateMe; { self.locationManager = [[CLLocationManager alloc] init]; locationManager.delegate = self; locationManager.desiredAccuracy = kCLLocationAccuracyBest; [locationManager startUpdatingLocation]; Then I've implemented didUpdateToLocation: -(void)locationManager:(CLLocationManager *)manager didUpdateToLocation:(CLLocation *)newLocation fromLocation:(CLLocation *)oldLocation; { NSLog(@"Found location! %f,%f",newLocation.coordinate.latitude,newLocation.coordinate.longitude); } I had previously done much more complicated stuff in didUpdateToLocation but as I tested some things I realized that the first location it found was not precise in the least. So, I put the NSLog call in there and it gave me an output similar to below... Found location! 39.594093,-98.614834 Found location! 39.601372,-98.592171 Found location! 39.601372,-98.592171 Found location! 39.611444,-98.538196 Found location! 39.611444,-98.538196 As you can see, it first gives me a value which is not correct, which was causing problems within my app because it wasn't giving the correct location. So, here's my question. Is there any way I can wait for the location manager to finish finding the most precise location? Thanks in advance! EDIT: I'm wanting something like this: if (newLocation.horizontalAccuracy <= locationManager.desiredAccuracy) { } But it never gets called!

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• HTTP POST with URL query parameters -- good idea or not?

  - by Steven Huwig

  I'm designing an API to go over HTTP and I am wondering if using the HTTP POST command, but with URL query parameters only and no request body, is a good way to go. Considerations: "Good Web design" requires non-idempotent actions to be sent via POST. This is a non-idempotent action. It is easier to develop and debug this app when the request parameters are present in the URL. The API is not intended for widespread use. It seems like making a POST request with no body will take a bit more work, e.g. a Content-Length: 0 header must be explicitly added. It also seems to me that a POST with no body is a bit counter to most developer's and HTTP frameworks' expectations. Are there any more pitfalls or advantages to sending parameters on a POST request via the URL query rather than the request body? Edit: The reason this is under consideration is that the operations are not idempotent and have side effects other than retrieval. See the HTTP spec: In particular, the convention has been established that the GET and HEAD methods SHOULD NOT have the significance of taking an action other than retrieval. These methods ought to be considered "safe". This allows user agents to represent other methods, such as POST, PUT and DELETE, in a special way, so that the user is made aware of the fact that a possibly unsafe action is being requested. ... Methods can also have the property of "idempotence" in that (aside from error or expiration issues) the side-effects of N 0 identical requests is the same as for a single request. The methods GET, HEAD, PUT and DELETE share this property. Also, the methods OPTIONS and TRACE SHOULD NOT have side effects, and so are inherently idempotent.

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• Issue with Callback method and maintaining CultureInfo and ASP.Net HttpRuntime

  - by Little Larry Sellers

  Hi All, Here is my issue. I am working on an E-commerce solution that is deployed to multiple European countries. We persist all exceptions within the application to SQL Server and I have found that there are records in the DB that have a DateTime in the future! We define the culture in the web.config, for example pt-PT, and the format expected is DD-MM-YYYY. After debugging I found the issue with these 'future' records in the DB is because of Callback methods we use. For example, in our Caching architecture we use Callbacks, as such - CacheItemRemovedCallback ReloadCallBack = new CacheItemRemovedCallback(OnRefreshRequest); When I check the current threads CultureInfo, on these Callbacks it is en-US instead of pt-PT and also the HttpContext is null. If an exception occurs on the Callback our exception manager reports it as MM-DD-YYYY and thus it is persisted to SQL Server incorrectly. Unfortunately, in the exception manager code, we use DateTime.Now, which is fine if it is not a callback. I can't change this code to be culture specific due to it being shared across other verticals. So, why don't callbacks into ASP.Net maintain context? Is there any way to maintain it on this callback thread? What are the best practices here? Thanks.

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