Search Results

Search found 13619 results on 545 pages for 'memory mapped'.

Page 347/545 | < Previous Page | 343 344 345 346 347 348 349 350 351 352 353 354  | Next Page >

  • WCF Named Pipe IPC

    - by Peter M
    I have been trying to get up to speed on Named Pipes this week. The task I am trying to solve with them is that I have an existing windows service that is acting as a device driver that funnels data from an external device into a database. Now I have to modify this service and add an optional user front end (on the same machine, using a form of IPC) that can monitor the data as it passes between the device and the DB as well as send some commands back to the service. My initial ideas for the IPC were either named pipes or memory mapped files. So far I have been working through the named pipe idea using WCF Tutorial Basic Interprocess Communication . My idea is to set the Windows service up with an additional thread that implements the WCF NamedPipe Service and use that as a conduit to the internals of my driver. I have the sample code working, however I can not get my head around 2 issues that I am hoping that someone here can help me with: In the tutorial the ServiceHost is instantiated with a typeof(StringReverser) rather than by referencing a concrete class. Thus there seems to be no mechanism for the Server to interact with the service itself (between the host.Open() and host.Close() lines). Is it possible to create a link between and pass information between the server and the class that actually implements the service? If so, how? If I run a single instance of the server and then run multiple instance of the clients, it seems that each client gets a separate instance of the service class. I tried adding some state information to the class implementing the service and it was only retained within the instance of the named pipe. This is possibly related to the first question, but is there anyway to force the named pipes to use the same instance of the class that is implementing the service? Finally, any thoughts on MMF vs Named Pipes? Thanks for you help

    Read the article

  • How to handle ViewModel and Database in C#/WPF/MVVM App

    - by Mike B
    I have a task management program with a "Urgency" field. Valid values are Int16 currently mapped to 1 (High), 2 (Medium), 3 (Low), 4 (None) and 99 (Closed). The urgency field is used to rank tasks as well as alter the look of the items in the list and detail view. When a user is editing or adding a new task they select or view the urgency in a ComboBox. A Converter passes Strings to replace the Ints. The urgency collection is so simple I did not make it a table in the database, instead it is a, ObservableCollection(Int16) that is populated by a method. Since the same screen may be used to view a closed task the "Closed" urgency must be in the ItemsSource but I do not want the user to be able to select it. In order to prevent the user from being able to select that item in the ComboBox but still be able to see it if the item in the database has that value should I... Manually disable the item in the ComboBox in code or Xaml (I doubt it) Change the Urgency collection from an Int16 to an Object with a Selectable Property that the isEnabled property of the ComboBoxItem Binds to. Do as in 2 but also separate the urgency information into its own table in the database with a foreign key in the Tasks table None of the above (I suspect this is the correct answer) I ask this because this is a learning project (My first real WPF and first ever MVVM project). I know there is rarely one Right way to do something but I want to make sure I am learning in a reasonable manner since it if far harder to Unlearn bad habits Thanks Mike

    Read the article

  • WNetAddConnection2 in Windows 7 with Impersonation and no Error Code

    - by Adam Driscoll
    I'm doing some crazy impersonation stuff to get around UAC dialogs in Windows 7 so the user does not have to interact with the UI (I have the admin creds of course). I have a process running as the Administrator and elevated past UAC. The issue that I'm facing is that when I make a call to WNetAddConnection2, within this process, I am not getting a new mapped net drive. The function returns ERROR_SUCCESS but no net drive is visible. We have another method of adding network drives using 'subst' but this, again, returns successful does does not add a net drive. I have tried to use the default user (which is the Administrator because of process's security context) and I have tried using specific user credentials. I can map the drive just fine through Explorer. Of course the same functionality works fine in XP/2003. I haven't got around to testing on Vista because of issues with impersonation that are limiting my ability to spin up the process. Are there unique Windows 7 limits on this function? MSDN does not glean any that I can find. Any help would be greatly appreciated!

    Read the article

  • iPad Safari's mapping of mouse events to touch events in image-maps

    - by Tim
    My website makes extensive use of image-maps. The images are of pages from a medieval manuscript. The mouseOver event of the AREA tags has a tooltip attached to it, which displays a modern typographic transcription of the ancient script for the line the mouse is hovering over. I just checked my website out on the iPad at the Apple store. The iPad is many respects a joy to use, however, I am wondering about Apple's mapping of the mouseEvents to the finger-touch events. Apple probably had a good reason for doing things as they did, but their choices seem counterintuitive an overly complicated to me. Specifically, the iPad Safari browser clearly was responding to both fingerDown and fingerTap, and in different ways. When I tapped an area of the image-map, the tooltip wired to the mouse-over event pf the AREA tag was displayed, and remained visible until I tapped somewhere else. When I held my finger down on an area of the image-map, the area changed color. So if iPad Safari detects a mouseOver eventhandler, it executes the mouseOver code and apparently prevents the "click" event from propagating, so that if you also have something wired to the click event, it doesn't work? Is that right? But more importantly, why isn't fingerDown the iPad-Safari counterpart for mouseOver? FingerDown seems a more likely candidate than Tap when mapping the mousePOver event. I would have expected things to be mapped in this way: MouseClick : FingerTap (i.e. finger down and then immediately up) MouseOver : FingerDown (finger down and stays on the spot) If Apple had treated fingerDown as the counterpart to mouseOver, then the tooltip could be displayed upon FingerDown and made invisible again on fingerUp, which would be the counterpart to mouseOut. Perhaps someone could enlighten me about the thinking process that led Apple to these particular mouse-to-touch event-mappings? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Problem with Mapping Linq-to-Sql on different Types

    - by csharpnoob
    Hi, maybe someone can help. I want to have on mapped Linq-Class different Datatype. This is working: private System.Nullable<short> _deleted = 1; [Column(Storage = "_deleted", Name = "deleted", DbType = "SmallInt", CanBeNull = true)] public System.Nullable<short> deleted { get { return this._deleted; } set { this._deleted = value; } } Sure thing. But no when i want to place some logic for boolean, like this: private System.Nullable<short> _deleted = 1; [Column(Storage = "_deleted", Name = "deleted", DbType = "SmallInt", CanBeNull = true)] public bool deleted { get { if (this._deleted == 1) { return true; } return false; } set { if(value == true) { this._deleted = (short)1; }else { this._deleted = (short)0; } } } I get always runtime error: [TypeLoadException: GenericArguments[2], "System.Nullable`1[System.Int16]", on 'System.Data.Linq.Mapping.PropertyAccessor+Accessor`3[T,V,V2]' violates the constraint of type parameter 'V2'.] I can't change the database to bit.. I need to have casting in mapping class.

    Read the article

  • Postback problem when using URL Rewrite and 404.aspx

    - by salle55
    I'm using URL rewrite on my site to get URLs like: http://mysite.com/users/john instead of http://mysite.com/index.aspx?user=john To achive this extensionless rewrite with IIS6 and no access to the hosting-server I use the "404-approach". When a request that the server can't find, the mapped 404-page is executed, since this is a aspx-page the rewrite can be performed (I can setup the 404-mapping using the controlpanel on the hosting-service). This is the code in Global.asax: protected void Application_BeginRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { string url = HttpContext.Current.Request.Url.AbsolutePath; if (url.Contains("404.aspx")) { string[] urlInfo404 = Request.Url.Query.ToString().Split(';'); if (urlInfo404.Length > 1) { string requestURL = urlInfo404[1]; if (requestURL.Contains("/users/")) { HttpContext.Current.RewritePath("~/index.aspx?user=" + GetPageID(requestURL)); StoreRequestURL(requestURL); } else if (requestURL.Contains("/picture/")) { HttpContext.Current.RewritePath("~/showPicture.aspx?pictureID=" + GetPageID(requestURL)); StoreRequestURL(requestURL); } } } } private void StoreRequestURL(string url) { url = url.Replace("http://", ""); url = url.Substring(url.IndexOf("/")); HttpContext.Current.Items["VirtualUrl"] = url; } private string GetPageID(string requestURL) { int idx = requestURL.LastIndexOf("/"); string id = requestURL.Substring(idx + 1); id = id.Replace(".aspx", ""); //Only needed when testing without the 404-approach return id; } And in Page_Load on my masterpage I set the correct URL in the action-attribute on the form-tag. protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { string virtualURL = (string)HttpContext.Current.Items["VirtualUrl"]; if (!String.IsNullOrEmpty(virtualURL)) { form1.Action = virtualURL; } } The rewrite works fine but when I perform a postback on the page the postback isn't executed, can this be solved somehow? The problem seems to be with the 404-approach because when I try without it (and loses the extensionless-feature) the postback works. That is when I request: http://mysite.com/users/john.aspx Can this be solved or is there any other solution that fulfil my requirements (IIS6, no serveraccess/ISAPI-filter and extensionless).

    Read the article

  • Castle MonoRail ARDataBind trying to bind to non-existent row

    - by dave thieben
    I have a shopping cart application running on MonoRail and using Castle ActiveRecord/NHibernate, and there is a ShoppingCart table and a ShoppingCartItems table, which are mapped to entities. Here's the scenario: a user adds things to the shopping cart, say 5 items, and goes to view the cart. The cart shows all 5 items. the user duplicates the tab/window and gets another tab of the same cart (call it tab B). the user removes an item from the cart, so now there are 4 items in tab B, but in the original tab A, there are still 5 items. the user goes back to tab A, and updates something in the cart and clicks the "update" button which submits the changes. my MonoRail action tries to do an ARDataBind on ShoppingCartItems using the data from the view, which includes all 5 items. when it gets to the item that the user deleted from tab B, it throws a "No row with the given identifier exists" for that item. I can't figure out if there is a way to have it not bind that row, return null, return new instance, etc.? there is an AutoLoadBehavior parameter on the ARDataBind attribute, but that appears to only affect loading of child entities, and not the root entity. regardless of which option I choose, I get the exception before control even enters the action method (except AutoLoadBehavior.Never, but that doesn't really help me). instead, I have code that calls Request.ObtainParamsNode() to pull the form nodes and parse them manually into objects, and ignores the ones that no longer exist. is there a better way? thanks.

    Read the article

  • Crawler do not create custom crawled properties

    - by user173739
    These days i have faced with very strange problem. I have development environment with MOSS 2007 SP 2 and WS 2008, i have search configured and everything works great. I have started to configuring staging environment (MOSS 2007 SP2 with June CU) and create new farm and new SSP. I have deployed my changes with package (wsp) and manually create site collections, sub webs, pages and so on. When fill crawl finishes, i see in Crawl log that all my pages have been successfully crawled and when i use some test tools to query search, my pages have been found. In crawl log there is few errors like http://mysite/sites/de/pages "The crawler could not communicate with the server. Check that the server is available and that the firewall access is configured correctly..", but all pages in this Page library were indexed. The problem is that i use custom managed properties (mapped to custom crawled properties) in search queries, but crawler didn't create crawled properties for all my new site columns. For example for site column IsAccent the crawler didn't create cralwed property ows_isAccesnt. I'm sure that i have created pages for specific content type and all my crawl categories have checked "Automatically discover new properties when a crawl takes place ". In site settings - Searchable columns i haven't got any column selected as Nocrowl. I tried to export my managed and crawled properties from dev environment to stage evironment but all my managed properties were empty, after that i recreated SSP...the result was the same... I checked specific page with tools like Sharepoint Manager 2007 and U2U Caml Query Builder 2007 that content type is correct, and i can see values of my custom site collumns.... Using U2U Caml Query Builder 2007 agains some Page library in Result tab i can see ows_IsAccent (my site collumn is IsAccent) and others site columns, but i can't find them in Crawled properties. Any idias?

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to make a non-nullable column nullable when used in a view? (sql server)

    - by Matt
    Hi, To start off I have two tables, PersonNames and PersonNameVariations. When a name is searched, it finds the closest name to one of the ones available in PersonNames and records it in the PersonNameVariations table if it's not already in there. I am using a stored proc to search the PersonNames for a passed in PersonNameVariationand return the information on both the PersonName found and the PersonNameVariation that was compared to it. Since I am using the Entity Framework, I needed return a complex type in the Import Function but for some reason it says my current framework doesn't support it. My last option was to use an Entity to return in my stored proc instead. The result that I needed back is the information on both the PersonName that was found and the PersonNameVariation that was recorded. Since I cannot return both entities, I created a view PersonSearchVariationInfo and added it into my Entity Framework in order to use it as the entity to return. The problem is that the search will not always return a Person Name match. It needs to be able to return only the PersonNameVariation data in some cases, meaning that all the fields in the PersonSearchVariationInfo pertaining to PersonName need to be nullable. How can I take my view and make some of the fields nullable? When I do it directly in the Entity Framework I get a mapping error: Error 4 Error 3031: Problem in mapping fragments starting at line 1202:Non-nullable column myproject_vw_PersonSearchVariationInfo.DateAdded in table myproject_vw_PersonSearchVariationInfo is mapped to a nullable entity property. C:\Users\Administrator\Documents\Visual Studio 2010\Projects\MyProject\MyProject.Domain\EntityFramework\MyProjectDBEntities.edmx 1203 15 MyProject.Domain Anyone have any ideas? Thanks, Matt

    Read the article

  • emacs frustration with web development any working dot-files?

    - by Tony Cruise
    I really liked flexibility of emacs but it is really annoying to make it work. I want to use it for web development html, css, javascript, php. I first tried emacs-starter-kit . It didn't included nXhtml. Also C-g key binding does not work (they call it starter kit but basic key command does not work). I think it is mapped for git control. That's a frustration for a beginner. Then I replaced emacs-starter-kit with nXhtml. At least C-g is working. But code completion sucks, M-tab does not work. I tried code completion from nXhtml menu with no success. Also NXhtml mode did'nt colorized my file if css is mixed with html. Isn't it recommended for mixed html, css,php files. So why it doesnt work?. Why Emacs folks do not aware of convention over configuration? Dam! ship it something works! Please help me before I am getting crazy. I use Ubuntu 10.04 and emacs-snaphot-gtk 23.1.50-1. Please guide me step by step with your working dotfile url. Even I accept I am a dummy, it is really annoying and frustrating to use emacs.

    Read the article

  • Cannot resolve Dictionary in Unity container

    - by IanR
    Hi, I've just stumbled upon this: within a Unity container, I want to register IDictionary<TK, TV>; assume that it's IDictionary<string, int> _unityContainer = new UnityContainer() .RegisterType<IDictionary<string, int>, Dictionary<string, int>>(); but if I try var d = _unityContainer.Resolve<IDictionary<string, int>>(); it fails to resolve... I get... Microsoft.Practices.Unity.ResolutionFailedException: Microsoft.Practices.Unity.ResolutionFailedException: Resolution of the dependency failed, type = "System.Collections.Generic.IDictionary`2[System.String,System.Int32]", name = "(none)". Exception occurred while: while resolving. Exception is: InvalidOperationException - The type Dictionary`2 has multiple constructors of length 2. Unable to disambiguate. At the time of the exception, the container was: Resolving System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary2[System.String,System.Int32],(none) (mapped from System.Collections.Generic.IDictionary2[System.String,System.Int32], (none)) --- System.InvalidOperationException: The type Dictionary`2 has multiple constructors of length 2. Unable to disambiguate.. So it looks like it has found the Type to resolve (being Dictionary<string, int>) but failed to new it up... How come unity can't resolve this type? If I type IDictionary<string, int> d = new Dictionary<string, int>() that works... any ideas? thanks!

    Read the article

  • BN_hex2bn magicaly segfaults in openSSL

    - by xunil154
    Greetings, this is my first post on stackoverflow, and i'm sorry if its a bit long. I'm trying to build a handshake protocol for my own project and am having issues with the server converting the clients RSA's public key to a Bignum. It works in my clent code, but the server segfaults when attempting to convert the hex value of the clients public RSA to a bignum. I have already checked that there is no garbidge before or after the RSA data, and have looked online, but i'm stuck. header segment: typedef struct KEYS { RSA *serv; char* serv_pub; int pub_size; RSA *clnt; } KEYS; KEYS keys; Initializing function: // Generates and validates the servers key /* code for generating server RSA left out, it's working */ //Set client exponent keys.clnt = 0; keys.clnt = RSA_new(); BN_dec2bn(&keys.clnt->e, RSA_E_S); // RSA_E_S contains the public exponent Problem code (in Network::server_handshake): // *Recieved an encrypted message from the network and decrypt into 'buffer' (1024 byte long)* cout << "Assigning clients RSA" << endl; // I have verified that 'buffer' contains the proper key if (BN_hex2bn(&keys.clnt->n, buffer) < 0) { Error("ERROR reading server RSA"); } cout << "clients RSA has been assigned" << endl; The program segfaults at BN_hex2bn(&keys.clnt->n, buffer) with the error (valgrind output) Invalid read of size 8 at 0x50DBF9F: BN_hex2bn (in /usr/lib/libcrypto.so.0.9.8) by 0x40F23E: Network::server_handshake() (Network.cpp:177) by 0x40EF42: Network::startNet() (Network.cpp:126) by 0x403C38: main (server.cpp:51) Address 0x20 is not stack'd, malloc'd or (recently) free'd Process terminating with default action of signal 11 (SIGSEGV) Access not within mapped region at address 0x20 at 0x50DBF9F: BN_hex2bn (in /usr/lib/libcrypto.so.0.9.8) And I don't know why it is, Im using the exact same code in the client program, and it works just fine. Any input is greatly appriciated!

    Read the article

  • Mapping a collection of enums with NHibernate

    - by beaufabry
    Mapping a collection of enums with NHibernate Specifically, using Attributes for the mappings. Currently I have this working mapping the collection as type Int32 and NH seems to take care of it, but it's not exactly ideal. The error I receive is "Unable to determine type" when trying to map the collection as of the type of the enum I am trying to map. I found a post that said to define a class as public class CEnumType : EnumStringType { public CEnumType() : base(MyEnum) { } } and then map the enum as CEnumType, but this gives "CEnumType is not mapped" or something similar. So has anyone got experience doing this? So anyway, just a simple reference code snippet to give an example with [NHibernate.Mapping.Attributes.Class(Table = "OurClass")] public class CClass : CBaseObject { public enum EAction { do_action, do_other_action }; private IList<EAction> m_class_actions = new List<EAction>(); [NHibernate.Mapping.Attributes.Bag(0, Table = "ClassActions", Cascade="all", Fetch = CollectionFetchMode.Select, Lazy = false)] [NHibernate.Mapping.Attributes.Key(1, Column = "Class_ID")] [NHibernate.Mapping.Attributes.Element(2, Column = "EAction", Type = "Int32")] public virtual IList<EAction> Actions { get { return m_class_actions; } set { m_class_actions = value;} } } So, anyone got the correct attributes for me to map this collection of enums as actual enums? It would be really nice if they were stored in the db as strings instead of ints too but it's not completely necessary.

    Read the article

  • That assembly does not allow partially trusted callers although the zone is fully trusted.

    - by Frederik Gheysels
    Since yesterday, I receive a security exception when I want to run a unit-test from within VS.NET 2008. The error goes like this: SecurityException: that assembly does not allow partially trusted callers ... The assembly that failed was : file:///S:/MyProject/MyAssembly.dll The S: drive is a mapped drive which points to a physical location on my disk. What I find very strange, is that this used to work for months previously. I mean, I did this all the time. In order to get this to work, I 've created a new security zone with the caspol utility in order to give this S: network share drive FullTrust. In other words, when I run caspol -m -lg I see this (I removed the other zones for the sake of brevity): 1.2. Zone - Intranet: LocalIntranet 1.2.1. All code: Same site Web 1.2.2. All code: Same directory FileIO - 'Read, PathDiscovery' 1.2.3. Url - file://R:/*: FullTrust 1.2.4. Url - file://S:/*: FullTrust 1.2.5. Url - file:///S:/*: FullTrust I've added the 1.2.5 zone just recently because the error that was given, mentionned file:///s:/.... Any ideas ? Could it be that this has something to do with the installation of VS.NET 2010 or the .NET Framework version 4.0 ?

    Read the article

  • Oracle XMLDB's XMLCAST and XMLQUERY incompatible with iBatis?

    - by tthong
    I've been trying to select a list of values from XMLs stored in an XMLType column but I keep getting the errors which are listed at the tail end of this post. The select id is getXMLFragment , and the relevant subset of the sqlmap.xml is as follows: <select id="getXMLFragment" resultClass="list"> SELECT XMLCAST(XMLQUERY('$CUSTOMER/CUSTOMER/DETAILS/ CUST_NAME/text()' PASSING CUSTOMER AS "CUSTOMER" RETURNING CONTENT) AS VARCHAR2(20)) AS customers FROM SHOP.CLIENT_INFO </select> (CUSTOMER is an XMLType column in CLIENT_INFO) and I call the statement using List<String> custNames= (List<String>) sqlMap.queryForList("getXMLFragment"); I am using ibatis-2.3.4.726.jar. Is it because iBatis does not recognise XMLDB queries and hence, tokenizes the string wrongly? On a sidenote, I have implemented XMLTypeCallback.java to handle XMLType insertions successfully, and I think it will work should I wish to retrieve the entire XML. However, in this case, I need to extract only individual values due to requirements. A workaround would be greatly appreciated. Thanks in advance. The exceptions generated are listed below: --- The error occurred in sqlMap.xml. --- The error occurred while preparing the mapped statement for execution. --- Check the getXMLFragment. --- Check the SQL statement. --- Cause: java.util.NoSuchElementException at com.ibatis.sqlmap.engine.mapping.statement.MappedStatement.executeQueryWithCallback(MappedStatement.java: 204) at com.ibatis.sqlmap.engine.mapping.statement.MappedStatement.executeQueryForList(MappedStatement.java: 139) at com.ibatis.sqlmap.engine.impl.SqlMapExecutorDelegate.queryForList(SqlMapExecutorDelegate.java: 567) at com.ibatis.sqlmap.engine.impl.SqlMapExecutorDelegate.queryForList(SqlMapExecutorDelegate.java: 541) at com.ibatis.sqlmap.engine.impl.SqlMapSessionImpl.queryForList(SqlMapSessionImpl.java: 118) at com.ibatis.sqlmap.engine.impl.SqlMapSessionImpl.queryForList(SqlMapSessionImpl.java: 122) at com.ibatis.sqlmap.engine.impl.SqlMapClientImpl.queryForList(SqlMapClientImpl.java: 98) at Main.main(Main.java:60) Caused by: java.util.NoSuchElementException at java.util.StringTokenizer.nextToken(StringTokenizer.java:332) at com.ibatis.sqlmap.engine.mapping.sql.simple.SimpleDynamicSql.processDynamicElements(SimpleDynamicSql.java: 90) at com.ibatis.sqlmap.engine.mapping.sql.simple.SimpleDynamicSql.getSql(SimpleDynamicSql.java: 45) at com.ibatis.sqlmap.engine.mapping.statement.MappedStatement.executeQueryWithCallback(MappedStatement.java: 184) ... 7 more

    Read the article

  • JPA : many-to-many - only one foreign key in the association table

    - by Julien
    Hi, I mapped two classes in a ManyToMany association with these annotations : @Entity @Inheritance(strategy=InheritanceType.TABLE_PER_CLASS) public abstract class TechnicalItem extends GenericBusinessObject implements Resumable{ @SequenceGenerator(name="TECHNICAL_ITEM_ID_GEN", sequenceName="TECHNICAL_ITEM_ID_SEQ") @Id @Column(name = "\"ID\"", nullable = false) @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.SEQUENCE, generator = "TECHNICAL_ITEM_ID_GEN") private int id; @ManyToMany(mappedBy = "referencePerformanceItems", fetch=FetchType.LAZY) private List testingRates; } @Entity @DiscriminatorValue("T") public class TestingRate extends Rate { @ManyToMany(fetch=FetchType.LAZY) @JoinTable(name="ecc.\"TESTING_RATE_TECHNICAL_ITEM\"", joinColumns = {@JoinColumn(name = "\"TESTING_RATE_ID\"")}, inverseJoinColumns = {@JoinColumn(name = "\"TECHNICAL_ITEM_ID\"")}) //@ManyToMany(mappedBy = "testingRates", fetch=FetchType.LAZY) private List referencePerformanceItems; } The sql generated for the association table creation is : create table ecc."TESTING_RATE_TECHNICAL_ITEM" ( "TESTING_RATE_ID" int4 not null, "TECHNICAL_ITEM_ID" int4 not null ); alter table ecc."TESTING_RATE_TECHNICAL_ITEM" add constraint FKC5D64DF6A2FE2698 foreign key ("TESTING_RATE_ID") references ecc."RATE"; There is no mention of the second foreign key "TECHNICAL_ITEM_ID" (the second part of the composite foreign key which should be in the association table). Is it a normal behaviour ? What should I do in the mapping if I want my 2 columns are 2 foreign keys referencing the primary keys of my 2 concerned tables. I use a PostGreSQL database and Hibernate as JPA provider. Thanks, Julien

    Read the article

  • NHibernate save / update event listeners: listening for child object saves

    - by James Allen
    I have an Area object which has many SubArea children: public class Area { ... public virtual IList<SubArea> SubAreas { get; set; } } he children are mapped as a uni-directional non-inverse relationship: public class AreaMapping : ClassMap<Area> { public AreaMapping() { HasMany(x => x. SubAreas).Not.Inverse().Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan(); } } The Area is my aggregate root. When I save an area (e.g. Session.Save(area) ), the area gets saved and the child SubAreas automatically cascaded. I want to add a save or update event listener to catch whenever my areas and/or subareas are persisted. Say for example I have an area, which has 5 SubAreas. If I hook into SaveEventListeners: Configuration.EventListeners.SaveEventListeners = new ISaveOrUpdateEventListener[] { mylistener }; When I save the area, Mylistener is only fired once only for area (SubAreas are ignored). I want the 5 SubAreas to be caught aswell in the event listener. If I hook into SaveOrUpdateEventListeners instead: Configuration.EventListeners.SaveOrUpdateEventListeners = new ISaveOrUpdateEventListener[] { mylistener }; When I save the area, Mylistener is not fired at all. Strangely, if I hook into SaveEventListeners and SaveOrUpdateEventListeners: Configuration.EventListeners.SaveEventListeners = new ISaveOrUpdateEventListener[] { mylistener }; Configuration.EventListeners.SaveOrUpdateEventListeners = new ISaveOrUpdateEventListener[] { mylistener }; When I save the area, Mylistener is fired 11 times: once for the area, and twice for each SubArea! (I think because NHIbernate is INSERTing the SubArea and then UPDATING with the area foreign key). Does anyone know what I'm doing wrong here, and how I can get the listener to fire once for each area and subarea?

    Read the article

  • How do I eliminate Error 3002?

    - by Andrew
    Say I have the following table definitions in SQL Server 2008: CREATE TABLE Person (PersonId INT IDENTITY NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY, Name VARCHAR(50) NOT NULL, ManyMoreIrrelevantColumns VARCHAR(MAX) NOT NULL) CREATE TABLE Model (ModelId INT IDENTITY NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY, ModelName VARCHAR(50) NOT NULL, Description VARCHAR(200) NULL) CREATE TABLE ModelScore (ModelId INT NOT NULL REFERENCES Model (ModelId), Score INT NOT NULL, Definition VARCHAR(100) NULL, PRIMARY KEY (ModelId, Score)) CREATE TABLE PersonModelScore (PersonId INT NOT NULL REFERENCES Person (PersonId), ModelId INT NOT NULL, Score INT NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (PersonId, ModelId), FOREIGN KEY (ModelId, Score) REFERENCES ModelScore (ModelId, Score)) The idea here is that each Person may have only one ModelScore per Model, but each Person may have a score for any number of defined Models. As far as I can tell, this SQL should enforce these constraints naturally. The ModelScore has a particular "meaning," which is contained in the Definition. Nothing earth-shattering there. Now, I try translating this into Entity Framework using the designer. After updating the model from the database and doing some editing, I have a Person object, a Model object, and a ModelScore object. PersonModelScore, being a join table, is not an object but rather is included as an association with some other name (let's say ModelScorePersonAssociation). The mapping details for the association are as follows: - Association - Maps to PersonModelScore - ModelScore ModelId : Int32 <=> ModelId : int Score : Int32 <=> Score : int - Person PersonId : Int32 <=> PersonId : int On the right-hand side, the ModelId and PersonId values have primary key symbols, but the Score value does not. Upon compilation, I get: Error 3002: Problem in Mapping Fragment starting at line 5190: Potential runtime violation of table PersonModelScore's keys (PersonModelScore.ModelId, PersonModelScore.PersonId): Columns (PersonModelScore.PersonId, PersonModelScore.ModelId) are mapped to EntitySet ModelScorePersonAssociation's properties (ModelScorePersonAssociation.Person.PersonId, ModelScorePersonAssociation.ModelScore.ModelId) on the conceptual side but they do not form the EntitySet's key properties (ModelScorePersonAssociation.ModelScore.ModelId, ModelScorePersonAssociation.ModelScore.Score, ModelScorePersonAssociation.Person.PersonId). What have I done wrong in the designer or otherwise, and how can I fix the error? Many thanks!

    Read the article

  • CQRS - The query side

    - by mattcodes
    A lot of the blogsphere articles related to CQRS (command query repsonsibility) seperation seem to imply that all screens/viewmodels are flat. e.g. Name, Age, Location Of Birth etc.. and thus the suggestion that implementation wise we stick them into fast read source etc.. single table per view mySQL etc.. and pull them out with something like primitive SqlDataReader, kick that nasty nhibernate ORM etc.. However, whilst I agree that domain models dont mapped well to most screens, many of the screens that I work with are more dimensional, and Im sure this is pretty common in LOB apps. So my question is how are people handling screen where by for example it displays a summary of customer details and then a list of their orders with a [more detail] link etc.... I thought about keeping with the straight forward SQL query to the Query Database breaking off the outer join so can build a suitable ViewModel to View but it seems like overkill? Alternatively (this is starting to feel yuck) in CustomerSummaryView table have a text/big (whatever the type is in your DB) column called Orders, and the columns for the Order summary screen grid are seperated by , and rows by |. Even with XML datatype it still feeel dirty. Any thoughts on an optimal practice?

    Read the article

  • AutoMapper How To Map Object A To Object B Differently Depending On Context

    - by IanT8
    Calling all AutoMapper gurus! I'd like to be able to map object A to object B differently depending on context at runtime. In particular, I'd like to ignore certain properties in one mapping case, and have all properties mapped in another case. What I'm experiencing is that Mapper.CreateMap can be called successfully in the different mapping cases however, once CreateMap is called, the map for a particular pair of types is set and is not subsequently changed by succeeding CreateMap calls which might describe the mapping differently. I found a blog post which advocates Mapper.Reset() to get round the problem, however, the static nature of the Mapper class means that it is only a matter of time before a collision and crash occur. Is there a way to do this? What I think I need is to call Mapper.CreateMap once per appdomain, and later, be able to call Mapper.Map with hints about which properties should be included / excluded. Right now, I'm thinking about changing the source code by writing a non-static mapping class that holds the mapping config instance based. Poor performance, but thread safe. What are my options. What can be done? Automapper seems so promising.

    Read the article

  • How to set up Hierarchical Zend Rest Routes?

    - by Kenji Baheux
    With the Zend Framework, I am trying to build routes for a REST api on resources organized in the following pattern: http://example.org/users/ http://example.org/users/234 http://example.org/users/234/items http://example.org/users/234/items/34 How do I set up this with Zend_Rest_Route? Here is how I have setup the route for the users resource (users/:id) in my bootstrap.php file: $this->bootstrap('frontController'); $frontController = Zend_Controller_Front::getInstance(); $restRoute = new Zend_Rest_Route($frontController); $frontController->getRouter()->addRoute('default', $restRoute); [As far as I understand, this is a catch all route so users/324/items/34 would results in parameters set as id=324 and items=34 and everything would be mapped to the Users (front module) Model. From there I guess I could just test for the items parameter and retrieve the item #34 for user #324 on a get request.]<=== I just checked it and it doesn't seems to work like that: Acessing /users/234/items/43 and var_dump($this->_getAllParams()); in the get action of the rest controller results in the following output: array(4) { ["controller"]=> string(5) "users" ["action"]=> string(3) "get" [2]=> string(5) "items" ["module"]=> string(7) "default"] } Somehow both ids got lost... Anyone?

    Read the article

  • Spring MVC and Weblogic integration

    - by Jeune
    I get this error whenever I try to view my tutorial app in the browser WARNING: No mapping found for HTTP request with URI [/HelloWorld.Web] in DispatcherServlet with name 'dispatcher' That just means the request is being received by the dispatcher servlet but it can't forward it to a controller. But I can't seem to know where the problem is. I think I've mapped this correctly: <bean id="urlMapping" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.handler.SimpleUrlHandlerMapping"> <property name="mappings"> <props> <prop key="/HelloWorld.Web">indexController</prop> </props> </property> </bean> <bean id="indexController" class="com.helloworld.controller.IndexController"> <property name="artistDao" ref="artistDao"/> <property name="methodNameResolver"> <bean class="org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.multiaction.PropertiesMethodNameResolver"> <property name="alwaysUseFullPath" value="true"/> <property name="mappings"> <props> <prop key="/HelloWorld.Web">getAllArtists</prop> </props> </property> </bean> </property> </bean> I am using Spring 2.5.6 and Bea Weblogic Server 9.2

    Read the article

  • git pull not working

    - by dorelal
    I am not using github. We have git setup on our machine. I created a branch from master called experiment. However when I am trying to do git pull I am getting following message. > git pull You asked me to pull without telling me which branch you want to merge with, and 'branch.experiment.merge' in your configuration file does not tell me either. Please specify which branch you want to merge on the command line and try again (e.g. 'git pull <repository> <refspec>'). See git-pull(1) for details. Here is result of git remote show origin > git remote show origin * remote origin Fetch URL: ssh://git.domain.com/var/git/app.git Push URL: ssh://git.domain.com/var/git/app.git HEAD branch: master Remote branches: experiment tracked master tracked Local branches configured for 'git pull': master merges with remote master Local refs configured for 'git push': experiment pushes to experiment (local out of date) master pushes to master (up to date) As I read the message above experiment is mapped to origin/experiment. And my local repository knows that it is out of date. Then why I am not able to do git pull?

    Read the article

  • The ViewData item that has the key 'MY KEY' is of type 'System.String' but must be of type 'IEnumerable<SelectListItem>'.

    - by JBibbs
    I am trying to populate a dropdown list from a database mapped with Linq 2 SQL, using ASP.NET MVC 2, and keep getting this error. I am so confused because I am declaring a variable with the type IEnumerable<SelectListItem> on the second line, but the error makes me think this is not the case. I feel like this should be very simple, but I am struggling. Any help is appreciated. Here are the interesting bits of my controller: public ActionResult Create() { var db = new DB(); IEnumerable<SelectListItem> basetypes = db.Basetypes.Select(b => new SelectListItem { Value = b.basetype, Text = b.basetype }); ViewData["basetype"] = basetypes; return View(); } And here are the interesting bits of my view: <div class="editor-label"> <%: Html.LabelFor(model => model.basetype) %> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%: Html.DropDownList("basetype") %> <%: Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.basetype) %> </div> Here is the Post action when submitting the Form // POST: /Meals/Create [HttpPost] public ActionResult Create(Meal meal) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { try { // TODO: Add insert logic here var db = new DB(); db.Meals.InsertOnSubmit(meal); db.SubmitChanges(); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } catch { return View(meal); } } else { return View(meal); } } Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Jackson object mapping - map incoming JSON field to protected property in base class

    - by Pete
    We use Jersey/Jackson for our REST application. Incoming JSON strings get mapped to the @Entity objects in the backend by Jackson to be persisted. The problem arises from the base class that we use for all entities. It has a protected id property, which we want to exchange via REST as well so that when we send an object that has dependencies, hibernate will automatically fetch these dependencies by their ids. Howevery, Jackson does not access the setter, even if we override it in the subclass to be public. We also tried using @JsonSetter but to no avail. Probably Jackson just looks at the base class and sees ID is not accessible so it skips setting it... @MappedSuperclass public abstract class AbstractPersistable<PK extends Serializable> implements Persistable<PK> { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) private PK id; public PK getId() { return id; } protected void setId(final PK id) { this.id = id; } Subclasses: public class A extends AbstractPersistable<Long> { private String name; } public class B extends AbstractPersistable<Long> { private A a; private int value; // getter, setter // make base class setter accessible @Override @JsonSetter("id") public void setId(Long id) { super.setId(id); } } Now if there are some As in our database and we want to create a new B via the REST resource: @POST @Consumes(MediaType.APPLICATION_JSON) @Produces(MediaType.APPLICATION_JSON) @Transactional public Response create(B b) { if (b.getA().getId() == null) cry(); } with a JSON String like this {"a":{"id":"1","name":"foo"},"value":"123"}. The incoming B will have the A reference but without an ID. Is there any way to tell Jackson to either ignore the base class setter or tell it to use the subclass setter instead? I've just found out about @JsonTypeInfo but I'm not sure this is what I need or how to use it. Thanks for any help!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 343 344 345 346 347 348 349 350 351 352 353 354  | Next Page >