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  • Handle cases where Nhibernate subclass does not exist

    - by kaykayman
    I have a scenario where I am using nhibernate to map records from one table to several different derived classes based on a discriminator. public class BaseClass { } public class DerivedClass0 : BaseClass { } public class DerivedClass1 : BaseClass { } public class DerivedClass2 : BaseClass { } I then use nhibernate's DiscriminateSubClassesOnColumn() method and alter the configuration to include <subclass name="DerivedClass0" extends="BaseClass" discriminator-value="discriminator0" /> <subclass name="DerivedClass1" extends="BaseClass" discriminator-value="discriminator1" /> <subclass name="DerivedClass2" extends="BaseClass" discriminator-value="discriminator2" /> so that when mapped, these classes are cast to their derived classes and not BaseClass. However, there are some records in my database which have a discriminator which does not have a corresponding subclass. In these cases, nHibernate throws an error: "Object with id: 'xxx' was not of the specified subclass..." Is there some way I can handle this, so that any records which do not have a corresponding subclass are cast to BaseClass rather than an error being thrown? I have simplified the above as much as possible, however it is worth noting that the XML is edited dynamically which is why I am referencing fluent nhibernate [DiscriminateSubClassesOnColumn()] and XML at the same time. The following things (which would help) are not an option: I cannot correct the data to remove records which are invalid I cannot create subclasses for those records which do not have one I need to handle cases where nHibernate tries to map on a discriminator and finds that one does not exist.

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  • Is ASP.NET MVC is really MVC? Or how to separate model from controller?

    - by Andrey
    Hi all, This question is a bit rhetorical. At some point i got a feeling that ASP.NET MVC is not that authentic implementation of MVC pattern. Or i didn't understood it. Consider following domain: electric bulb, switch and motion detector. They are connected together and when you enter the room motion detector switches on the bulb. If i want to represent them as MVC: switch is model, because it holds the state and contains logic bulb is view, because it presents the state of model to human motion detector is controller, because it converts user actions to generic model commands Switch has one private field (On/Off) as a State and two methods (PressOn, PressOff). If you call PressOn when it is Off it goes to On, if you call it again state doesn't change. Bulb can be replaced with buzzer, motion detector with timer or button, but the model still represent the same logic. Eventually system will have same behavior. This is how i understand classical MVC decomposition, please correct me if i am wrong. Now let's decompose it in ASP.Net MVC way. Bulb is still a view Controller will be switch + motion detector Model is some object that will just pass state to bulb. So the logic that defines behavior moves to controller. Question 1: Is my understanding of MVC and ASP.NET MVC correct? Question 2: If yes, do you agree that ASP.NET MVC is not 100% accurate implementation? And back to life. The final question is how to separate model from controller in case of ASP.NET MVC. There can be two extremes. Controller does basic stuff and call model to do all the logic. Another is controller does all the logic and model is just something like class with properties that is mapped to DB. Question 3: Where should i draw the line between this extremes? How to balance? Thanks, Andrey

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  • how to read http response soap headers from web service response in proxy class

    - by Fabricio
    I'm having some problems with one webservice that i'm working with. I generated a proxy class with wsdl.exe that comes with .net framework. But that webservice return a header that isnt not mapped by the wsdl. I must map the header sop because it contains some properties that i have to read and work with. how can i read the soap's header collection? Ex.: <soap:Envelope xmlns:soap="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/"> <soap:Header xmlns="http://xml.amadeus.com/ws/2009/01/WBS_Session-2.0.xsd"> <Session> <SessionId>545784545</SessionId> <SequenceNumber>1</SequenceNumber> <SecurityToken>asd7a87sda89sd45as4d5a4</SecurityToken> </Session> </soap:Header> <soap:Body> <TAM_Altea_Seguranca_AutenticarRS xmlns="http://xml.amadeus.com/2009/04/TAM/TAM_Altea_Seguranca_AutenticarRS_2.0"> <statusDoProcesso> <codigoDoStatus>P</codigoDoStatus> </statusDoProcesso> </TAM_Altea_Seguranca_AutenticarRS> </soap:Body> </soap:Envelope> I need to read the SOAP:HEADER - Session.

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  • How Can I: Generate 40/64 Bit WEP Key In Python?

    - by Aktariel
    So, I've been beating my head against the wall of this issue for several months now, partly because it's a side interest and partly because I suck at programming. I've searched and researched all across the web, but have not had any luck (except one small bit of success; see below), so I thought I might try asking the experts. What I am trying to do is, as the title suggests, generate a 40/64 bit WEP key from a passphrase, according to the "de facto" standard. (A site such as [http://www.powerdog.com/wepkey.cgi] produces the expected outputs.) I have already written portions of the script that take inputs and write them to a file; one of the inputs would be the passphrase, sanitized to lower case. For the longest time I had no idea what the defacto standard was, much less how to even go about implementing it. I finally stumbled across a paper (http://www.lava.net/~newsham/wlan/WEP_password_cracker.pdf) that sheds as much light as I've had yet on the issue (page 18 has the relevant bits). Apparently, the passphrase is "mapped to a 32-bit value with XOR," the result of which is then used as the seed for a "linear congruential PRNG (which one of the several PRNGs Python has would fit this description, I don't know), and then from that result several bits of the result are taken. I have no idea how to go about implementing this, since the description is rather vague. What I need is help in writing the generator in Python, and also in understanding how exactly the key is generated. I'm not much of a programmer, so explanations are appreciated as well. (Yes, I know that WEP isn't secure.)

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  • Exclude rows with Doctrine ORM DQL (NOT IN)

    - by Sheriffen
    I'm building a chat application with codeigniter and doctrine. Tables: - User - User_roles - User_available Relations: ONE user have MANY roles. ONE user_available have ONE user. Users available for chatting will be in the user_available table. Problem: I need to get all users in in user_available that hasn't got role_id 7. So I need to express in DQL something like (this is not even SQL, just in words): SELECT * from user_available WHERE NOT user_available.User.Role.role_id = 7 Really stuck on this one EDIT: Guess I was unclear. The tables are already mapped and Doctrine does the INNER JOIN job for me. I'm using this code to get the admin that waited the longest but now I need the user: $admin = Doctrine_Query::create() ->select('c.id') ->from('Chat_available c') ->where('c.User.Roles.role_id = ?', 7) ->groupBy('c.id') ->orderBy('c.created_at ASC') ->fetchOne(); Now I need to get the user that waited the longest but this does NOT work $admin = Doctrine_Query::create() ->select('c.id') ->from('Chat_available c') ->where('c.User.Roles.role_id != ?', 7) ->groupBy('c.id') ->orderBy('c.created_at ASC') ->fetchOne();

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  • Converting FoxPro Date type to SQL Server 2005 DateTime using SSIS

    - by Avrom
    Hi, When using SSIS in SQL Server 2005 to convert a FoxPro database to a SQL Server database, if the given FoxPro database has a date type, SSIS assumes it is an integer type. The only way to convert it to a dateTime type is to manually select this type. However, that is not practical to do for over 100 tables. Thus, I have been using a workaround in which I use DTS on SQL Server 2000 which converts it to a smallDateTime, then make a backup, then a restore into SQL Server 2005. This workaround is starting to be a little annoying. So, my question is: Is there anyway to setup SSIS so that whenever it encounters a date type to automatically assume it should be converted to a dateTime in SQL Server and apply that rule across the board? Update To be specific, if I use the import/export wizard in SSIS, I get the following error: Column information for the source and the destination data could not be retrieved, or the data types of source columns were not mapped correctly to those available on the destination provider. Followed by a list of a given table's date columns. If I manually set each one to a dateTime, it imports fine. But I do not wish to do this for a hundred tables.

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  • A error about "Address 0x0 is not stack'd, malloc'd or (recently) free'd" in c program under linux

    - by MaiTiano
    There is a piece of my program: height = atoi(argv[3]); width = atoi(argv[2]); sprintf(seqName,"%s", argv[1]); // strcpy(seqName, argv[1]); After compiling it, a exe file test is generated, then I use Valgrind to check it. Then I got the following message, however I cannot understand what it tends to tell me. Can anyone provide some kind help, Thanks. 1 contexts (suppressed: 13 from 8) 1 contexts (suppressed: 13 from 8) jl@ubuntu:~/work/dsr_analysis$ valgrind --tool=memcheck --leak-check=yes ./test ==28940== Memcheck, a memory error detector ==28940== Copyright (C) 2002-2009, and GNU GPL'd, by Julian Seward et al. ==28940== Using Valgrind-3.6.0.SVN-Debian and LibVEX; rerun with -h for copyright info ==28940== Command: ./test ==28940== ==28940== Invalid read of size 1 ==28940== at 0x40260CA: strcpy (mc_replace_strmem.c:311) ==28940== by 0x804A5C6: main (me_search.c:1428) ==28940== Address 0x0 is not stack'd, malloc'd or (recently) free'd ==28940== ==28940== ==28940== Process terminating with default action of signal 11 (SIGSEGV) ==28940== Access not within mapped region at address 0x0 ==28940== at 0x40260CA: strcpy (mc_replace_strmem.c:311) ==28940== by 0x804A5C6: main (me_search.c:1428) ==28940== If you believe this happened as a result of a stack ==28940== overflow in your program's main thread (unlikely but ==28940== possible), you can try to increase the size of the ==28940== main thread stack using the --main-stacksize= flag. ==28940== The main thread stack size used in this run was 8388608. ==28940== ==28940== HEAP SUMMARY: ==28940== in use at exit: 0 bytes in 0 blocks ==28940== total heap usage: 0 allocs, 0 frees, 0 bytes allocated ==28940== ==28940== All heap blocks were freed -- no leaks are possible ==28940== ==28940== For counts of detected and suppressed errors, rerun with: -v ==28940== ERROR SUMMARY: 1 errors from 1 contexts (suppressed: 13 from 8)1 contexts (suppressed: 13 from 8) 1 contexts (suppressed: 13 from 8)

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  • What is the correct JNA mapping for UniChar on Mac OS X?

    - by Trejkaz
    I have a C struct like this: struct HFSUniStr255 { UInt16 length; UniChar unicode[255]; }; I have mapped this in the expected way: public class HFSUniStr255 extends Structure { public UInt16 length; // UInt16 is just an IntegerType with length 2 for convenience. public /*UniChar*/ char[] unicode = new char[255]; //public /*UniChar*/ byte[] unicode = new byte[255*2]; //public /*UniChar*/ UInt16[] unicode = new UInt16[255]; public HFSUniStr255() { } public HFSUniStr255(Pointer pointer) { super(pointer); } } If I use this version, I get every second character of the string into my char[] ("aits D" for "Macintosh HD".) I am assuming that this is something to do with being on a 64-bit platform and JNA mapping the value to a 32-bit wchar_t but then chopping off the high 16 bits on each wchar_t on copying them back. If I use the byte[] version, I get data which decodes correctly using the UTF-16LE charset. If I use the UInt16[] version, I get the right code point for each character but it is then inconvenient to convert them back into a string. Is there some way I can define my type as char[], and yet have it convert correctly?

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  • Help with copy and deepcopy in Python

    - by Az
    Hi there, I think I tried to ask for far too much in my previous question so apologies for that. Let me lay out my situation in as simple a manner as I can this time. Basically, I've got a bunch of dictionaries that reference my objects, which are in turn mapped using SQLAlchemy. All fine with me. However, I want to make iterative changes to the contents of those dictionaries. The problem is that doing so will change the objects they reference---and using copy.copy() does no good since it only copies the references contained within the dictionary. Thus even if copied something, when I try to, say print the contents of the dictionary, I'll only get the latest updated values for the object. This is why I wanted to use copy.deepcopy() but that does not work with SQLAlchemy. Now I'm in a dilemma since I need to copy certain attributes of my object before making said iterative changes. In summary, I need to use SQLAlchemy and at the same time make sure I can have a copy of my object attributes when making changes so I don't change the referenced object itself. Any advice, help, suggestions, etc.?

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  • vs10 not deploying all required files - then not over-writing updated files

    - by justSteve
    I'm in the habit of deploying to alternating folders (/inetpub/wwwroot/mySite & /inetpub/wwwroot/mySite2) so if something unexpected happens with the deploy i can quickly swap back to a previous version just by changing the path in IIS So i was deploying an MVC2 webapp to a empty folder figuring that VS would send up all the files it needs. Not even close. Initially, it didn't even upload a couple required nHibernate.dlls. Later, after manually copying files referenced in the thrown exceptions, i just copied all the files from the previous compile and then re-published over the top expecting VS to over-write the changed files. Failed that too. No reports of errors by VS....just failed to over-write a number of pre-existing (but changed/updated) files. Hard to believe these kinds of errors (and lack of feedback that errors were encountered) in a state of the art tool like VS. Clearly, I'm doing something wrong. I'm using VisualSVN for source control and connect to my colocated server via a VPN-based mapped network drive (so I can use FileSystem to publish). (both of which can complicate file properties) VS08 had more choices for which files it would send up - i found i needed to use the 'All files in source' on an initial deployment, the 'Replace Matching'. If I choose 'delete all existing...' I'd be back to square 1 and have to deploy with the 'All files in source project folder'. But VS10 doesn't have the 'All files in source project folder. I ended up manually copying the files - which seems not right in the extreme. Are these known issues others have to deal with? What's best practice for deploying a web-app? thx

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  • Custom rowsetClass does not return values

    - by Wesley
    Hi, I'm quite new to Zend and the database classes from it. I'm having problems mapping a Zend_Db_Table_Row_Abstract to my rows. The problem is that whenever I try to map it to a class (Job) that extends the Zend_Db_Table_Row_Abstract class, the database data is not receivable anymore. I'm not getting any errors, trying to get data simply returns null. Here is my code so far: Jobs: class Jobs extends Zend_Db_Table_Abstract { protected $_name = 'jobs'; protected $_rowsetClass = "Job"; public function getActiveJobs() { $select = $this->select()->where('jobs.jobDateOpen < UNIX_TIMESTAMP()')->limit(15,0); $rows = $this->fetchAll($select); return $rows; } } Job: class Job extends Zend_Db_Table_Row_Abstract { public function getCompanyName() { //Gets the companyName } } Controller: $oJobs = new Jobs(); $aActiveJobs = $oJobs->getActiveJobs(); foreach ($aActiveJobs as $value) { var_dump($value->jobTitle); } When I remove the "protected $_rowsetClass = "Job";" line, so that the table row is not mapped to my own class, I get all the jobTitles perfectly. What am I doing wrong here? Thanks in advance, Wesley

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  • Thread-safe initialization of function-local static const objects

    - by sbi
    This question made me question a practice I had been following for years. For thread-safe initialization of function-local static const objects I protect the actual construction of the object, but not the initialization of the function-local reference referring to it. Something like this: namspace { const some_type& create_const_thingy() { lock my_lock(some_mutex); static const some_type the_const_thingy; return the_const_thingy; } } void use_const_thingy() { static const some_type& the_const_thingy = create_const_thingy(); // use the_const_thingy } The idea is that locking takes time, and if the reference is overwritten by several threads, it won't matter. I'd be interested if this is safe enough in practice? safe according to The Rules? (I know, the current standard doesn't even know what "concurrency" is, but what about trampling over an already initialized reference? And do other standards, like POSIX, have something to say that's relevant to this?) For the inquiring minds: Many such function-local static const objects I used are maps which are initialized from const arrays upon first use and used for lookup. For example, I have a few XML parsers where tag name strings are mapped to enum values, so I could later switch over the tags enum values.

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  • IHttpModule not being applied to virtual directory

    - by arthurdent510
    I have a network folder that is mapped to my iis app as a virtual directory and I'm trying to do some authentication for files that are located there with an ihttpmodule. I've verified that the ihttpmodule is firing properly for anything else in my app, just not the files located in virtual directory. Most of what I've found is that the directory can't be listed as an application (which it isn't), and everything should work. The other solution that I found was to add the the module tag to the tag, but that didn't seem to help either. Everything that I've found talks about stopping this from happening. So my question is what could be set that is causing this to not work? Is there a certain execute permission that needs to be set? Any other iis settings that could cause this? It is an mvc app, and this is how my directory structure is laid out: server/app <- my application folder server/app/content/downloads <- downloads is the virtual directory Do I have to add the virtual directory directly under my app directory? Is that part of the problem? I don't have direct control of the server my code is running on, so testing things out is a bit of a pain... so I was looking for some more thoughts before starting to send emails off to my operations people. Thanks!

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  • What are the hibernate annotations used to persist a value typed Map with an enumerated type as a ke

    - by Jason Novak
    I am having trouble getting the right hibernate annotations to use on a value typed Map with an enumerated class as a key. Here is a simplified (and extremely contrived) example. public class Thing { public String id; public Letter startLetter; public Map<Letter,Double> letterCounts = new HashMap<Letter, Double>(); } public enum Letter { A, B, C, D } Here are my current annotations on Thing @Entity public class Thing { @Id public String id; @Enumerated(EnumType.STRING) public Letter startLetter; @CollectionOfElements @JoinTable(name = "Thing_letterFrequencies", joinColumns = @JoinColumn(name = "thingId")) @MapKey(columns = @Column(name = "letter", nullable = false)) @Column(name = "count") public Map<Letter,Double> letterCounts = new HashMap<Letter, Double>(); } Hibernate generates the following DDL to create the tables for my MySql database create table Thing (id varchar(255) not null, startLetter varchar(255), primary key (id)) type=InnoDB; create table Thing_letterFrequencies (thingId varchar(255) not null, count double precision, letter tinyblob not null, primary key (thingId, letter)) type=InnoDB; Notice that hibernate tries to define letter (my map key) as a tinyblob, however it defines startLetter as a varchar(255) even though both are of the enumerated type Letter. When I try to create the tables I see the following error BLOB/TEXT column 'letter' used in key specification without a key length I googled this error and it appears that MySql has issues when you try to make a tinyblob column part of a primary key, which is what hibernate needs to do with the Thing_letterFrequencies table. So I would rather have letter mapped to a varchar(255) the way startLetter is. Unfortunately, I've been fussing with the MapKey annotation for a while now and haven't been able to make this work. I've also tried @MapKeyManyToMany(targetEntity=Product.class) without success. Can anyone tell me what are the correct annotations for my letterCounts map so that hibernate will treat the letterCounts map key the same way it does startLetter?

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  • check whether mmap'ed address is correct

    - by reddot
    I'm writing a high-loaded daemon that should be run on the FreeBSD 8.0 and on Linux as well. The main purpose of daemon is to pass files that are requested by their identifier. Identifier is converted into local filename/file size via request to db. And then I use sequential mmap() calls to pass file blocks with send(). However sometimes there are mismatch of filesize in db and filesize on filesystem (realsize < size in db). In this situation I've sent all real data blocks and when next data block is mapped -- mmap returns no errors, just usual address (I've checked errno variable also, it's equal to zero after mmap). And when daemon tries to send this block it gets Segmentation Fault. (This behaviour is guarantedly issued on FreeBSD 8.0 amd64) I was using safe check before open to ensure size with stat() call. However real life shows to me that segfault still can be raised in rare situtaions. So, my question is there a way to check whether pointer is accessible before dereferencing it? When I've opened core in gdb, gdb says that given address is out of bound. Probably there is another solution somebody can propose.

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  • Where can I find a list of all possible messages that an XmlException can contain?

    - by Rahul
    I'm writing an XML code editor and I want to display syntax errors in the user interface. Because my code editor is strongly constrained to a particular problem domain and audience, I want to rewrite certain XMLException messages to be more meaningful for users. For instance, an exception message like this: '"' is an unexpected token. The expected token is '='. Line 30, position 35 .. is very technical and not very informative to my audience. Instead, I'd like to rewrite it and other messages to something else. For completeness' sake that means I need to build up a dictionary of existing messages mapped to the new message I would like to display instead. To accomplish that I'm going to need a list of all possible messages XMLException can contain. Is there such a list somewhere? Or can I find out the possible messages through inspection of objects in C#? Edit: specifically, I am using XmlDocument.LoadXml to parse a string into an XmlDocument, and that method throws an XmlException when there are syntax errors. So specifically, my question is where I can find a list of messages applied to XmlException by XmlDocument.LoadXml. The discussion about there potentially being a limitless variation of actual strings in the Message property of XmlException is moot.

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  • How to use Struts 2 with JFreeChart?

    - by Pere
    Firstly, I went here ( http://code.google.com/p/struts2-examples/downloads/list and I downloaded Hello_World_Struts2_Mvn.zip) and I run that example. After that, I went here (http://struts.apache.org/2.x/docs/jfreechart-plugin.html), I add the dependencies for commons-lang-2.5.jar, jcommon-1.0.16.jar and jfreechart-1.0.13.jar and I modify the example downloaded from code.google.com to see how JFreeChart is working, but I receive this error: Unable to load configuration. - action - file:/C:/.../untitled_war_exploded/WEB-INF/classes/struts.xml:34:67 Caused by: Error building results for action createChart in namespace - action - file:/C:/.../out/artifacts/untitled_war_exploded/WEB-INF/classes/struts.xml:34:67 Caused by: There is no result type defined for type 'chart' mapped with name 'success'. Did you mean 'chart'? - result - file:/C:/.../out/artifacts/untitled_war_exploded/WEB-INF/classes/struts.xml:36:49 At the line 36 in struts.xml is the this code (the code from struts2 website): <action name="viewModerationChart" class="myapp.actions.ViewModerationChartAction"> <result name="success" type="chart"> <param name="width">400</param> <param name="height">300</param> </result> </action> What I'm doing wrong?

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  • Custom view transition in OpenGL ES

    - by melfar
    I'm trying to create a custom transition, to serve as a replacement for a default transition you would get here, for example: [self.navigationController pushViewController:someController animated:YES]; I have prepared an OpenGL-based view that performs an effect on some static texture mapped to a plane (let's say it's a copy of the flip effect in Core Animation). What I don't know how to do is: grab current view content and make a texture out of it (I remember seeing a function that does just that, but can't find it) how to do the same for the view that is currently offscreen and is going to replace current view are there some APIs I can hook to in order to make my transition class as native as possible (make it a kind of Core Animation effect)? Any thoughts or links are greatly appreciated! UPDATE Jeffrey Forbes's answer works great as a solution to capture the content of a view. What I haven't figured out yet is how to capture the content of the view I want to transition to, which should be invisible until the transition is done. Also, which method should I use to present the OpenGL view? For demonstration purposes I used pushViewController. That affects the navbar, though, which I actually want to go one item back, with animation, check this vid for explanation: http://vimeo.com/4649397. Another option would be to go with presentViewController, but that shows fullscreen. Do you think maybe creating another window (or view?) could be useful?

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  • BN_hex2bn magically segfaults in openSSL

    - by xunil154
    Greetings, this is my first post on stackoverflow, and i'm sorry if its a bit long. I'm trying to build a handshake protocol for my own project and am having issues with the server converting the clients RSA's public key to a Bignum. It works in my clent code, but the server segfaults when attempting to convert the hex value of the clients public RSA to a bignum. I have already checked that there is no garbidge before or after the RSA data, and have looked online, but i'm stuck. header segment: typedef struct KEYS { RSA *serv; char* serv_pub; int pub_size; RSA *clnt; } KEYS; KEYS keys; Initializing function: // Generates and validates the servers key /* code for generating server RSA left out, it's working */ //Set client exponent keys.clnt = 0; keys.clnt = RSA_new(); BN_dec2bn(&keys.clnt->e, RSA_E_S); // RSA_E_S contains the public exponent Problem code (in Network::server_handshake): // *Recieved an encrypted message from the network and decrypt into 'buffer' (1024 byte long)* cout << "Assigning clients RSA" << endl; // I have verified that 'buffer' contains the proper key if (BN_hex2bn(&keys.clnt->n, buffer) < 0) { Error("ERROR reading server RSA"); } cout << "clients RSA has been assigned" << endl; The program segfaults at BN_hex2bn(&keys.clnt->n, buffer) with the error (valgrind output) Invalid read of size 8 at 0x50DBF9F: BN_hex2bn (in /usr/lib/libcrypto.so.0.9.8) by 0x40F23E: Network::server_handshake() (Network.cpp:177) by 0x40EF42: Network::startNet() (Network.cpp:126) by 0x403C38: main (server.cpp:51) Address 0x20 is not stack'd, malloc'd or (recently) free'd Process terminating with default action of signal 11 (SIGSEGV) Access not within mapped region at address 0x20 at 0x50DBF9F: BN_hex2bn (in /usr/lib/libcrypto.so.0.9.8) And I don't know why it is, Im using the exact same code in the client program, and it works just fine. Any input is greatly appriciated!

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  • What ORM for .NET should I use?

    - by eKek0
    I'm relatively new to .NET and have being using Linq2Sql for a almost a year, but it lacks some of the features I'm looking for now. I'm going to start a new project in which I want to use an ORM with the following characteristics: It has to be very productive, I don't want to be dealing with the access layer to save or retrieve objects from or to the database, but it should allows me to easily tweak any object before actually commit it to the database; also it should allows me to work easily with a changing database schema It should allows me to extend the objects mapped from the database, for example to add virtual attributes to them (virtual columns to a table) It has to be (at least almost) database agnostic, it should allows me to work with different databases in a transparent way It has to have not so much configuration or must be based on conventions to make it work It should allows me to work with Linq So, do you know any ORM that I could use? Thank you for your help. EDIT I know that an option is to use NHibernate. This appears as the facto standard for enterprise level applications, but also it seems that is not very productive because its deep learning curve. In other way, I have read in some other post here in SO that it doesn't integrate well with Linq. Is all of that true?

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  • Using ControllerClassNameHandlerMapping with @Controller and extending AbstractController

    - by whiskerz
    Hey there, actually I thought I was trying something really simple. ControllerClassNameHandlerMapping sounded great to produce a small spring webapp using a very lean configuration. Just annotate the Controller with @Controller, have it extend AbstractController and the configuration shouldn't need more than this <context:component-scan base-package="test.mypackage.controller" /> <bean id="urlMapping" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.support.ControllerClassNameHandlerMapping" /> to resolve my requests and map them to my controllers. I've mapped the servlet to "*.spring", and calling <approot>/hello.spring All I ever get is an error stating that no mapping was found. If however I extend the MultiActionController, and do something like <approot>/hello/hello.spring it works. Which somehow irritates me, as I would have thought that if that is working, why didn't my first try? Does anyone have any idea? The two controllers I used looked like this @Controller public class HelloController extends AbstractController { @Override protected ModelAndView handleRequestInternal(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws Exception { ModelAndView modelAndView = new ModelAndView("hello"); modelAndView.addObject("message", "Hello World!"); return modelAndView; } } and @Controller public class HelloController extends MultiActionController { public ModelAndView hello(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws Exception { ModelAndView modelAndView = new ModelAndView("hello"); modelAndView.addObject("message", "Hello World!"); return modelAndView; } }

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  • Problem with Restlet on GAE

    - by Leaf
    I'm trying to implement a calculator web service on GAE using Java Restlets... it works perfectly fine on localhost but when I upload my project to the Google App Engine everytime I try the web service link it says the link is broken. Here's the code I used: public Restlet createInboundRoot() { // Create a router Restlet that routes each call to a // new instance of HelloWorldResource. Router router = new Router(getContext()); Restlet restlet = new Restlet() { public void handle(Request request, Response response) { // Print the requested URI path String parameters = request.getResourceRef().getRemainingPart(); String message; if(parameters.charAt(0)=='?'){ message = "" + Calculator.calculate(parameters.substring(1)); } else { message = ""; } response.setEntity(message, MediaType.TEXT_PLAIN); } }; // Defines only one route router.attachDefault(restlet); return router; } The Application it's on is mapped to the /calcservice but as I said when I upload to GAE it comes back with a broken link error. I'm developing on Eclipse 3.4 and I'm wondering if there are any parameters I have to change to include the Restlet classes.

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  • ASP.Net MVC ActionLink's and Shared Hosting Aliased Domains

    - by Peter Meyer
    So, I've read this and I've got a similar issue: I have a shared hosting account (with GoDaddy, though that's not exactly relevant, I believe) and I've got an MVC (RC1) site deployed to a sub-folder which where I have another domain name mapped (or aliased). The sub-folder is also setup as an application root as well. The site works without issue, the problem is that I don't like the links that are being generated using Html.ActionLink and Ajax.ActionLink. It's inserting the sub folder name as part of the URL as described in this other question. Thing is, the site works fine, but I'd like to make the links generated relative to the domain name. To use an example: http://my.abc.com "primary" domain; maps to \ on file system http://my.xyz.com setup to map to \_xyz.com folder on file system My generated links on xyz.com look like this: Intended Generated -------- --------- http://my.xyz.com/Ctrller/Action/52 http://my.xyz.com/_xyz.com/Ctrller/Action/52 and, FWIW, the site works. So, the question: Is there something I can do to get rid of that folder name in the links being generated? I have a couple of brute force ideas, but they aren't too elegant.

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  • Hibernate design to speed up querying of large dataset

    - by paddydub
    I currently have the below tables representing a bus network mapped in hibernate, accessed from a Spring MVC based bus route planner I'm trying to make my route planner application perform faster, I load all the above tables into Lists to perform the route planner logic. I would appreciate if anyone has any ideas of how to speed my performace Or any suggestions of another method to approach this problem of handling a large set of data Coordinate Connections Table (INT,INT,INT, DOUBLE)( Containing 50,000 Coordinate Connections) ID, FROMCOORDID, TOCOORDID, DISTANCE 1 1 2 0.383657 2 1 17 0.173201 3 1 63 0.258781 4 1 64 0.013726 5 1 65 0.459829 6 1 95 0.458769 Coordinate Table (INT,DECIMAL, DECIMAL) (Containing 4700 Coordinates) ID , LAT, LNG 0 59.352669 -7.264341 1 59.352669 -7.264341 2 59.350012 -7.260653 3 59.337585 -7.189798 4 59.339221 -7.193582 5 59.341408 -7.205888 Bus Stop Table (INT, INT, INT)(Containing 15000 Stops) StopID RouteID COORDINATEID 1000100001 100 17 1000100002 100 18 1000100003 100 19 1000100004 100 20 1000100005 100 21 1000100006 100 22 1000100007 100 23 This is how long it takes to load all the data from each table: stop.findAll = 148ms, stops.size: 15670 Hibernate: select coordinate0_.COORDINATEID as COORDINA1_2_, coordinate0_.LAT as LAT2_, coordinate0_.LNG as LNG2_ from COORDINATES coordinate0_ coord.findAll = 51ms , coordinates.size: 4704 Hibernate: select coordconne0_.COORDCONNECTIONID as COORDCON1_3_, coordconne0_.DISTANCE as DISTANCE3_, coordconne0_.FROMCOORDID as FROMCOOR3_3_, coordconne0_.TOCOORDID as TOCOORDID3_ from COORDCONNECTIONS coordconne0_ coordinateConnectionDao.findAll = 238ms ; coordConnectioninates.size:48132 Hibernate Annotations @Entity @Table(name = "STOPS") public class Stop implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) @Column(name = "STOPID") private int stopID; @Column(name = "ROUTEID", nullable = false) private int routeID; @ManyToOne(fetch = FetchType.LAZY) @JoinColumn(name = "COORDINATEID", nullable = false) private Coordinate coordinate; } @Table(name = "COORDINATES") public class Coordinate { @Id @GeneratedValue @Column(name = "COORDINATEID") private int CoordinateID; @Column(name = "LAT") private double latitude; @Column(name = "LNG") private double longitude; } @Entity @Table(name = "COORDCONNECTIONS") public class CoordConnection { @Id @GeneratedValue @Column(name = "COORDCONNECTIONID") private int CoordinateID; @ManyToOne(fetch = FetchType.LAZY) @JoinColumn(name = "FROMCOORDID", nullable = false) private Coordinate fromCoordID; @ManyToOne(fetch = FetchType.LAZY) @JoinColumn(name = "TOCOORDID", nullable = false) private Coordinate toCoordID; @Column(name = "DISTANCE", nullable = false) private double distance; }

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  • Type result with Ternary operator in C#

    - by Vaccano
    I am trying to use the ternary operator, but I am getting hung up on the type it thinks the result should be. Below is an example that I have contrived to show the issue I am having: class Program { public static void OutputDateTime(DateTime? datetime) { Console.WriteLine(datetime); } public static bool IsDateTimeHappy(DateTime datetime) { if (DateTime.Compare(datetime, DateTime.Parse("1/1")) == 0) return true; return false; } static void Main(string[] args) { DateTime myDateTime = DateTime.Now; OutputDateTime(IsDateTimeHappy(myDateTime) ? null : myDateTime); Console.ReadLine(); ^ } | } | // This line has the compile issue ---------------+ On the line indicated above, I get the following compile error: Type of conditional expression cannot be determined because there is no implicit conversion between '< null ' and 'System.DateTime' I am confused because the parameter is a nullable type (DateTime?). Why does it need to convert at all? If it is null then use that, if it is a date time then use that. I was under the impression that: condition ? first_expression : second_expression; was the same as: if (condition) first_expression; else second_expression; Clearly this is not the case. What is the reasoning behind this? (NOTE: I know that if I make "myDateTime" a nullable DateTime then it will work. But why does it need it? As I stated earlier this is a contrived example. In my real example "myDateTime" is a data mapped value that cannot be made nullable.)

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