Search Results

Search found 40791 results on 1632 pages for 'call display'.

Page 357/1632 | < Previous Page | 353 354 355 356 357 358 359 360 361 362 363 364  | Next Page >

  • How to write a JOIN statement to combine data from disparate tables

    - by Amarundo
    I have the following 2 procedures that I use as my source for a report. As of now, I'm presenting 2 different tables in my SQL Server Reporting Services 2008 R2 report, because it doesn't let me put them together as they belong to 2 different data sets. I want to present them in a single table, but I have not been successful trying to use JOIN here. How do I do that? NOTE: cName in IAgentQueueStats corresponds to UserId in AgentActivityLog. /*** Aggregate values for Call Center Agents for calls, talk and hold time ***/ /*** The detail/row values is per 30-minute interval ***/ ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[sp_IAgentQueueStats_OnlyCalls_Grouped] @p_StartDate datetime, @p_EndDate datetime, @p_Agents varchar(8000) AS SELECT [cName] ,sum([nAnswered]) SumNAnswered ,sum([nAnsweredAcd]) SumNAnsweredAcd ,sum([tTalkAcd]) SumTTalkAcd ,sum([nHoldAcd]) SumNHoldAcd ,sum([tHoldAcd]) SumTHoldAcd ,sum([tAcw]) SumTAcw FROM [I3_IC].[dbo].[IAgentQueueStats] WHERE dIntervalStart between @p_StartDate and DATEADD(s, 86400-1, @p_EndDate) AND CHARINDEX ( cName ,@p_Agents)> 0 AND cReportGroup <> '*' AND cHKey3 = '*' and cHKey4 ='*' AND nEnteredAcd > 0 AND cReportGroup <> 'CCFax Email' GROUP BY cName And here is the second one: /*** Aggregate values for Call Center Agents for status/activity time ***/ /*** The detail/row values is per start-time/end-time ***/ ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[sp_AgentActivity_Grouped] @p_StartDate datetime, @p_EndDate datetime, @p_Agents varchar(8000) AS SELECT [UserId],[StatusCategory],SUM([StateDuration]) [StatusDuration] FROM ( SELECT [UserId] ,[StatusGroup] ,[StatusKey] , CASE [StatusKey] WHEN 'Available' THEN 'Productive' WHEN 'Follow Up' THEN 'Productive' WHEN 'Campaign Call' THEN 'Productive' WHEN 'Awaiting Callback' THEN 'Productive' WHEN 'In a Meeting' THEN 'Not Your Fault' WHEN 'Project Work' THEN 'Not Your Fault' WHEN 'At a Training Session'THEN 'Not Your Fault' WHEN 'System Issues' THEN 'Not Your Fault' WHEN 'Test' THEN 'Not Your Fault' WHEN 'At Lunch' THEN 'Non Productive' WHEN 'Available, Forward' THEN 'Non Productive' WHEN 'Available, Follow-Me' THEN 'Non Productive' WHEN 'At Play' THEN 'Non Productive' WHEN 'AcdAgentNotAnswering' THEN 'Non Productive' WHEN 'Do Not Disturb' THEN 'Non Productive' WHEN 'Available, No ACD' THEN 'Non Productive' WHEN 'Away from desk' THEN 'Non Productive' ELSE [StatusKey] END StatusCategory ,stateduration FROM [I3_IC].[dbo].[AgentActivityLog] WHERE [StatusDateTime] between @p_StartDate and DATEADD(s, 86400-1, @p_EndDate) AND CHARINDEX ( [UserId] ,@p_Agents)> 0 AND [StatusKey] not in ('Gone Home','Out of the Office','On Vacation','Out of Town') ) a GROUP BY [UserId],[StatusCategory] ORDER BY [UserId], [StatusCategory] desc BTW, if I take some time to comment/reply on your posts, it's not lack of interest, but of understanding...

    Read the article

  • PHP - Drilling down Data and Looping with Loops

    - by stogdilla
    I'm currently having difficulty finding a way of making my loops work. I have a table of data with 15 minute values. I need the data to pull up in a few different increments $filters=Array('Yrs','Qtr','Day','60','30','15'); I think I have a way of finding out what I need to be able to drill down to but the issue I'm having is after the first loop to cycle through all the Outter most values (ex: the user says they want to display by Hours, each hour should be able to have a "+" that will then add a new div to display the half hour data, then each half hour data have a "+" to display the 15 minute data upon request. Now I can just program the number of outputs for each value (6 different outputs) just in-case... but isn't there a way I can make it do the drill down for each one in a loop? so I only have to code one output once and have it just check if there are any more intervals after it and check for those? I'm sure I'm just overlooking some very simple way of doing this but my brain isn't being clever today. Sorry in advance if this is a simple solution. I guess the best way I could think of it as a reply on a form. How you would check to see if it's a reply of a reply, and then if that reply has any replys...etc for output. Can anyone help or at least point me in the right direction? Or am I stuck coding each possible check? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Weird margin in a list

    - by kevin
    I'm trying to style a menu, but I keep running into this weird margin that's appearing in both FF4 and IE. This is the only affecting css: #header ul { display: inline; } #header ul li { list-style-type: none; background: #000; display: inline; margin: 0; padding: 0; } #header ul li a { color: #fff; text-decoration: none; display: inline-block; width: 100px; text-align: center; } And this is the HTML: <div id="header"> <ul id="toplinks"> <li><a href="#">Hello</a></li> <li><a href="#">Herp</a></li> <li><a href="#">Derp</a></li> </ul> </div> As you can see, there's a margin appearing on both sides, and I'd like it so it would have no margin (or maybe 1px would be okay)...

    Read the article

  • C++ design related question

    - by Kotti
    Hi! Here is the question's plot: suppose I have some abstract classes for objects, let's call it Object. It's definition would include 2D position and dimensions. Let it also have some virtual void Render(Backend& backend) const = 0 method used for rendering. Now I specialize my inheritance tree and add Rectangle and Ellipse class. Guess they won't have their own properties, but they will have their own virtual void Render method. Let's say I implemented these methods, so that Render for Rectangle actually draws some rectangle, and the same for ellipse. Now, I add some object called Plane, which is defined as class Plane : public Rectangle and has a private member of std::vector<Object*> plane_objects; Right after that I add a method to add some object to my plane. And here comes the question. If I design this method as void AddObject(Object& object) I would face trouble like I won't be able to call virtual functions, because I would have to do something like plane_objects.push_back(new Object(object)); and this should be push_back(new Rectangle(object)) for rectangles and new Circle(...) for circles. If I implement this method as void AddObject(Object* object), it looks good, but then somewhere else this means making call like plane.AddObject(new Rectangle(params)); and this is generally a mess because then it's not clear which part of my program should free the allocated memory. ["when destroying the plane? why? are we sure that calls to AddObject were only done as AddObject(new something).] I guess the problems caused by using the second approach could be solved using smart pointers, but I am sure there have to be something better. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • How to pass common arguments to Perl modules

    - by Leonard
    I'm not thrilled with the argument-passing architecture I'm evolving for the (many) Perl scripts that have been developed for some scripts that call various Hadoop MapReduce jobs. There are currently 8 scripts (of the form run_something.pl) that are run from cron. (And more on the way ... we expect anywhere from 1 to 3 more for every function we add to hadoop.) Each of these have about 6 identical command-line parameters, and a couple command line parameters that are similar, all specified with Euclid. The implementations are in a dozen .pm modules. Some of which are common, and others of which are unique.... Currently I'm passing the args globally to each module ... Inside run_something.pl I have: set_common_args (%ARGV); set_something_args (%ARGV); And inside Something.pm I have sub set_something_args { (%MYARGS) =@_; } So then I can do if ( $MYARGS{'--needs_more_beer'} ) { $beer++; } I'm seeing that I'm probably going to have additional "common" files that I'll want to pass args to, so I'll have three or four set_xxx_args calls at the top of each run_something.pl, and it just doesn't seem too elegant. On the other hand, it beats passing the whole stupid argument array down the call chain, and choosing and passing individual elements down the call chain is (a) too much work (b) error-prone (c) doesn't buy much. In lots of ways what I'm doing is just object-oriented design without the object-oriented language trappings, and it looks uglier without said trappings, but nonetheless ... Anyone have thoughts or ideas?

    Read the article

  • Can I use drawRect to refresh a UIView subclass?

    - by Timbo
    I've created a subclass of UIView called Status which is designed to display a rectangle of a certain size (within a view) depending on the value of a variable. // Interface #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> #import <QuartzCore/QuartzCore.h> @interface Status: UIView { NSString* name; int someVariable; } @property int someVariable; @property (assign) NSString *name; - (void) createStatus: (NSString*)withName; - (void) drawRect:(CGRect)rect; @end // Implementation #import "Status.h" @implementation Status @synthesize name, someVariable; - (void) createStatus: (NSString*)withName { name = withName; someVariable = 10000; } - (void) drawRect:(CGRect)rect { CGContextRef context = UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext(); //Draw Status CGContextSetRGBFillColor(context, 0.0, 0.0, 1.0, 1); // fill CGContextFillRect(context, CGRectMake(0.0, 0.0, someVariable, 40.0)); } //// myviewcontroller implementation - (void) viewDidAppear:(BOOL)animated { [super viewDidAppear:animated]; myStatus = [[Status alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(8,8,200,56)]; myStatus.backgroundColor = [UIColor grayColor]; [self.view addSubview:myStatus]; } How do I set this up so I can repeatedly call a refresh of the status bar? I'll probably call the refresh 4 times per second using a NSTimer, I'm just not sure what to call or if I should move this rectangle drawing to a separate function or something... Thanks in advance for your help :)

    Read the article

  • Server side aggregation using Spring MVC Controllers

    - by Venu
    Hi! We have a web site with multiple pages each with lot of AJAX calls. All the Ajax calls go to a data proxy layer written in Spring 3 MVC application. In order to reduce the load on the server we are planning to aggregate calls on the client and send to the proxy layer. For ex: we have two calls /controller1/action1 and /controller2/action2 in different controllers. I want to write an aggregate controller and call it from the client instead of making two calls to the individual controllers. Something like /aggregatecontroller/aggregate (and we will post the information regarding which calls are being aggregated and required parameters). Is there any way we can call another controller/action from a controller/action and get output? The flow will be something like this: a. Call /aggregatecontroller/aggregate with info regd call1 and call2 b. aggregate action understands that it needs to aggregate call1 and call2 c. it calls /controller1/action1 and gets the response d. it calls /controller2/action2 and gets the response e. it merges both in a json response and sends it back to browser. Please let me know if you have any suggestion regd how to do this or if you think there is a better approach to do the server side aggregation. Thanks for your time.

    Read the article

  • Passing session between jsf backing bean and model

    - by Rachel
    Background : I am having backing bean which has upload method that listen when file is uploaded. Now I pass this file to parser and in parser am doing validation check for row present in csv file. If validation fails, I have to log information and saving in logging table in database. My end goal : Is to get session information in logging bean so that I can get initialContext and make call to ejb to save data to database. What is happening : In my upload backing bean, am getting session but when i call parser, I do not pass session information as I do not want parser to be dependent on session as I want to unit test parser individually. So in my parser, I do not have session information, from parser am making call to logging bean(just a bean with some ejb methods) but in this logging bean, i need session because i need to get initial context. Question Is there a way in JSF, that I can get the session in my logging bean that I have in my upload backing bean? I tried doing: FacesContext ctx = FacesContext.getCurrentInstance(); HttpSession session = (HttpSession) ctx.getExternalContext().getSession(false); but session value was null, more generic question would be : How can I get session information in model bean or other beans that are referenced from backing beans in which we have session? Do we have generic method in jsf using which we can access session information throughout JSF Application?

    Read the article

  • Knowing which annotation is selected and accessing properties of it.

    - by kevin Mendoza
    So far my program can display a database of custom annotation views. Eventually I want my program to be able to display extra information after a button on the annotation bubble is clicked. Each element in the database has a unique entry Number, so I thought it would be a good idea to add this entry number as a property of the custom annotation. The problem I am having is that after the button is clicked and the program switches to a new view I am unable to retrieve the entry number of the annotation I selected. Below is the code that assigns the entry Number property to the annotation: for (id mine in mines) { workingCoordinate.latitude = [[mine latitudeInitial] doubleValue]; workingCoordinate.longitude = [[mine longitudeInitial] doubleValue]; iProspectAnnotation *tempMine = [[iProspectAnnotation alloc] initWithCoordinate:workingCoordinate]; [tempMine setTitle:[mine mineName]]; [tempMine setAnnotationEntryNumber:[mine entryNumber]]; } [mines dealloc]; When the button on an annotation is selected, this is the code that initializes the new view: - (void)mapView:(MKMapView *)mapView annotationView:(MKAnnotationView *)view calloutAccessoryControlTapped:(UIControl *)control { mineInformationController *controller = [[mineInformationController alloc] initWithNibName:@"mineInformationController" bundle:nil]; controller.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleCrossDissolve; [self presentModalViewController:controller animated:YES]; [controller release]; } and lastly is my attempt at retrieving the entryNumber property from the new view so that I can compare it to the mines database and retrieve more information on the array element. iProspectFresno_LiteAppDelegate *appDelegate = (iProspectFresno_LiteAppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; NSMutableArray* mines = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithArray:(NSMutableArray *)appDelegate.mines]; for(id mine in mines) { if ([[mine entryNumber] isEqualToNumber: /*the entry Number of the selected annotation*/]) { /* display the information in the mine object */ } } So how do I access this entry number property in this new view controller?

    Read the article

  • Outstanding issues with jQuery.ajax() in IE8?

    - by RyanV
    I am loading feed-items into a ul using this jQuery .ajax() call, which I basically lifted from http://www.makemineatriple.com/2007/10/bbcnewsticker/ var timestamp = true; //set whether timestamp is displayed in $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "sample-feed.xml", dataType: "xml", success: function(xml) { $(xml).find('item').each(function(){ var title = $(this).find('title').text(); var link = $(this).find('link').text(); if(title.length >=57){ title = title.substring(0,54) + "..."; } var addItem = '<li class="tickerTitle"><a href="'+link+'">'+title+'</a>'; if (Boolean(timestamp)== true){ var time = new Date(Date.parse($(this).find('pubDate').text())); addItem +='<span class="timestamp">' + makestamp(time) +'</span></li>'; } $('ul#news').append(addItem); }); It works in Chrome 4 and Firefox 3.6, but I load it up in IE8 and somehow the ajax call fails. I have tried to use IE8's Developer tools to see where exactly it fails, but I haven't been successful yet. So two questions Is there anything blatantly wrong with my ajax call here that could be preventing me from seeing it in IE where it works in FF/Chrome? Are there any special considerations I have to make for the Internet Explorer family of browsers with regards to this particular jQuery method? I've done some googling on this but nothing obvious is coming up. One other note: I am currently using jQuery 1.3.2 due to some legacy scripts on the same site. I did try loading 1.4.2 and it had the same results on IE8

    Read the article

  • Uncommitted reads in SSIS

    - by OldBoy
    I'm trying to debug some legacy Integration Services code, and really want some confirmation on what I think the problem is: We have a very large data task inside a control flow container. This control flow container is set up with TransactionOption = supported - i.e. it will 'inherit' transactions from parent containers, but none are set up here. Inside the data flow there is a call to a stored proc that writes to a table with pseudo code something like: "If a record doesn't exist that matches these parameters then write it" Now, the issue is that there are three records being passed into this proc all with the same parameters, so logically the first record doesn't find a match and a record is created. The second record (with the same parameters) also doesn't find a match and another record is created. My understanding is that the first 'record' passed to the proc in the dataflow is uncommitted and therefore can't be 'read' by the second call. The upshot being that all three records create a row, when logically only the first should. In this scenario am I right in thinking that it is the uncommitted transaction that stops the second call from seeing the first? Even setting the isolation level on the container doesn't help because it's not being wrapped in a transaction anyway.... Hope that makes sense, and any advice gratefully received. Work-arounds confer god-like status on you.

    Read the article

  • Request header field x-user-session is not allowed by Access-Control-Allow-Headers

    - by Saurabh Bhandari
    I am trying to do a CORS call to a WCF service endpoint hosted on IIS7.5. I have configured custom headers in IIS. My configuration looks like below <customHeaders> <add name="Access-Control-Allow-Methods" value="GET,PUT,POST,DELETE,OPTIONS" /> <add name="Access-Control-Allow-Headers" value="x-user-session,origin, content-type, accept" /> <add name="Access-Control-Allow-Credentials" value="true" /> </customHeaders> When I do a POST request I get following error message "Request header field x-user-session is not allowed by Access-Control-Allow-Headers" If I remove my custom header from the call and run it, everything works fine. Also if I do a GET call with custom header then also API works correctly. $.ajax({ type:"POST", success: function(d) { console.log(d) }, timeout: 9000, url: "http://api.myserver.com/Services/v2/CreditCard.svc/update_cc_detail", data: JSON.stringify({"card_id": 1234,"expire_month":"11","expire_year":"2020","full_name":"Demo Account", "number":"4111111111111111","is_primary":true}), xhrFields: { withCredentials: true}, headers: { x-user-session': "B23680D0B8CB5AFED9F624271F1DFAE5052085755AEDDEFDA3834EF16115BCDDC6319BD79FDCCB1E199BB6CC4D0C6FBC9F30242A723BA9C0DFB8BCA3F31F4C7302B1A37EE0A20C42E8AFD45FAB85282FCB62C0B4EC62329BD8573FEBAEBC6E8269FFBF57C7D57E6EF880E396F266E7AD841797792619AD3F1C27A5AE" }, crossDomain: true, contentType: 'application/json' });

    Read the article

  • C# Interface Method calls from a controller

    - by ArjaaAine
    I was just working on some application architecture and this may sound like a stupid question but please explain to me how the following works: Interface: public interface IMatterDAL { IEnumerable<Matter> GetMattersByCode(string input); IEnumerable<Matter> GetMattersBySearch(string input); } Class: public class MatterDAL : IMatterDAL { private readonly Database _db; public MatterDAL(Database db) { _db = db; LoadAll(); //Private Method } public virtual IEnumerable<Matter> GetMattersBySearch(string input) { //CODE return result; } public virtual IEnumerable<Matter> GetMattersByCode(string input) { //CODE return results; } Controller: public class MatterController : ApiController { private readonly IMatterDAL _publishedData; public MatterController(IMatterDAL publishedData) { _publishedData = publishedData; } [ValidateInput(false)] public JsonResult SearchByCode(string id) { var searchText = id; //better name for this var results = _publishedData.GetMattersBySearch(searchText).Select( matter => new { MatterCode = matter.Code, MatterName = matter.Name, matter.ClientCode, matter.ClientName }); return Json(results); } This works, when I call my controller method from jquery and step into it, the call to the _publishedData method, goes into the class MatterDAL. I want to know how does my controller know to go to the MatterDAL implementation of the Interface IMatterDAL. What if I have another class called MatterDAL2 which is based on the interface. How will my controller know then to call the right method? I am sorry if this is a stupid question, this is baffling me.

    Read the article

  • How do C++ compilers actually pass reference parameters?

    - by T.E.D.
    This question came about as a result of some mixed-langauge programming. I had a Fortran routine I wanted to call from C++ code. Fortran passes all its parameters by reference (unless you tell it otherwise). So I thought I'd be clever (bad start right there) in my C++ code and define the Fortran routine something like this: extern "C" void FORTRAN_ROUTINE (unsigned & flag); This code worked for a while but (of course right when I needed to leave) suddenly started blowing up on a return call. Clear indication of a munged call stack. Another engineer came behind me and fixed the problem, declaring that the routine had to be deinfed in C++ as extern "C" void FORTRAN_ROUTINE (unsigned * flag); I'd accept that except for two things. One is that it seems rather counter-intuitive for the compiler to not pass reference parameters by reference, and I can find no documentation anywhere that says that. The other is that he changed a whole raft of other code in there at the same time, so it theoretically could have been another change that fixed whatever the issue was. So the question is, how does C++ actually pass reference parameters? Is it perhaps free to do copy-in, copy-out for small values or something? In other words, are reference parameters utterly useless in mixed-language programming? I'd like to know so I don't make this same code-killing mistake ever again.

    Read the article

  • Setting WCF service for multiple client calls

    - by user348255
    Hi all, I have made a WCF service which is defined like this: [ServiceBehavior(InstanceContextMode = InstanceContextMode.Single, ConcurrencyMode = ConcurrencyMode.Multiple)] binding is done using netTcpBinding. We support 50+ clients that call the server from time to time. Each client opens a channel using channelfactory once it is loaded and uses that channel for all calls (creates the channel and proxy only once). we have built a small load tester that imitates the client by calling the server by 50 different threads at once (using 50 different channels). when we run this tester, after the 10th client tries to connect, all other client fail connecting. We have set throttling to 100. My questions are: 1. is it correct for each client to create a channel and use it through the client life time? or, do i need to use a using statement for each call to the server (create and distroy a new channel for each call). 2. does the service have a limit of channel connections to it? other then throttling? thanks alot, Guy.

    Read the article

  • Do I want an embedded web-server, or what?

    - by mawg
    So, someone want me to hack some code for him. He has a 42" TFT display on which he will display some application/business related data. However, 75% of the screen real estate is unused, so he wants to fill it with "TV/adverts/flash/you know, that kind of thing... web based....". Any advice? Do I want an embedded web-server? If so, which? (he wants free & open source, or as cheap as possible) Do I display it in a browser? (duh! probably, dude) But I don't want/need a menu, address bar, toolbar, etc - it should be full screen (does that mean "kiosk mode"?). Sorry, folks, the requirements are not clear, but I hope that you can guess what he probably means (he is not very techie). How should I proceed with this? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Glassfish complaining about JSF component IDs

    - by Brian
    Hello All I am very new to JSF (v2.0) and I am attempting to learn it at places like netbeans.org and coreservlets.com. I am working on a very simple "add/subtract/multiply/divide" Java webapp and I have run into a problem. When I first started out, the application was enter two numbers and hit a '+' key and they would be automatically added together. Now that I have added more complexity I am having trouble getting the operation to the managed bean. This is what I had when it was just "add": <h:inputText styleClass="display" id="number01" size="4" maxlength="3" value="#{Calculator.number01}" /> <h:inputText styleClass="display" id="number02" size="4" maxlength="3" value="#{Calculator.number02}" /> <h:commandButton id="add" action="answer" value="+" /> For the "answer" page, I display the answer like this: <h:outputText value="#{Calculator.answer}" /> I had the proper getters and setters in the Calculator.java managed bean and the operation worked perfectly. Now I have added the other three operations and I am having trouble visualizing how to get the operation parameter to the bean so that I can switch around it. I tried this: <h:commandButton id="operation" action="answer" value="+" /> <h:commandButton id="operation" action="answer" value="-" /> <h:commandButton id="operation" action="answer" value="*" /> <h:commandButton id="operation" action="answer" value="/" /> However, Glassfish complained that I have already used "operation" once and I am trying to use it four times here. Any adivce/tips on how to get multiple operations to the managed bean so that it can preform the desired operation? Thank you for taking the time to read.

    Read the article

  • What's the correct way to pass parameters from VBScript to COM interface implemented in C#?

    - by nopopem
    I'm trying to expose a fairly simple C# class to COM which should be usable from VBScript (among others). Some objects need to be created via COM calls and will be used in furter calls later on. The definition of the exposed classes and interfaces looks like this: namespace Test { [InterfaceType(ComInterfaceType.InterfaceIsIDispatch)] public interface IComInterface { IFoo CreateFoo(); void UseFoo(int x, IFoo f); } [ClassInterface(ClassInterfaceType.None)] public sealed class CComInterface : IComInterface { public CComInterface() {} public IFoo CreateFoo() { return new Foo(); } public void UseFoo(int x, IFoo f) { f.Bar(); } } [InterfaceType(ComInterfaceType.InterfaceIsIDispatch)] public interface IFoo { void Bar(); } [ClassInterface(ClassInterfaceType.None)] public class Foo : IFoo { internal Foo() {} public void Bar() {} } } The simplest thinkable COM client in VBScript does this: Dim ci Set ci = WScript.CreateObject("Test.CComInterface") Dim foo Set foo = ci.CreateFoo foo.Bar ci.UseFoo 0, foo While the call to Bar succeeds, calling UseFoo fails with "Error 5: invalid procedure call or invalid argument" The generated IDL seems ok to me: dispinterface IComInterface { properties: methods: [id(0x60020003)] IFoo* CreateFoo(); [id(0x60020004)] void UseFoo( [in] long x, [in] IFoo* f); }; The vbs call succeeds when I wrap the second parameter in parentheses like this: ci.UseFoo 0, (foo) As far as I understand (I'm no VBScript expert however) this forces the reference to foo to be passed by value, i.e. a copy of the reference is being made. How can I change the interface so that it can be called with the foo reference directly? Since this will be a public interface used by customers I don't like the idea of having to explain why all the objects created need to be passed back in an extra pair of parentheses...

    Read the article

  • how do I get the program to Know which annotation is selected and be able to access properties of it

    - by kevin Mendoza
    So far my program can display a database of custom annotation views. Eventually I want my program to be able to display extra information after a button on the annotation bubble is clicked. Each element in the database has a unique entry Number, so I thought it would be a good idea to add this entry number as a property of the custom annotation. The problem I am having is that after the button is clicked and the program switches to a new view I am unable to retrieve the entry number of the annotation I selected. Below is the code that assigns the entry Number property to the annotation: for (id mine in mines) { workingCoordinate.latitude = [[mine latitudeInitial] doubleValue]; workingCoordinate.longitude = [[mine longitudeInitial] doubleValue]; iProspectAnnotation *tempMine = [[iProspectAnnotation alloc] initWithCoordinate:workingCoordinate]; [tempMine setTitle:[mine mineName]]; [tempMine setAnnotationEntryNumber:[mine entryNumber]]; } [mines dealloc]; When the button on an annotation is selected, this is the code that initializes the new view: - (void)mapView:(MKMapView *)mapView annotationView:(MKAnnotationView *)view calloutAccessoryControlTapped:(UIControl *)control { mineInformationController *controller = [[mineInformationController alloc] initWithNibName:@"mineInformationController" bundle:nil]; controller.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleCrossDissolve; [self presentModalViewController:controller animated:YES]; [controller release]; } and lastly is my attempt at retrieving the entryNumber property from the new view so that I can compare it to the mines database and retrieve more information on the array element. iProspectFresno_LiteAppDelegate *appDelegate = (iProspectFresno_LiteAppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; NSMutableArray* mines = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithArray:(NSMutableArray *)appDelegate.mines]; for(id mine in mines) { if ([[mine entryNumber] isEqualToNumber: /*the entry Number of the selected annotation*/]) { /* display the information in the mine object */ } } So how do I access this entry number property in this new view controller?

    Read the article

  • Asp.Net 2 integrated sites How to Logout second site programatically.

    - by NBrowne
    Hi , I am working with an asp.net 2.0 site (call it site 1) which has an iframe in it which loads up another site (site2) which is also an asp.net site which is developed by our team. When you log onto site 1 then behind the scenes site 2 is also logged in so that when you click the iframe tab then this displays site 2 with the user logged in (to prevent the user from having to log in twice). The problem i have is that when a user logs out of site 1 then we call some cleanup methods to perform FormsAuthentication.SignOut and clean session variables etc but at the moment no cleanup is called when the user on site 2. So the issue is that if the user opens up Site 2 from within a browser then website 2 opens with the user still logged in which is undesired. Can anyone give me some guidance as to the best approach for this?? One possible approach i though of was just that on click of logout button i could do a call to a custom page on Site 2 which would do the logout. Code below HttpWebRequest request; request = ((HttpWebRequest)(WebRequest.Create("www.mywebsite.com/Site2Logout.aspx"))); request.Method = "POST"; HttpCookie cookie = HttpContext.Current.Request.Cookies[FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName]; Cookie authenticationCookie = new Cookie( FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName, cookie.Value, cookie.Path, HttpContext.Current.Request.Url.Authority); request .CookieContainer = new CookieContainer(); request .CookieContainer.Add(authenticationCookie); response.GetResponse(); Problem i am having with this code is that when i run it and debug on Site 2 and check to see if the user is Authenticated they are not which i dont understand because if i open browser and browse to Site 2 i am Still authenticated. Any ideas , different direction to take etc ??? Please let me know if you need any more info or if i something i have said dosent make sense. Thanks

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET 2.0 in Virtual Trying to Use SQL State Server

    - by user251660
    We have IIS 6 running on a W2003 Server. The root web site is running a v1.1 site. Under this site we have a virtual running a v2.0 site (with a separate application pool). The web.config for the root site is using SQL as its state server and has a 1.1 SQL state server database installed. The 2.0 virtual web.config does not need state and its web.config has no reference to a state server. When we attempt to call the virtual we receive this error message. "Unable to use SQL Server because ASP.NET version 2.0 Session State is not installed on the SQL server. Please install ASP.NET Session State SQL Server version 2.0 or above. This issue is currently only occurring on one web server. The rest are able to run the 2.0 virtual application. I also notice that if we call the 2.0 virtual with the IP address it does not generate the error, however if we call it with the host header name it generates the error (this behavior is only on the 1 web server with the error, all the others can be called with either the ip or host header without error). As an additional note the root and virtual are running with SSL. My theory is that the virtual 2.0 application is inheriting the 1.1 web.config state server entry from the root and when it looks at the state server it sees it as a 1.1 version and reports the error that it needs a 2.0 state server. I however cannot understand why the other servers are not behaving in this matter. All of the servers are on the same OS service pack as well as the same version of .net framework. Any ideas? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Blackberry: Getting uncaught exception java.lang.securityexception

    - by Maxim Xion
    here is my code to open an image file from SDcard in Blackberry import javax.microedition.midlet.*; import javax.microedition.lcdui.*; import java.io.*; public class DisplayAnImage extends MIDlet { private Display mDisplay; private Form mForm; private Image pngBackground; public void startApp() { try{ pngBackground = Image.createImage("file:///Media Card/test_image.png"); ImageItem img = new ImageItem("bg",pngBackground, ImageItem.LAYOUT_EXPAND,"background",ImageItem.PLAIN); mForm = new Form("MIDlet Developer Guide: Display an image."); mForm.append(img); mDisplay = Display.getDisplay(this); mDisplay.setCurrent(mForm); } catch(IOException e) { mForm.append(e.getMessage()); } } public void pauseApp() { } public void destroyApp(boolean flag) { } } While I am running this app with giving all permission to app it shows me "uncaught exception java.lang.securityexception". Please somebody help me on this. Thanks in advance.. :-)

    Read the article

  • unresolved token/symbol in MC++ wrapper class calling native code

    - by rediVider
    I'm new to MC++ and have basically no idea what's going on yet. In trying to get this working i've determined many things that don't work, i'm just looking for one of the ways that will work. I have a mc++ class as follows that seems to have to be a "ref" class to allow me to see any methods/properties. public ref class EmCeePlusPlus { static void Open(void) { Testor* t = new Testor(); Testor::Open(); }; }; extern public class Testor { public: Testor() { }; static void Open(void) { int x = 3; int xx = cli_lock(x); }; }; Now, the only reason i created the class Testor, and moved the call to cli_open to it, is because i was getting a unresolved external symbol if i put the same call in the ref class. In this current code, however, I get an uresolved token error and unresolved symbol error ONLY if i have the call to Testor::Open(). If that line is commented then it compiles fine. As it is I get the errors below. cli_lock() is native code that is able to be called externally by other native DLLs with not problems. Any ideas where i should be looking? error LNK2028: unresolved token (0A000056) "extern "C" int __cdecl cli_lock(int)" (?cli_lock@@$$J0YAHH@Z) referenced in function "public: static void __cdecl Giga::Testor::Open(void)" (?Open@Testor@Giga@@$$FSAXXZ) error LNK2019: unresolved external symbol "extern "C" int __cdecl cli_lock(int)" (?cli_lock@@$$J0YAHH@Z) referenced in function "public: static void __cdecl Giga::Testor::Open(void)" (?Open@Testor@Giga@@$$FSAXXZ)

    Read the article

  • Error 2025: The supplied DisplayObject must be a child of the caller

    - by Mocca
    Hi, sorry, new to actionscript 3. I have a display() function for an object rotator(image based like a QT object movie). It first saves the current image in a helper variable and then allocates a new image, from the library, beneath the old one. To get a nice crossfade effect, the old image's alpha is looped down via enter_frame and then removed. Which is where there seems to be an issue with the display list, maybe recognizing oldImg's value as being already added? (it's not a first pass error) Btw, do i have to remove the old image or can i leave it, for when it's being called up via the mouse position again? (the image number can get fairly large) Does anyone have further insight? Thanks! function display(num:Number):void //num: image number { ... oldImg = newImg; ClassReference = getDefinitionByName("Class"+num) as Class; imgBD = new ClassReference(0,0); newImg = new Bitmap(imgBD); images.addChild(newImg); newImg.x=0; newImg.y=0; } function onEnter(evt:Event):void { if (oldImg) { if (oldImg.alpha > 0) oldImg.alpha -= 0.15; **else images.removeChild(oldImg);** } ... }

    Read the article

  • Is glDisableClientState required?

    - by Shawn
    Every example I've come across for rendering array data is similar to the following code, in which in your drawing loop you first call glEnableClientState for what you will be using and when you are done you call glDisableClientState: void drawScene(void) { glClear(GL_COLOR_BUFFER_BIT|GL_DEPTH_BUFFER_BIT); glEnableClientState(GL_VERTEX_ARRAY); glEnableClientState(GL_TEXTURE_COORD_ARRAY); glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D, texturePointerA); glTexCoordPointer(2, GL_FLOAT, 0,textureCoordA); glVertexPointer(3, GL_FLOAT, 0, verticesA); glDrawElements(GL_QUADS, numPointsDrawnA, GL_UNSIGNED_BYTE, drawIndicesA); glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D, texturePointerB); glTexCoordPointer(2, GL_FLOAT, 0,textureCoordB); glVertexPointer(3, GL_FLOAT, 0, verticesB); glDrawElements(GL_QUADS, numPointsDrawnB, GL_UNSIGNED_BYTE, drawIndicesB); glDisableClientState(GL_TEXTURE_COORD_ARRAY); glDisableClientState(GL_VERTEX_ARRAY); } In my program I am always using texture coordinates and vertex arrays, so I thought it was pointless to keep enabling and disabling them every frame. I moved the glEnableClientState outside of the loop like so: bool initGL(void) { //... glEnableClientState(GL_VERTEX_ARRAY); glEnableClientState(GL_TEXTURE_COORD_ARRAY); } void drawScene(void) { glClear(GL_COLOR_BUFFER_BIT|GL_DEPTH_BUFFER_BIT); glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D, texturePointerA); glTexCoordPointer(2, GL_FLOAT, 0,textureCoordA); glVertexPointer(3, GL_FLOAT, 0, verticesA); glDrawElements(GL_QUADS, numPointsDrawnA, GL_UNSIGNED_BYTE, drawIndicesA); glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D, texturePointerB); glTexCoordPointer(2, GL_FLOAT, 0,textureCoordB); glVertexPointer(3, GL_FLOAT, 0, verticesB); glDrawElements(GL_QUADS, numPointsDrawnB, GL_UNSIGNED_BYTE, drawIndicesB); } It seems to work fine. My question is: Do I need to call glDisableClientState somewhere; perhaps when the program is closed?. Also, is it ok to do it like this? Is there something I'm missing since everyone else enables and disables each frame?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 353 354 355 356 357 358 359 360 361 362 363 364  | Next Page >