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  • How to create custom pages (Drupal 6.x)

    - by jc70
    In the template.php file I inserted the code below: I found a tutorial online that gives the code, but I'm confused on how to get it to work. I copied the code below and inserted it into the template.php from the theme HTML5_base. I duplicated the page.tpl.php file and created custom pages -- page-gallery.tpl.php and page-articles.tpl.php. I inserted some text to the files just see that I've navigated to the pages w/ the changes. It looks like Drupal is not recognizing gallery.tpl.php and page-articles.tpl.php. In the template.php there are the following functions: html5_base_preprocess_page() html5_base_preprocess_node() html5_base_preprocess_block() In the tutorial it uses these functions: phptemplate_preprocess_page() phptemplate_preprocess_block() phptemplate_preprocess_node() function phptemplate_preprocess_page(&$vars) { //code block from the Drupal handbook //the path module is required and must be activated if(module_exists('path')) { //gets the "clean" URL of the current page $alias = drupal_get_path_alias($_GET['q']); $suggestions = array(); $template_filename = 'page'; foreach(explode('/', $alias) as $path_part) { $template_filename = $template_filename.'-'.$path_part; $suggestions[] = $template_filename; } $vars['template_files'] = $suggestions; } } function phptemplate_preprocess_node(&$vars) { //default template suggestions for all nodes $vars['template_files'] = array(); $vars['template_files'][] = 'node'; //individual node being displayed if($vars['page']) { $vars['template_files'][] = 'node-page'; $vars['template_files'][] = 'node-'.$vars['node']->type.'-page'; $vars['template_files'][] = 'node-'.$vars['node']->nid.'-page'; } //multiple nodes being displayed on one page in either teaser //or full view else { //template suggestions for nodes in general $vars['template_files'][] = 'node-'.$vars['node']->type; $vars['template_files'][] = 'node-'.$vars['node']->nid; //template suggestions for nodes in teaser view //more granular control if($vars['teaser']) { $vars['template_files'][] = 'node-'.$vars['node']->type.'-teaser'; $vars['template_files'][] = 'node-'.$vars['node']->nid.'-teaser'; } } } function phptemplate_preprocess_block(&$vars) { //the "cleaned-up" block title to be used for suggestion file name $subject = str_replace(" ", "-", strtolower($vars['block']->subject)); $vars['template_files'] = array('block', 'block-'.$vars['block']->delta, 'block-'.$subject); }

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  • Convert Google Analytics cookies to Local/Session Storage

    - by David Murdoch
    Google Analytics sets 4 cookies that will be sent with all requests to that domain (and ofset its subdomains). From what I can tell no server actually uses them directly; they're only sent with __utm.gif as a query param. Now, obviously Google Analytics reads, writes and acts on their values and they will need to be available to the GA tracking script. So, what I am wondering is if it is possible to: rewrite the __utm* cookies to local storage after ga.js has written them delete them after ga.js has run rewrite the cookies FROM local storage back to cookie form right before ga.js reads them start over Or, monkey patch ga.js to use local storage before it begins the cookie read/write part. Obviously if we are going so far out of the way to remove the __utm* cookies we'll want to also use the Async variant of Analytics. I'm guessing the down vote was because I didn't ask a question. DOH! My questions are: Can it be done as described above? If so, why hasn't it been done? I have a default HTML/CSS/JS boilerplate template that passes YSlow, PageSpeed, and Chrome's Audit with near perfect scores. I'm really looking for a way to squeeze those remaining cookie bytes from Google Analytics in browsers that support local storage.

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  • How do I create efficient instance variable mutators in Matlab?

    - by Trent B
    Previously, I implemented mutators as follows, however it ran spectacularly slowly on a recursive OO algorithm I'm working on, and I suspected it may have been because I was duplicating objects on every function call... is this correct? %% Example Only obj2 = tripleAllPoints(obj1) obj.pts = obj.pts * 3; obj2 = obj1 end I then tried implementing mutators without using the output object... however, it appears that in MATLAB i can't do this - the changes won't "stick" because of a scope issue? %% Example Only tripleAllPoints(obj1) obj1.pts = obj1.pts * 3; end For application purposes, an extremely simplified version of my code (which uses OO and recursion) is below. classdef myslice properties pts % array of pts nROW % number of rows nDIM % number of dimensions subs % sub-slices end % end properties methods function calcSubs(obj) obj.subs = cell(1,obj.nROW); for i=1:obj.nROW obj.subs{i} = myslice; obj.subs{i}.pts = obj.pts(1:i,2:end); end end function vol = calcVol(obj) if obj.nROW == 1 obj.volume = prod(obj.pts); else obj.volume = 0; calcSubs(obj); for i=1:obj.nROW obj.volume = obj.volume + calcVol(obj.subs{i}); end end end end % end methods end % end classdef

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  • PHP Form Validation

    - by JM4
    This question will undoubtedly be difficult to answer and ask in a way that makes sense but I'll try my best: I have a form which uses PHP to display certain sections of the form such as: <?php if ($_SESSION['EnrType'] == "Individual") { display only form information for individual enrollment } ?> and <?php if ($_SESSION['Num_Enrs'] > 6) { display only form information for 7 total members enrollment } ?> In each form piece, unique information is collected about each enrollee but the basic criteria for each enrollee is the same, i.e. All enrollee's must use have a value in the FirstName field. Each field is named according to the enrollee number, i.e. Num1FirstName; Num2FirstName. I have a PHP validation script which is absolutely fantastic and am not looking to change it but the issue I am running into is duplication of the script in order to validate ALL fields in one swoop. On submission, all POSTED items are run through my validation script and based on the rules set return an error if they do not equal true. Sample code: if (isset($_POST['submit'])) { // import the validation library require("validation.php"); $rules = array(); // stores the validation rules //All Enrollee Rules $rules[] = "required,Num1FirstName,Num2FirstName,The First Name field is required."; The script above does the following, $rules[] ="REQUIREMENT,fieldname,error message" where requirement gives criteria (in this case, simply that a value is passed), fieldname is the name of the field being validated, and error message returns the error used. My Goal is to use the same formula above and have $rules[] run through ALL firstnames and return the error posted ONLY if they exist (i.e. dont check for member #7's first name if it doesnt exist on the screen). If I simply put a comma between the 'fieldnames' this only checks for the first, then second, and so on so this wont work. Any ideas?

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  • Transitioning from Domain Authentication to SQL Server Authentication

    - by Albert Perrien
    Greetings all, I've run into a problem that has me stumped. I've put together a database in SQL Server Express, and I'm having a strange permissions problem. The database is on my development machine with a domain user: DOMAIN\albertp. My development database server is set for "SQL Server and Windows Authentication" mode. I can edit and query my database without any problems when I log in using Windows Authentication. However, when I log in to any user that uses SQL Server authentication (Including sa) I get this message when I run queries against my database. SELECT * FROM [Testing].[dbo].[AuditingReport] I get: Msg 18456, Level 14, State 1, Line 1 Login failed for user 'auditor'. I'm logged into the server from SQL Server Management Studio as 'auditor' and I don't see anything in the error log about the login failure. I've already run: Use Testing; Grant All to auditor; Go And I still get the same error. What permissions do I have to set for the database to be usable by others outside of my personal domain login? Or am I looking at the wrong problem? My ultimate goal is to have the database be accessible from a set of PHP pages, using a either a common login (hence 'auditor') or a login specific to a set of individual users.

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  • Class initialization and synchronized class method

    - by nybon
    Hi there, In my application, there is a class like below: public class Client { public synchronized static print() { System.out.println("hello"); } static { doSomething(); // which will take some time to complete } } This class will be used in a multi thread environment, many threads may call the Client.print() method simultaneously. I wonder if there is any chance that thread-1 triggers the class initialization, and before the class initialization complete, thread-2 enters into print method and print out the "hello" string? I see this behavior in a production system (64 bit JVM + Windows 2008R2), however, I cannot reproduce this behavior with a simple program in any environments. In Java language spec, section 12.4.1 (http://java.sun.com/docs/books/jls/second_edition/html/execution.doc.html), it says: A class or interface type T will be initialized immediately before the first occurrence of any one of the following: T is a class and an instance of T is created. T is a class and a static method declared by T is invoked. A static field declared by T is assigned. A static field declared by T is used and the reference to the field is not a compile-time constant (§15.28). References to compile-time constants must be resolved at compile time to a copy of the compile-time constant value, so uses of such a field never cause initialization. According to this paragraph, the class initialization will take place before the invocation of the static method, however, it is not clear if the class initialization need to be completed before the invocation of the static method. JVM should mandate the completion of class initialization before entering its static method according to my intuition, and some of my experiment supports my guess. However, I did see the opposite behavior in another environment. Can someone shed me some light on this? Any help is appreciated, thanks.

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  • Why does resolveBinding() return null even though I setResolveBindings(true) on my ASTParser?

    - by Woody Zenfell III
    I am writing an Eclipse plug-in that uses JDT AST's ASTParser to parse a method. I am looking within that method for the creation of a particular type of object. When I find a ClassInstanceCreation, I call getType() on it to see what type is being instantiated. I want to be sure that the fully-resolved type being dealt with there is the one I think it is, so I tell the resultant Type object to resolveBinding(). I get null back even though there are no compilation errors and even though I called setResolveBindings(true) on my ASTParser. I gave my ASTParser (via setSource()) the ICompilationUnit that contains my method, so the parser has access to the entire workspace context. final IMethod method = ...; final ASTParser parser = ASTParser.newParser(AST.JLS3); parser.setResolveBindings(true); parser.setSource(method.getCompilationUnit()); parser.setSourceRange(method.getSourceRange().getOffset(), method.getSourceRange().getLength()); parser.setKind(ASTParser.K_CLASS_BODY_DECLARATIONS); final TypeDeclaration astRoot = (TypeDeclaration) parser.createAST(null); final ClassInstanceCreation classInstanceCreation = walkAstAndFindMyExpression(astRoot); final Type instantiatedType = classInstanceCreation.getType(); System.out.println("BINDING: " + instantiatedType.resolveBinding()); Why does resolveBinding() return null? How can I get the binding information?

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  • how can a Win32 App plugin load its DLL in its own directory

    - by Jean-Denis Muys
    My code is a plugin for a specific Application, written in C++ using Visual Studio 8. It uses two DLL from an external provider. Unfortunately, my plugin fails to start because the DLLs are not found (I put them in the same directory as the plugin itself). When I manually move or copy the DLLs to the host application directory, then the plugin loads fine. This moving was deemed unacceptably cumbersome for the end user, and I am looking for a way for my plugin to load its DLLs transparently. What can I do? Relevant details: the host Application plugins are located in a directory mandated by the host application. That directory is not in the DLL search path and I don't control it. The plugin is itself packaged as a subdirectory of the plugin directory, holding the plugin code itself, but also any resource associated with the plugin (eg images, configuration files…). I control what's inside that subdirectory, called a "bundle", but not where it's located. the common plugin installation idiom for that App is for the end user to copy the plugin bundle to the plugin directory. This plugin is a port from the Macintosh version of the plugin. On the Mac there is no issue because each binary contains its own dynamic library search path, which I set as I needed to for my plugin binary. To set that on the Mac simply involves a project setting in the Xcode IDE. This is why I would hope for something similar in Visual Studio, but I could not find anything relevant. Moreover, Visual Studio's help was anything but, and neither was Google. A possible workaround would be for my code to explicitly tell Windows where to find the DLL, but I don't know how, and in any case, since my code is not even started, it hasn't got the opportunity to do so. As a Mac developer, I realize that I may be asking for something very elementary. If such is the case, I apologize, but I have run out of hair to pull out.

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  • Parallel.Foreach loop creating multiple db connections throws connection errors?

    - by shawn.mek
    Login failed. The login is from an untrusted domain and cannot be used with Windows authentication I wanted to get my code running in parallel, so I changed my foreach loop to a parallel foreach loop. It seemed simple enough. Each loop connects to the database, looks up some stuff, performs some logic, adds some stuff, closes the connection. But I get the above error? I'm using my local sql server and entity framework (each loop uses it's own context). Is there some problem with connecting multiple times using the same local login or something? How did I get around this? I have (before trying to covert to a parallel.foreach loop) split my list of objects that I am foreach looping through into four groups (separate csv files) and run four concurrent instances of my program (which ran faster overall than just one, thus the idea for parallel). So it seems connecting to the db shouldn't be a problem? Any ideas? EDIT: Here's before var gtgGenerator = new CustomGtgGenerator(); var connectionString = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["BioEntities"].ConnectionString; var allAccessionsFromObs = _GetAccessionListFromDataFiles(collectionId); ForEach(cloneIdAndAccessions in allAccessionsFromObs) DoWork(gtgGenerator, taxonId, organismId, cloneIdAndAccessions, connectionString)); after var gtgGenerator = new CustomGtgGenerator(); var connectionString = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["BioEntities"].ConnectionString; var allAccessionsFromObs = _GetAccessionListFromDataFiles(collectionId); Parallel.ForEach(allAccessionsFromObs, cloneIdAndAccessions => DoWork(gtgGenerator, taxonId, organismId, cloneIdAndAccessions, connectionString)); Inside the DoWork I use the BioEntities using (var bioEntities = new BioEntities(connectionString)) {...}

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  • How to access webbrowser object on this code? C++

    - by extintor
    I found this example http://www.mvps.org/user32/webhost.cab that host an Internet Explorer WebBrowser object, and it uses this code to access the object void webhostwnd::CreateEmbeddedWebControl(void) { OleCreate(CLSID_WebBrowser,IID_IOleObject,OLERENDER_DRAW,0,&site,&storage,(void**)&mpWebObject); mpWebObject->SetHostNames(L"Web Host",L"Web View"); // I have no idea why this is necessary. remark it out and everything works perfectly. OleSetContainedObject(mpWebObject,TRUE); RECT rect; GetClientRect(hwnd,&rect); mpWebObject->DoVerb(OLEIVERB_SHOW,NULL,&site,-1,hwnd,&rect); IWebBrowser2* iBrowser; mpWebObject->QueryInterface(IID_IWebBrowser2,(void**)&iBrowser); VARIANT vURL; vURL.vt = VT_BSTR; vURL.bstrVal = SysAllocString(L"http://google.com"); VARIANT ve1, ve2, ve3, ve4; ve1.vt = VT_EMPTY; ve2.vt = VT_EMPTY; ve3.vt = VT_EMPTY; ve4.vt = VT_EMPTY; iBrowser->put_Left(0); iBrowser->put_Top(0); iBrowser->put_Width(rect.right); iBrowser->put_Height(rect.bottom); iBrowser->Navigate2(&vURL, &ve1, &ve2, &ve3, &ve4); VariantClear(&vURL); iBrowser->Release(); } I don't have much experience with cpp, I want to know how to access that same ie object (to use Navigate2 for example) from a button or something like that. How could I achieve this?

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  • Why is my .htaccess file redirecting to full server path instead of relative path?

    - by death.au
    I've never had a problem with cakePHP before, but something's odd about this server and is causing the redirects in the .htaccess files to behave oddly. CakePHP uses mod_rewrite in .htaccess files to redirect requests to its own webroot folder. The problem is that the redirects are listing the wrong path and causing a 404 error. My CakePHP application, which is stored in the listings directory, has a .htaccess file as follows: <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine on RewriteRule ^$ app/webroot/ [R=301,L] RewriteRule (.*) app/webroot/$1 [R=301,L] </IfModule> (*note that the R=301 causes an external redirect so we can see what is going on from our end. It should really omit this flag and do the redirect internally, transparent to end-users) This is supposed to redirect any request from http://hostname.com/~username/listings/ to http://hostname.com/~username/listings/app/webroot/ However, rather than simply adding “app/webroot/” to the end as it is supposed to, it is adding the full server path ( /home/username/public_html/listings/app/webroot/ ) resulting in the final URL http://hostname.com/home/username/public_html/listings/app/webroot/ which is obviously incorrect and triggers a 404 error. The hosting is on a shared hosting account, so that limits what I can do with the settings. I've never seen this happen before, and I'm thinking it's something wrong from the hosting side of things, but if anyone has some helpful suggestions then I can put them to the hosting company as well.

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  • Postgre database ignoring created index ?!

    - by drasto
    I have an Postgre database and a table called my_table. There are 4 columns in that table (id, column1, column2, column3). The id column is primary key, there are no other constrains or indexes on columns. The table has about 200000 rows. I want to print out all rows which has value of column column2 equal(case insensitive) to 'value12'. I use this: SELECT * FROM my_table WHERE column2 = lower('value12') here is the execution plan for this statement(result of set enable_seqscan=on; EXPLAIN SELECT * FROM my_table WHERE column2 = lower('value12')): Seq Scan on my_table (cost=0.00..4676.00 rows=10000 width=55) Filter: ((column2)::text = 'value12'::text) I consider this to be to slow so I create an index on column column2 for better prerformance of searches: CREATE INDEX my_index ON my_table (lower(column2)) Now I ran the same select: SELECT * FROM my_table WHERE column2 = lower('value12') and I expect it to be much faster because it can use index. However it is not faster, it is as slow as before. So I check the execution plan and it is the same as before(see above). So it still uses sequential scen and it ignores the index! Where is the problem ?

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  • Applying fine-grained security to an existing application

    - by Mark
    I've inherited a reasonably large and complex ASP.NET MVC3 web application using EF Code First on SQL Server. It uses ASP.NET Membership roles with database authentication. The controller actions are secured with attributes derived from AuthorizeAttribute that map roles to actions. There are extension methods for the finer points, such as showing a particular widget to particular roles. This is works great and I have a good understanding of the current security model. I've been asked to provide finer grained security at the data level. For example a 'Customer' user can only see data (throughout the database) associated with themselves and not other Customers. The problem is that 'Customer' is only 1 of 5 different types with their own specific restrictions (each of the 9 roles is one of these 5 types). The best thing I can think of is to go through all the data repositories and extend each and every LINQ statements/query with a filter for every user type. Even if I had time for that it doesn't seem like the most elegant way. Any suggestions? I really don't know where to start with this so anything could be helpful. Many thanks.

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  • Using Hibernate with MS ACCESS 2007 Database (Free JDBC Driver)

    - by Quentin T.
    1. I want to do a reverse engineering action with the Hibernate plugin of Eclipse on a MS Access 2007 Database. I'm forced to use a existing MS Access 2007 db. A easy solution is to buy the HXTT. But I want to use a free driver to do my work. So I tried to apply this post : http://www.programmingforfuture.com/2011/06/how-to-use-ms-access-with-hibernate.html (That uses the SQL Server dialect and the driver sun.jdbc.odbc.JdbcOdbcDriver) Unfortunately I have an error that nobody seems to have been on the internet: Exception while generating code Reason : org.hibernate.exception.GenericJDBCException: Error while reading primary key meta data for `c:/myaccessdb.mdb`.TableTest1 I have try to change the primary key on my MS Access DB (deleting all primary key) or to try the reverse engineering on a MS ACCESS with only one table without primary key, but I got all times the problems. 2. The purpose of my job is to transfer daily (weekly) an Oracle 11g database with data from an existing database MS ACCESS 2007. And I thought to use a procedure (Hibernate EJB) Java to be launched automatically every week to do the data transfer. Is this is the best solution ? Configuration : sun.jdbc.odbc.JdbcOdbcDriver v??? Hibernate v3.4 Eclipse ps: If you are a HXTT developer or seller please be indulgent with my post ;). Making money by making people believe that you help, it's bad ! A solution is to use Derby Client driver, as the solution in the post: Does anyone know if Hibernate and java will work effectively with Access? But a clarification of the answer of Rich Seller is required. Could you explain your answer and explain your configuration (hibernate.cfg.xml, persistence.xml and what URL you use in the property name="hibernate.connection.url") without using paying HXTT driver but with the free Derby driver.

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  • Wordpress/CSS: List Style Problem.

    - by Ben
    Hi all! I am reasonably new to Wordpress custom themes but I do have some knowlege of CSS, although I am terrible at customising other peoples code which is why I have the problem I am about to explain. I have started a website that my girlfriend and I are doing together. It uses the Simplo Wordpress theme which is pretty cool but when you add a post that has a list in it. It doesn't show the bullets on each of the items. I have tried adding 'list-style:circle;' to a the.postItem class and a couple of other divs and classes that I thought were relevant but it doesn't work. You can take a look for yourself, it may be easier to understand my problem that way. If you go to: http://brokeandstarving.com/234/bennos-shepherds-pie/ there is a list of ingredients and also the steps under the method is a list as well. My question is, where do I edit the CSS to make the bullets appear next to the list items? I hope that makes sense. Thanks in advance, - Ben

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  • Stream PDF to another local App

    - by Nathan
    Hi, I'm currently trying to optimize a small firefox extension that will grab a pdf off the current document and send it to a port that another local application is listening on. Right now it uses a terrifying hackjob of cache viewer. The way I'm getting it is loading the cache, searching through it using the current URL and grabbing the file and saving it to a temp directory. Then I stream the file in, delete the temp, and send it through the socket. Now, my new design, ideally I'd want to build it from scratch and cut out saving it to the local machine at all, and just stream it through the socket. I've been looking at doing something like, //check page to ensure its a pdf //init in/out streams //stream through sock //flush Now, this would be vastly superior to the 400 line hacked up mess I have now, but I'm new to building FF extensions, and after reading a lot about URIs and the file streaming and such I'm probably more confused than when I started trying to fix this three hours ago. I'm okay with sending things through the sockets and whatnot, I understand that, I'm mainly confused about what multitude of interfaces I want to use. Gah! Thanks! Also, long time reader, first time poster!

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  • templete class c++

    - by inna karpasas
    hi! i try to design a templete for my universty project. i wrote the follwing cod: #ifndef _LinkedList_H_ #define _LinkedList_H_ #include "Link.h" #include <ostream> template <class L>//error one class LinkedList { private: Link<L> *pm_head; Link<L> * pm_tail; int m_numOfElements; Link<L>* FindLink(L * dataToFind); public: LinkedList(); ~LinkedList(); int GetNumOfElements(){return m_numOfElements;} bool Add( L * data); L *FindData(L * data); template <class L> friend ostream & operator<<(ostream& os,const LinkedList<L> listToprint);//error two L* GetDataOnTop(); bool RemoveFromHead(); L* Remove(L * toRemove); this templete uses the link class templete #ifndef _Link_H_ #define _Link_H_ template <class T>//error 3 class Link { private: T* m_data; Link* m_next; Link* m_prev; public: Link(T* data); ~Link(void); bool Link::operator ==(const Link& other)const; /*getters*/ Link* GetNext()const {return m_next;} Link* GetPrev()const {return m_prev;} T* GetData()const {return m_data;} //setters void SetNext(Link* next) {m_next = next;} void SetPrev(Link* prev) {m_prev = prev;} void SetData(T* data) {m_data = data;} }; error one: shadows template parm class L' error two:declaration ofclass L' error three: shadows template parm `class T' i dont understand what is the problem. i can relly usr your help thank you :)

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  • java singleton instantiation

    - by jurchiks
    I've found three ways of instantiating a Singleton, but I have doubts as to whether any of them is the best there is. I'm using them in a multi-threaded environment and prefer lazy instantiation. Sample 1: private static final ClassName INSTANCE = new ClassName(); public static ClassName getInstance() { return INSTANCE; } Sample 2: private static class SingletonHolder { public static final ClassName INSTANCE = new ClassName(); } public static ClassName getInstance() { return SingletonHolder.INSTANCE; } Sample 3: private static ClassName INSTANCE; public static synchronized ClassName getInstance() { if (INSTANCE == null) INSTANCE = new ClassName(); return INSTANCE; } The project I'm using ATM uses Sample 2 everywhere, but I kind of like Sample 3 more. There is also the Enum version, but I just don't get it. The question here is - in which cases I should/shouldn't use any of these variations? I'm not looking for lengthy explanations though (there's plenty of other topics about that, but they all eventually turn into arguing IMO), I'd like it to be understandable with few words.

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  • Delphi TRttiType.GetMethods return zero TRttiMethod instances

    - by conciliator
    I've recently been able to fetch a TRttiType for an interface using TRttiContext.FindType using Robert Loves "GetType"-workaround ("registering" the interface by an explicit call to ctx.GetType, e.g. RType := ctx.GetType(TypeInfo(IMyPrettyLittleInterface));). One logical next step would be to iterate the methods of said interface. Consider program rtti_sb_1; {$APPTYPE CONSOLE} uses SysUtils, Rtti, mynamespace in 'mynamespace.pas'; var ctx: TRttiContext; RType: TRttiType; Method: TRttiMethod; begin ctx := TRttiContext.Create; RType := ctx.GetType(TypeInfo(IMyPrettyLittleInterface)); if RType <> nil then begin for Method in RType.GetMethods do WriteLn(Method.Name); end; ReadLn; end. This time, my mynamespace.pas looks like this: IMyPrettyLittleInterface = interface ['{6F89487E-5BB7-42FC-A760-38DA2329E0C5}'] procedure SomeProcedure; end; Unfortunately, RType.GetMethods returns a zero-length TArray-instance. Are there anyone able to reproduce my troubles? (Note that in my example I've explicitly fetched the TRttiType using TRttiContext.GetType, not the workaround; the introduction is included to warn readers that there might be some unresolved issues regarding rtti and interfaces.) Thanks!

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  • ASP.Net forms authentication - multiple providers

    - by Chris Klepeis
    I have an ASP.Net 4.0 application, and within it is a folder called "Forum", setup as a sub application in IIS 7. This forum package implements a custom provider for .net membership. The forum is running in .net 3.5. I'd like to setup the main site so that when users login, it logs them into both my site and the forum site. Both the main site and the forum have separate .Net membership tables. How can I specify which provider to use with formsauthentication? right now I have FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie(...); this, however, just uses my default provider and does nothing with the provider for the forum I tried setting the forum app and my web app to have the same cookie name, as well as setting the machinekey on each: <machineKey validationKey="AutoGenerate" validation="SHA1" /> no dice. I googled and didnt really come up with any example of how to use multiple providers like I want to. I updated my web.config to have both provideers but this is useless if I cannot specify in my code which one to use.

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  • How to tell what account my webservice is running under in Visual Studio 2005

    - by John Galt
    I'm going a little nuts trying to understand the doc on impersonation and delegation and the question has come up what account my webservice is running under. I am logged as myDomainName\johna on my development workstation called JOHNXP. From Vstudio2005 I start my webservice via Debug and the wsdl page comes up in my browser. From Task Manager, I see the following while sitting at a breakpoint in my .asmx code: aspnet_wp.exe pid=1316 UserName=ASPNET devenv.exe pid=3304 UserName=johna The IIS Directory Security tab for the Virtual Directory that hosts my ws.asmx code has "Enable Anonymous access" UNCHECKED and has "Integrated Windows Authentication" CHECKED. So when the MSDN people state "you must configure the user account under which the server process runs", what would they be refering to in the case of my little webservice described above? I am quoting from: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa302400.aspx Ultimately, I want this webservice of mine to impersonate whatever authenticated domain user browses through to an invoke of my webservice. My webservice in turn consumes another ASMX webservice on a different server (but same domain). I need this remote webservice to use the impersonated domain user credentials (not those of my webservice on JOHNXP). So its getting a little snarly for me to understand this and I see I am unclear about the account my web service uses. I think it is ASPNET in IIS 5.1 on WinXP but not sure.

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  • Cryptography: best practices for keys in memory?

    - by Johan
    Background: I got some data encrypted with AES (ie symmetric crypto) in a database. A server side application, running on a (assumed) secure and isolated Linux box, uses this data. It reads the encrypted data from the DB, and writes back encrypted data, only dealing with the unencrypted data in memory. So, in order to do this, the app is required to have the key stored in memory. The question is, is there any good best practices for this? Securing the key in memory. A few ideas: Keeping it in unswappable memory (for linux: setting SHM_LOCK with shmctl(2)?) Splitting the key over multiple memory locations. Encrypting the key. With what, and how to keep the...key key.. secure? Loading the key from file each time its required (slow and if the evildoer can read our memory, he can probably read our files too) Some scenarios on why the key might leak: evildoer getting hold of mem dump/core dump; bad bounds checking in code leading to information leakage; The first one seems like a good and pretty simple thing to do, but how about the rest? Other ideas? Any standard specifications/best practices? Thanks for any input!

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  • Tree data in MySql database table

    - by Robert Koritnik
    I have a table that uses Adjacency list model for hierarchy storage. My most relevant columns in this table are therefore: ItemId // is auto_increment ParentId Level ParentTrail // in the form of "parentId/../parentId/itemId" then I created a before insert tigger, that populates columns Level and ParentTrail. Since the last column also includes current item's ID I had to use a trick in my trigger because auto_increment columns are not available in the before insert trigger. So I get that value from the information_schema.tables table. All works fine, until I try to write an update trigger, that would update my item and its descendants when the item changes its parent (ParentId has changed). But I can't make an update on my table inside the update trigger. All I can do is to change current record's values but not other's. I could use a separate table for hierarchy data, but that would mean that I would also have to create a view that would combine these two tables (1:1 relation) and I would like to avoid this is at all possible. Is there a way to have all these in the same table so that these fields (Level and ParetTrail) set/update themselves automagically using triggers?

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  • Is there a way to programatically check dependencies of an EXE?

    - by Mason Wheeler
    I've got a certain project that I build and distribute to users. I have two build configurations, Debug and Release. Debug, obviously, is for my use in debugging, but there's an additional wrinkle: the Debug configuration uses a special debugging memory manager, with a dependency on an external DLL. There's been a few times when I've accidentally built and distributed an installer package with the Debug configuration, and it's then failed to run once installed because the users don't have the special DLL. I'd like to be able to keep that from happening in the future. I know I can get the dependencies in a program by running Dependency Walker, but I'm looking for a way to do it programatically. Specifically, I have a way to run scripts while creating the installer, and I want something I can put in the installer script to check the program and see if it has a dependency on this DLL, and if so, cause the installer-creation process to fail with an error. I know how to create a simple CLI program that would take two filenames as parameters, and could run a DependsOn function and create output based on the result of it, but I don't know what to put in the DependsOn function. Does anyone know how I'd go about writing it?

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  • std::string insert method has ambiguous overloads?

    - by sdg
    Environment: VS2005 C++ using STLPort 5.1.4. Compiling the following code snippet: std::string copied = "asdf"; char ch = 's'; copied.insert(0,1,ch); I receive an error: Error 1 error C2668: 'stlpx_std::basic_string<_CharT,_Traits,_Alloc>::insert' : ambiguous call to overloaded function It appears that the problem is the insert method call on the string object. The two defined overloads are void insert ( iterator p, size_t n, char c ); string& insert ( size_t pos1, size_t n, char c ); But given that STLPort uses a simple char* as its iterator, the literal zero in the insert method in my code is ambiguous. So while I can easily overcome the problem by hinting such as copied.insert(size_t(0),1,ch); My question is: is this overloading and possible ambiguity intentional in the specification? Or more likely an unintended side-effect of the specific STLPort implementation? (Note that the Microsoft-supplied STL does not have this problem as it has a class for the iterator, instead of a naked pointer)

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