Search Results

Search found 15081 results on 604 pages for 'passing by reference'.

Page 503/604 | < Previous Page | 499 500 501 502 503 504 505 506 507 508 509 510  | Next Page >

  • SQL, MVC, Entity Framework

    - by Anthony
    Hi Im using the above technologies and have ran into what I presume is a design issue I have made. I have an Artwork table in my DB and have been able to add art (I now think of these as Digital Products) to a shopping cart + CartLine table fine. The system I have that adds art to galleries and user accounts etc works fine. Now the client wants to sell T-shirts, Mugs and Pens etc, 'HardwareProducts' so I have created a 'HardwareProducts' table. Now I have two different product types in two tables. I use GUID's as the PK's in both the HardwareProducts table and Artwork table. When a customer adds an item to their cart I store the GUID in the ProductID column in the CartItems table. The issue is the database will not know which table to reference when I bring the LineItem object up through my ORM to the front end. In OOP I can see how you would have a base class of Product, and then a DigitalProduct class and HardwareProduct class drived from it, but how do you model this in SQL Server and the Entity Framework please, or is there another way?

    Read the article

  • Servlet Mapping Help - Possible to Avoid Referencing Context Name?

    - by AJ
    Hi all, I am working on a Spring application and trying to get my URL mapping correct. What I would like to have work is the following: http://localhost:8080/idptest -> doesn't work But instead, I have to reference the context name in my URL in order to resolve the mapping: http://localhost:8080/<context_name>/idptest -> works How can I avoid the requirement of referencing the context name in my URL without using a rewrite/proxy engine e.g. Apache? Here is the servlet definition and mapping from my web.xml: <servlet> <servlet-name>idptest</servlet-name> <servlet-class>org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet</servlet-class> <init-param> <param-name>contextConfigLocation</param-name> <param-value>/WEB-INF/conf/idptest.xml</param-value> </init-param> <load-on-startup>1</load-on-startup> </servlet> <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>idptest</servlet-name> <url-pattern>/</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> Here's the outline of my controller (showing annotations for request mappings): @Controller @RequestMapping("/idptest") public class MyController { @RequestMapping(method=RequestMethod.GET) public String setupForm(Model model){ MyObject someObject = new MyObject(); model.addAttribute("someObject", someObject); return "myform"; } @RequestMapping(method = RequestMethod.POST) public String processSubmit(@ModelAttribute("someObject") MyObject someObject) throws Exception { // POST logic... } } Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Are MEF's ComposableParts contracts instance-based?

    - by Dave
    I didn't really know how to phrase the title of my questions, so my apologies in advance. I read through parts of the MEF documentation to try to find the answer to my question, but couldn't find it. I'm using ImportMany to allow MEF to create multiple instances of a specific plugin. That plugin Imports several parts, and within calls to a specific instance, it wants these Imports to be singletons. However, what I don't want is for all instances of this plugin to use the same singleton. For example, let's say my application ImportManys Blender appliances. Every time I ask for one, I want a different Blender. However, each Blender Imports a ControlPanel. I want each Blender to have its own ControlPanel. To make things a little more interesting, each Blender can load BlendPrograms, which are also contained within their own assemblies, and MEF takes care of this loading. A BlendProgram might need to access the ControlPanel to get the speed, but I want to ensure that it is accessing the correct ControlPanel (i.e. the one that is associated with the Blender that is associated with the program!) This diagram might clear things up a little bit: As the note shows, I believe that the confusion could come from an inherently-poor design. The BlendProgram shouldn't touch the ControlPanel directly, and instead perhaps the BlendProgram should get the speed via the Blender, which will then delegate the request to its ControlPanel. If this is the case, then I assume the BlendProgram needs to have a reference to a specific Blender. In order to do this, is the right way to leverage MEF and use an ImportingConstructor for BlendProgram, i.e. [ImportingConstructor] public class BlendProgram : IBlendProgram { public BlendProgram( Blender blender) {} } And if this is the case, how do I know that MEF will use the intended Blender plugin?

    Read the article

  • Force a view change from a button when using UITabBarController

    - by user342197
    Hello - When using a UITabBarController, when the user enters some data on View1 and presses a button, I need to perform some calculations and present the results on View2. I have an AppDelegate, View1Controller, View2Controller, and View3Controller (View3 is a basically static view). My AppDelgate declares UITabBarController *rootController; On View1, I have the calculations being performed in an IBAction for buttonPressed; however, I can't seem to force the view to switch to View2 programmatically. I have done a lot of searching for similar problems, and think I should be doing something like "self.rootController.selectedIndex = 1"; however,when I do this from within buttonPressed on my View1Controller, I get an error "request for member rootController in something not in a structure or union". I think I'm missing something basic here... probably need do do something with my AppDelegate, but I'm banging my head against the wall. Can anyone provide some guidance in this situation...like key things I should do in View1Controller header and implementation with reference to my AppDelgate? Thank you!

    Read the article

  • PHP: Next Available Value in an Array, starting with a non-indexed value

    - by Erik Smith
    I've been stumped on this PHP issue for about a day now. Basically, we have an array of hours formatted in 24-hour format, and an arbitrary value ($hour) (also a 24-hour). The problem is, we need to take $hour, and get the next available value in the array, starting with the value that immediately proceeds $hour. The array might look something like: $goodHours = array('8,9,10,11,12,19,20,21). Then the hour value might be: $hour = 14; So, we need some way to know that 19 is the next best time. Additionally, we might also need to get the second, third, or fourth (etc) available value. The issue seems to be that because 14 isn't a value in the array, there is not index to reference that would let us increment to the next value. To make things simpler, I've taken $goodHours and repeated the values several times just so I don't have to deal with going back to the start (maybe not the best way to do it, but a quick fix). I have a feeling this is something simple I'm missing, but I would be so appreciative if anyone could shed some light. Erik

    Read the article

  • 'Forward-Compatible' Program Design

    - by Jeffrey Kern
    The majority of my questions I've asked here so far on StackOverflow have been how to implement individual concepts and techniques towards developing a software-based NES clone via the XNA environment. The small samples that I've thrown together on my PC work relatively great and everything. Except I hit a brick wall. How do I merge all of these samples together. Having proof-of-concept is amazing, except when you need it to go beyond just that. I now have samples strewn about that I'm trying to merge, some of them incomplete. And now I'm stuck with the chicken-and-the-egg situation of where I would like to incorporate these samples together, to make sure they work, but I cannot without test data. And I don't have tools to create test data, because they'd need to be based off of the individual pieces that need to be put together. In my mind, I'm having nightmares with circular reference. For my sample data, I am hoping to save it in XML and write a specification - and then make sample data by hand - but I'm too paranoid of manually creating an XML file full of incorrect data and blaming it on my code, or vice-versa. It doesn't help that the end-result of my work is graphic-oriented, which makes it interseting how a graphic on the screen can be visualized in XML Nodes. I guess, my question is this: What design patterns and disciplines exist in the coding world that address this type of concern? I've always relied on brute-force coding and restarting a project with a whole new code base in attempts to further along my goals, but I doubt that would be the best way to do so. Within my college career, the majority of my programming was to work on simple projects that came out of a book, or with a given correct data set and a verifyable result. I don't have that, as my own design documents that I am going by could be terribly wrong.

    Read the article

  • How to stop Android GPS using "Mobile data"

    - by prepbgg
    My app requests location updates with "minTime" set to 2 seconds. When "Mobile data" is switched on (in the phone's settings) and GPS is enabled the app uses "mobile data" at between 5 and 10 megabytes per hour. This is recorded in the ICS "Data usage" screen as usage by "Android OS". In an attempt to prevent this I have unticked Settings-"Location services"-"Google's location service". Does this refer to Assisted GPS, or is it something more than that? Whatever it is, it seems to make no difference to my app's internet access. As further confirmation that it is the GPS usage by my app that is causing the mobile data access I have observed that the internet data activity indicator on the status bar shows activity when and only when the GPS indicator is present. The only way to prevent this mobile data usage seems to be to switch "Mobile data" off, and GPS accuracy seems to be almost as good without the support of mobile data. However, it is obviously unsatisfactory to have to switch mobile data off. The only permissions in the Manifest are "android.permission.ACCESS_FINE_LOCATION" (and "android.permission.WRITE_EXTERNAL_STORAGE"), so the app has no explicit permission to use internet data. The LocationManager code is ` criteria.setAccuracy(Criteria.ACCURACY_FINE); criteria.setSpeedRequired(false); criteria.setAltitudeRequired(false); criteria.setBearingRequired(true); criteria.setCostAllowed(false); criteria.setPowerRequirement(Criteria.NO_REQUIREMENT); bestProvider = lm.getBestProvider(criteria, true); if (bestProvider != null) { lm.requestLocationUpdates(bestProvider, gpsMinTime, gpsMinDistance, this); ` The reference for LocationManager.getBestProvider says If no provider meets the criteria, the criteria are loosened ... Note that the requirement on monetary cost is not removed in this process. However, despite setting setCostAllowed to false the app still incurs a potential monetary cost. What else can I do to prevent the app from using mobile data?

    Read the article

  • How to manipulate *huge* amounts of data

    - by Alejandro
    Hi there! I'm having the following problem. I need to store huge amounts of information (~32 GB) and be able to manipulate it as fast as possible. I'm wondering what's the best way to do it (combinations of programming language + OS + whatever you think its important). The structure of the information I'm using is a 4D array (NxNxNxN) of double-precission floats (8 bytes). Right now my solution is to slice the 4D array into 2D arrays and store them in separate files in the HDD of my computer. This is really slow and the manipulation of the data is unbearable, so this is no solution at all! I'm thinking on moving into a Supercomputing facility in my country and store all the information in the RAM, but I'm not sure how to implement an application to take advantage of it (I'm not a professional programmer, so any book/reference will help me a lot). An alternative solution I'm thinking on is to buy a dedicated server with lots of RAM, but I don't know for sure if that will solve the problem. So right now my ignorance doesn't let me choose the best way to proceed. What would you do if you were in this situation? I'm open to any idea. Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Flash Without a SWF File?

    - by PeterAllenWebb
    Is there any way to embed Flash completely in HTML, without reference to an external SWF file? I ask because I would like to send an HTML file as an email attachment that the recipient will open in a browser and fill out as a form. The last step is that they will copy the result to their clipboard, paste it into a new message, and email it back. I cannot reliably copy to the clipboard with JavaScript because of the security issues, but there are simple Flash apps to add that capability. I know I could just display the response text (which will be Base64 encoded) to the recipient and have them copy/paste, but it would be nice to provide this small convenience to them. Also, so you are aware, the text is often too large to include in an email using mailto. Yes. This needs to be done via email. The users have slow, occasional satellite email access and no other data connection to the interwebs. To make things worse, I cannot make them install anything. It is a difficult situation.

    Read the article

  • g++ linker can't find const member function

    - by Max
    I have a Point class (with integer members x and y) that has a member function withinBounds that is declared like so: bool withinBounds(const Point&, const Point&) const; and defined like this: bool Point::withinBounds(const Point& TL, const Point& BR) const { if(x < TL.getX()) return false; if(x > BR.getX()) return false; if(y < TL.getY()) return false; if(y > BR.getY()) return false; // Success return true; } and then in another file, I call withinBounds like this: Point pos = currentPlayer->getPosition(); if(pos.withinBounds(topleft, bottomright)) { // code block } This compiles fine, but it fails to link. g++ gives me this error: /home/max/Desktop/Development/YARL/yarl/src/GameData.cpp:61: undefined reference to 'yarl::utility::Point::withinBounds(yarl::utility::Point const&, yarl::utility::Point const&)' When I make the function not const, it links fine. Anyone know the reason why? The linker error looks like it's looking for a non-const version of the function, but I don't know why it would.

    Read the article

  • JUnit confusion: use 'extend Testcase' or '@Test' ?

    - by Rabarberski
    I've found the proper use (or at least the documentation) of JUnit very confusing. This question serves both as a future reference and as a real question. If I've understood correctly, there are two main approaches to create and run a JUnit test: Approach A: create a class that extends TestCase, and start test methods with the word test. When running the class as a JUnit Test (in Eclipse), all methods starting with the word test are automatically run. import junit.framework.TestCase; public class DummyTestA extends TestCase { public void testSum() { int a = 5; int b = 10; int result = a + b; assertEquals(15, result); } } Approach B: create a 'normal' class and prepend a @Test annotation to the method. Note that you do NOT have to start the method with the word test. import org.junit.*; import static org.junit.Assert.*; public class DummyTestB { @Test public void Sum() { int a = 5; int b = 10; int result = a + b; assertEquals(15, result); } } Mixing the two seems not to be a good idea, see e.g. this stackoverflow question: Now, my questions(s): What is the preferred approach, or when would you use one instead of the other? Approach B allows for testing for exceptions by extending the @Test annotation like in @Test(expected = ArithmeticException.class). But how do you test for exceptions when using approach A? When using approach A, you can group a number of test classes in a test suite. TestSuite suite = new TestSuite("All tests");<br/> suite.addTestSuite(DummyTestA.class); suite.addTestSuite(DummyTestAbis.class);` But this can't be used with approach B (since each testclass should subclass TestCase). What is the proper way to group tests for approach B?

    Read the article

  • WPF - How to stop an ItemsControl psuedo-grid's columns from dancing/jumping around during layout

    - by Drew Noakes
    Several other questions on SO have come to the same conclusion I have -- using an ItemsControl with a DataTemplate for each item constructed to position items such that they resemble a grid is much simpler (especially to format) than using a ListView. The code resembles: <StackPanel Grid.IsSharedSizeScope="True"> <!-- Header --> <Grid> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto" SharedSizeGroup="Column1" /> <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto" SharedSizeGroup="Column2" /> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <TextBlock Grid.Column="0" Text="Column Header 1" /> <TextBlock Grid.Column="1" Text="Column Header 2" /> </Grid> <!-- Items --> <ItemsControl ItemsSource="{Binding Path=Values, Mode=OneWay}"> <ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Grid> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto" SharedSizeGroup="Column1" /> <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto" SharedSizeGroup="Column2" /> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <TextBlock Grid.Column="0" Text="{Binding ColumnProperty1}" /> <TextBlock Grid.Column="1" Text="{Binding ColumnProperty2}" /> </Grid> </DataTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> </ItemsControl> </StackPanel> The problem I'm seeing is that whenever I swap the object to which the ItemsSource is bound (it's an ObservableCollection that I replace the reference to, rather than clear and re-add), the entire 'grid' dances about for a few seconds. Presumably it is making a few layout passes to get all the Auto-width columns to match up. This is very distracting for my users and I'd like to get it sorted out. Has anyone else seen this?

    Read the article

  • how to implement a sparse_vector class

    - by Neil G
    I am implementing a templated sparse_vector class. It's like a vector, but it only stores elements that are different from their default constructed value. So, sparse_vector would store the index-value pairs for all indices whose value is not T(). I am basing my implementation on existing sparse vectors in numeric libraries-- though mine will handle non-numeric types T as well. I looked at boost::numeric::ublas::coordinate_vector and eigen::SparseVector. Both store: size_t* indices_; // a dynamic array T* values_; // a dynamic array int size_; int capacity_; Why don't they simply use vector<pair<size_t, T>> data_; My main question is what are the pros and cons of both systems, and which is ultimately better? The vector of pairs manages size_ and capacity_ for you, and simplifies the accompanying iterator classes; it also has one memory block instead of two, so it incurs half the reallocations, and might have better locality of reference. The other solution might search more quickly since the cache lines fill up with only index data during a search. There might also be some alignment advantages if T is an 8-byte type? It seems to me that vector of pairs is the better solution, yet both containers chose the other solution. Why?

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC Newbie: why isn't my model available when creating a strongly-typed view?

    - by Rax Olgud
    I'm starting with ASP.NET MVC, and working with NerdDinner as reference. I did the following: Created a new project Added a couple of tables Created LINQ to SQL for them Created a new controller My Models directory now contains MyModel.dbml, under which I have MyModel.designer.cs, that contains classes for models relating to both of my tables (let's call them Categories and Products). Now, under my new controller, I would like to create a strongly typed view. So for example I have the following code in my controller (for my application I must work by name, and the "Name" field is unique): public ActionResult Details(string name) { MyModelDataContext db = new MyModelDataContext(); Product user = db.Products.Single(t => t.Name == name); return View(user); } I would like to create a strongly-typed view. So I right-click the line "return View(user)", and choose "Add View...". I click "Create a strongly-typed view". When I click the dropdown of "View data class", I don't see my models, but only: MyProject.Controllers.AccountMembershipService MyProject.Controllers.FormsAuthenticationService What am I missing?

    Read the article

  • ViewModel Views relation/link/syncroniztion

    - by mehran
    Third try to describing problem: Try 1: Sunchronizing view model and view Try2: WPF ViewModel not active presenter Try3: I have some class for view models: public class Node : INotifyPropertyChanged { Guid NodeId { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } public class Connection: INotifyPropertyChanged { public Node StartNode { get; set; } public Node EndNode { get; set; } } public class SettingsPackModel { public List<Node> Nodes { get; private set; } public List<Connection> Connections { get; private set; } } I also have some templates to displays these models: <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type vm:Node}">…</DataTemplate> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type vm:Connection}"> <my:ConnectionElment StartNodeElment="???" EndNodeElment="???"> </my:ConnectionElment> <DataTemplate> But the problem is that DataTemplate for Connection need reference ot two element of type UIElement , how can I pass these two, how can I fill ??? in above expression?

    Read the article

  • Image resizing - sometimes very poor quality?!

    - by eWolf
    I'm resizing some images to the screen resolution of the user; if the aspect ratio is wrong, the image should be cut. My code looks like this: protected void ConvertToBitmap(string filename) { var origImg = System.Drawing.Image.FromFile(filename); var widthDivisor = (double)origImg.Width / (double)System.Windows.Forms.Screen.PrimaryScreen.Bounds.Width; var heightDivisor = (double)origImg.Height / (double)System.Windows.Forms.Screen.PrimaryScreen.Bounds.Height; int newWidth, newHeight; if (widthDivisor < heightDivisor) { newWidth = (int)((double)origImg.Width / widthDivisor); newHeight = (int)((double)origImg.Height / widthDivisor); } else { newWidth = (int)((double)origImg.Width / heightDivisor); newHeight = (int)((double)origImg.Height / heightDivisor); } var newImg = origImg.GetThumbnailImage(newWidth, newHeight, null, IntPtr.Zero); newImg.Save(this.GetBitmapPath(filename), System.Drawing.Imaging.ImageFormat.Bmp); } In most cases, this works fine. But for some images, the result has an extremely poor quality. It looks like the would have been resized to something very small (thumbnail size) and enlarged again.. But the resolution of the image is correct. What can I do? Example orig image: Example resized image: Note: I have a WPF application but I use the WinForms function for resizing because it's easier and because I already need a reference to System.Windows.Forms for a tray icon.

    Read the article

  • Enums, Constructor overloads with similar conversions.

    - by David Thornley
    Why does VisualC++ (2008) get confused 'C2666: 2 overloads have similar conversions' when I specify an enum as the second parameter, but not when I define a bool type? Shouldn't type matching already rule out the second constructor because it is of a 'basic_string' type? #include <string> using namespace std; enum EMyEnum { mbOne, mbTwo }; class test { public: #if 1 // 0 = COMPILE_OK, 1 = COMPILE_FAIL test(basic_string<char> myString, EMyEnum myBool2) { } test(bool myBool, bool myBool2) { } #else test(basic_string<char> myString, bool myBool2) { } test(bool myBool, bool myBool2) { } #endif }; void testme() { test("test", mbOne); } I can work around this by specifying a reference 'ie. basic_string &myString' but not if it is 'const basic_string &myString'. Also calling explicitly via "test((basic_string)"test", mbOne);" also works. I suspect this has something to do with every expression/type being resolved to a bool via an inherent '!=0'. Curious for comments all the same :)

    Read the article

  • Using XPath on String in Android (JAVA)

    - by Rav
    I am looking for some examples of using xpath in Android? Or if anyone can share their experiences. I have been struggeling to make tail or head of this problem :-( I have a string that contains a standard xml file. I believe I need to convert that into an xml document. I have found this code which I think will do the trick: public static Document stringToDom(String xmlSource) throws SAXException, ParserConfigurationException, IOException { DocumentBuilderFactory factory = DocumentBuilderFactory.newInstance(); DocumentBuilder builder = factory.newDocumentBuilder(); return builder.parse(new InputSource(new StringReader(xmlSource))); } Next steps Assuming the code above is OK, I need to apply xpath to get values from cat: "/animal/mammal/feline/cat" I look at the dev doc here: http://developer.android.com/reference/javax/xml/xpath/XPath.html and also look online, but I am not sure where to start! I have tried to use the following code: XPathFactory xPathFactory = XPathFactory.newInstance(); // To get an instance of the XPathFactory object itself. XPath xPath = xPathFactory.newXPath(); // Create an instance of XPath from the factory class. String expression = "SomeXPathExpression"; XPathExpression xPathExpression = xPath.compile(expression); // Compile the expression to get a XPathExpression object. Object result = xPathExpression.evaluate(xmlDocument); // Evaluate the expression against the XML Document to get the result. But I get "Cannot be resolved". Eclipse doesn't seem to be able to fix this import. I tried manually entering: javax.xml.xpath.XPath But this did not work. Does anyone know any good source code that I can utilise, for Android platform? 1.5

    Read the article

  • Publishing a WCF Server and client and their endpoints

    - by Ahmadreza
    Imagine developing a WCF solution with two projects (WCF Service/ and web application as WCF Client). As long as I'm developing these two projects in visual studio and referencing service to client (Web Application) as server reference there is no problem. Visual studio automatically assign a port for WCF server and configure all needed configuration including Server And Client binging to something like this in server: <service behaviorConfiguration="DefaultServiceBehavior" name="MYWCFProject.MyService"> <endpoint address="" binding="wsHttpBinding" contract="MYWCFProject.IMyService"> <identity> <dns value="localhost" /> </identity> </endpoint> <host> <baseAddresses> <add baseAddress="http://localhost:8731/MyService.svc" /> </baseAddresses> </host> </service> and in client: <client> <endpoint address="http://localhost:8731/MyService.svc" binding="wsHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="WSHttpBinding_IMyService" contract="MyWCFProject.IMyService" name="WSHttpBinding_IMyService"> <identity> <dns value="localhost" /> </identity> </endpoint> </client> The problem is I want to frequently publish this two project in two different servers as my production servers and Service url will be "http://mywcfdomain/MyService.svc". I don't want to change config file every time I publish my server project. The question is: is there any feature in Visual Studio 2008 to automatically change the URLs or I have to define two different endpoints and I set them within my code (based on a parameter in my configuration for example Development/Published).

    Read the article

  • In a bidirectional JPA OneToMany/ManyToOne association, what is meant by "the inverse side of the as

    - by Bytecode Ninja
    In these examples on TopLink JPA Annotation Reference: Example 1-59 @OneToMany - Customer Class With Generics @Entity public class Customer implements Serializable { ... @OneToMany(cascade=ALL, mappedBy="customer") public Set<Order> getOrders() { return orders; } ... } Example 1-60 @ManyToOne - Order Class With Generics @Entity public class Order implements Serializable { ... @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(name="CUST_ID", nullable=false) public Customer getCustomer() { return customer; } ... } It seams to me that the Customer entity is the owner of the association. However, in the explanation for the mappedBy attribute in the same document, it is written that: if the relationship is bidirectional, then set the mappedBy element on the inverse (non-owning) side of the association to the name of the field or property that owns the relationship as Example 1-60 shows. However, if I am not wrong, looks like in the example the mappedBy is actually specified on the owning side of the association, rather than the non-owning side. So my question is basically: In a bidirectional (one-to-many/many-to-one) association, which of the entities is the owner? How can we designate the One side as the owner? How can we designate the Many side as the owner? What is meant by "the inverse side of the association"? How can we designate the One side as the inverse? How can we designate the Many side as the inverse? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • i want to convert my aspx.cs to dll

    - by jay rathod
    i have a default.aspx page: <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="Default.aspx.cs" Inherits="_Default" %> <!DOCTYPE html> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title></title> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <asp:Button ID="btn" runat="server" Text="clicke here" OnClick="btn_Click"/> <asp:TextBox ID="txt" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <asp:Label runat="server" ID="lbl"></asp:Label> </div> </div> </form> </body> </html> and default.aspx.cs : public partial class _Default : System.Web.UI.Page { string test; protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { } protected void btn_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { test = txt.Text; lbl.Text = test; } } now i want to make the dll of my default.aspx.cs file and remove it from the website and give the reference of it. so how can i do this??

    Read the article

  • Awkward looking uses of Contract.ValueAtReturn()

    - by devoured elysium
    I am designing a method that will add an element to an internal list. The structure of the class is something along the lines of: class MyCustomerDatabase { private IList<Customer> _customers = new List<Customer>(); public int NumberOfCustomers { get { return _customers; } } public void AddCustomer(Customer customer) { _customers.Add(customer); } } Now, I was thinking of adding a Contract.Ensures() about the size of the _customers growing by 1 with this call. The problem is that I end up with some weird looking code: public void AddCustomer(Customer customer) { int numberOfCustomersAtReturn; Contract.Ensures(Contract.ValueAtReturn<int>(out numberOfCustomersAtReturn) == Contract.OldValue<int>(NumberOfCustomers) + 1); _customers.Add(customer); numberOfCustomersAtReturn = NumberOfCustomers; } The main problem is that properties are in fact methods, so you can't just reference them direcly when using Contract.ValueAtReturn() as its only parameter accepts variables as out. The situation gets even odder if I want to achieve the same but this time with a method that should return a value: public int MyReturningMethod() { ... return abc(); //abc will add by one the number of customers in list } //gets converted to public int MyReturningMethod() { int numberOfCustomersAtReturn; Contract.Ensures(Contract.ValueAtReturn<int>(out numberOfCustomersAtReturn) == Contract.OldValue<int>(NumberOfCustomers) + 1); int returnValue = abc(); numberOfCustomersAtReturn = NumberOfCustomers; return returnValue; } This seems pretty clumsy :( Code Contracts should aim to get things clearer and this seems right the opposite. Am I doing something wrong? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Exporting Maven properties from Ant code

    - by Gili
    I've embedded the following code within my POM: <plugin name="test"> <groupId>org.apache.maven.plugins</groupId> <artifactId>maven-antrun-plugin</artifactId> <executions> <execution> <phase>validate</phase> <configuration> <tasks> <pathconvert targetos="unix" property="project.build.directory.portable"> <path location="${project.build.directory}"/> </pathconvert> </tasks> </configuration> <goals> <goal>run</goal> </goals> </execution> </executions> </plugin> I then reference ${project.build.directory.portable} from the run project action but it comes back as null. Executing <echo> within the Ant block shows the correct value. What am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • Visual Studio Linked Files Directory Structure

    - by jeffn825
    I have two versions of a project. One for Silverlight and one for .NET. The SL project has the vast majority of the code base in it. I want to globally add all files from the SL project into the .NET version as linked files. I've managed to do so successfully like this in the csproj file for the .NET version: <Compile Include="..\MyProj.Common.SL\**\*.cs" Exclude="..\MyProj.Common\Properties\**"> Unfortunately, this adds all the files right to the root of my project... so I end up with a long unreadable list of linked files in the .NET project. I really really really don't want to have to maintain an entire duplicate directory structure by hand and deal with directory name changes and file name changes and whatnot. So, is there any way to have Visual Studio preserve the directory structure when adding linked files in the wildcard manner above? Or is there at least a way of making it group all the linked files together under a directory in the .NET project like MyProj.Common.SL.Links? The very closest I've come is to set the <Visible>false</Visible> under the <Compile> tag, which effectively removes the long unreadable list of 300+ files....but unfortunately this screws up Resharper, which no longer sees those files as valid and it goes crazy on all the projects that reference the .NET project. If I could figure out a way of making Resharper not get all messed up, that would be an acceptable solution too... Any suggestions? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • JQuery methods and DOM properties

    - by Bob Smith
    I am confused as to when I can use the DOM properties and when I could use the Jquery methods on a Jquery object. Say, I use a selector var $elemSel = $('#myDiv').find('[id *= \'select\']') At this point, $elemSel is a jquery object which I understand to be a wrapper around the array of DOM elements. I could get a reference to the DOM elements by iterating through the $elemSel object/array (Correct?) My questions: 1. Is there a way to convert this $elemSel into a non JQuery regular array of DOM elements? 2. Can I combine DOM properties and JQuery methods at the same time (something like this) $elemSel.children('td').nodeName (nodeName is DOM related, children is JQuery related) EDIT: What's wrong with this? $elemSel.get(0).is(':checked') EDIT 2: Thanks for the responses. I understand now that I can use the get(0) to get a DOM element. Additional questions: How would I convert a DOM element to a JQuery object? If I assign "this" to a variable, is that new var DOM or JQuery? If it's JQuery, how can I convert this to a DOM element? (Since I can't use get(0)) var $elemTd = $(this); When I do a assignment like the one above, I have seen some code samples not include the $ sign for the variable name. Why? And as for my original question, can I combine the DOM properties and JQuery functions at the same time on a JQuery object? $elemSel.children('td').nodeName

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 499 500 501 502 503 504 505 506 507 508 509 510  | Next Page >