Search Results

Search found 30636 results on 1226 pages for 'database versioning'.

Page 572/1226 | < Previous Page | 568 569 570 571 572 573 574 575 576 577 578 579  | Next Page >

  • How to call a Thor task multiple times?

    - by deepak
    Thor like Rake (and Make) has task management. If I call a task multiple times, it will effectively call the task only once. How can I call a task multiple times? I tried modifying the @_invocations hash, but that did not work: require 'csv' require './config/environment' class MisReport < Thor desc "all", "generate mysql and postgres mis" def all generate("pg_mis_report", "pg") generate("mysql_mis_report", "mysql") end desc "generate", "generate mis report" def generate(file_name = "mis_report_#{Time.now.to_s(:number)}", connection = "postgres") if connection == "pg" puts "== postgres database" ActiveRecord::Base.establish_connection :development_mysql else puts "== mysql database" ActiveRecord::Base.establish_connection :development end # generate MIS puts puts "mis file is at: #{file_path}" end end

    Read the article

  • can I see all SQL statements sent over an ODBC connection?

    - by Dave Cameron
    I'm working with a third-party application that uses ODBC to connect to, and alter, a database. During certain failure modes, the end-results are not what I expect. To understand it better, I'd like some way of inspecting all the statements sent to the database. Is there a way to do this with ODBC? I know with JDBC I could use http://www.p6spy.com/ to see all statements sent, for example when debugging hibernate. p6spy is a "proxy" driver that records commands sent and forwards them on to the real JDBC driver. Another possibility might be a protocol sniffer that would capture statements over the wire. Although, I'm unsure if ODBC includes a standard wire protocol, or only specifieds the API. Does anyone know of existing tools that would allow me to do either of these things? Alternatively, is there another approach I could take?

    Read the article

  • Mark row as deleted in dataTable on UserDeletingRow

    - by dav.evans
    I have a datatable bound to a winforms dataGridView via a BindingSourceControl. I want to be able handle the UserDeletingRow event from the dataGridView and mark the row in my dataTable as deleted. I need to then be able to retrieve the rows marked as deleted from the datatable so that I can delete them from my database when a Save button is clicked. Please not I dont want to delete from the database on each firing of UserDeletingRow, only mark that row as deleted in my dataset. Can anyone point out how to do this?

    Read the article

  • NHibernate Mapping problem

    - by Bernard Larouche
    My database is being driven by my NHibernate mapping files. I have a Category class that looks like the following : public class Category { public Category() : this("") { } public Category(string name) { Name = name; SubCategories = new List<Category>(); Products = new HashSet<Product>(); } public virtual int ID { get; set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } public virtual string Description { get; set; } public virtual Category Parent { get; set; } public virtual bool IsDefault { get; set; } public virtual ICollection<Category> SubCategories { get; set; } public virtual ICollection<Product> Products { get; set; } and here is my Mapping file : <property name="Name" column="Name" type="string" not-null="true"/> <property name="IsDefault" column="IsDefault" type="boolean" not-null="true" /> <property name="Description" column="Description" type="string" not-null="true" /> <many-to-one name="Parent" column="ParentID"></many-to-one> <bag name="SubCategories" inverse="true"> <key column="ParentID"></key> <one-to-many class="Category"/> </bag> <set name="Products" table="Categories_Products"> <key column="CategoryId"></key> <many-to-many column="ProductId" class="Product"></many-to-many> </set> when I try to create the database I get the following error : failed: The INSERT statement conflicted with the FOREIGN KEY SAME TABLE constraint "FK9AD976763BF05E2A". The conflict occurred in database "CoderForTraders", table "dbo.Categories", column 'CategoryId'. The statement has been terminated. I looked on the net for some answers but found none. Thanks for your help

    Read the article

  • Proper way to set object instance variables

    - by ensnare
    I'm writing a class to insert users into a database, and before I get too far in, I just want to make sure that my OO approach is clean: class User(object): def setName(self,name): #Do sanity checks on name self._name = name def setPassword(self,password): #Check password length > 6 characters #Encrypt to md5 self._password = password def commit(self): #Commit to database >>u = User() >>u.setName('Jason Martinez') >>u.setPassword('linebreak') >>u.commit() Is this the right approach? Should I declare class variables up top? Should I use a _ in front of all the class variables to make them private? Thanks for helping out.

    Read the article

  • Dynamic Form Help for PHP and MySQL

    - by Tony
    The code below works as far as inserting records from a file into MySQL, but it only does so properly if the columns in the file are already ordered the same way as in the database. I would like for the user to be able to select the drop down the corresponds to each column in their file to match it up with the columns in the database (the database has email address, first name, last name). I am not sure how to accomplish this. Any ideas? <?php $lines =file('book1.csv'); foreach($lines as $data) { list($col1[],$col2[],$col3[]) = explode(',',$data); } $i = count($col1); if (isset($_POST['submitted'])) { DEFINE ('DB_USER', 'root'); DEFINE ('DB_PASSWORD', 'password'); DEFINE ('DB_HOST', 'localhost'); DEFINE ('DB_NAME', 'csvimport'); // Make the connection: $dbc = @mysqli_connect (DB_HOST, DB_USER, DB_PASSWORD, DB_NAME); for($d=1; $d<$i; $d++) { $q = "INSERT into contacts (email, first, last) VALUES ('$col3[$d]', '$col1[$d]', '$col2[$d]')"; $r = @mysqli_query ($dbc, $q); } } echo "<form action =\"handle2.php\" method=\"post\">Email<br /> <select name =\"email\"> <option value='col1'>$col1[0]</option> <option value='col2'>$col2[0]</option> <option value='col3'>$col3[0]</option> </select><br /><br /> First Name <br /> <select name=\"field2\"> <option value='col1'>$col1[0]</option> <option value='col2'>$col2[0]</option> <option value='col3'>$col3[0]</option> </select><br /><br /> Last Name <br /> <select name=\"field3\"> <option value='col1'>$col1[0]</option> <option value='col2'>$col2[0]</option> <option value='col3'>$col3[0]</option> </select><br /><br /> <input type=\"submit\" name=\"submit\" value=\"Submit\" /> <input type=\"hidden\" name=\"submitted\" value=\"TRUE\" /> </form>"; ?>

    Read the article

  • How to tune ASP.NET CreateUserWizard?

    - by Max
    I have created ASP.NET WebForms site on IIS 7.5. I want to create step by step user registration. I want to store the basic and detailed information about registered users in a specially created database table (not in aspnet_users table). I want to validate email first and then prevent next registration step for the user whose email address already exists in the database. At the last registration step I want to present summary form. All previous input and select fields should be duplicated in this form with "disabled" attribute. Please tell me how to adjust CreateUserWizard ASP.NET Control and web.config file to these needs?

    Read the article

  • Read and write struct in C

    - by Sergey
    I have a struct: typedef struct student { char fname[30]; char sname[30]; char tname[30]; Faculty fac; int course; char group[10]; int room; int bad; } Student; I read it from the file: Database * dbOpen(char *fname) { FILE *fp = fopen(fname, "rb"); List *lst, *temp; Student *std; Database *db = malloc(sizeof(*db)); if (!fp) return NULL; FileNameS = fname; std = malloc(sizeof(*std)); if (!fread(std, sizeof(*std), 1, fp)) { db->head = db->tail = NULL; return db; } lst = malloc(sizeof(*lst)); lst->s = std; lst->prev = NULL; db->head = lst; while (!feof(fp)) { fread(std, sizeof(*std), 1, fp); temp = malloc(sizeof(*temp)); temp->s = std; temp->prev = lst; lst->next = temp; lst = temp; } lst->next = NULL; db->tail = lst; fclose(fp); return db; } And I have a problem... At the last record i have a such file pointer: `fp 0x10311448 {_ptr=0x00344b90 "???????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????? _ _iobuf * ` And i read last record 2 times... Save file code: void * dbClose(Database *db) { FILE *fp = fopen(FileNameS, "w+b"); List *lst, *temp; lst = db->head; while(lst != NULL) { fwrite(lst->s, sizeof(*(lst->s)), 1, fp); temp = lst; lst = lst->next; free(temp); } free(db); fclose(fp); }

    Read the article

  • entity framework inserting a many-to-many relationship between two existing objects while updating

    - by redbluegreen
    I'm trying to do this: using(var context = new SampleEntities()) { User user = select a user from database; //Update user's properties user.Username = ... user.Website = ... //Add a role Role role = select a role from database //trying to insert into table UserRoles which has columns (UserID, RoleID) user.Roles.Add(role); //Apply property changes context.ApplyPropertyChanges("Users", user); context.SaveChanges(); } However, I get an exception telling me that "The existing object in the ObjectContext is in the Added state" and can't "ApplyPropertyChanges". If "ApplyPropertyChanges()" is removed, it adds a User. What orders should these methods be called? I don't need to do them separately right? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Design question what pattern to use

    - by rahul
    Problem Description: We have a requirement of storing the snapshot of an entity temporarily in the database untill a certain period of time untill all the processes to approve the data are completed. Once all approvals are completed the data shall be permanantly persisted into the actual table. Example: 1) Consider an entity called "User". One way to create the user is through the "Create Account Process". 2) The "Create Account Process" shall capture all the information of the User and store it in a temporary table in the database. 3) The data shall be used by the "Account Approval Process" to run its verification process. 4. After all the verification is completed successfully, the User data shall be persisted to the actual table. Question: Where to store the user data entered during "Create Account Process". Additionally, User data should be editable till the verification process is complete.

    Read the article

  • JSON encode MySQL results then read using jQuery

    - by silentw
    I have a database table with some rows that I want to fetch using PHP and then encode them using JSON. Currently, my database structure is the following: idcomponente | quantidade After fetching the values in PHP, I want to know how can I encode them using JSON (with multiple rows, using the same names) so I can read them using jQuery.post(). $.post('test.php',{id:id},function(data){ //READ data HERE }); Thanks in advance Edit: So far, I made this: $.post('edit/producomponentes.php',{id:id},function(data){ console.log(data); }); Logs this: [Object { componente="1", quantidade="2"}, Object { componente="3", quantidade="3"}] Now how can I go through each row and fetch their properties? (data.componente, data.quantidade)

    Read the article

  • Microsoft Sync Framework - Local DB and Remote DB have to have the same schema?

    - by Josh
    When using MSF, is it implied in the technology that the sync tables are supposed to be 1-1? The reason I'm wondering is that if I'm synching from a SQL2005 database to a SQLCE, I might want the CE one to be a little more flattened out so I can get data out with a simpler SELECT statement (as CE does not support sprocs). For example, I might have a tblCustomer, tblOrder, and tblCustomerOrder in the central database, but in the local databases one table with all the data might be preferred. Of course I'd still want the updates to reflect back and forth between the two databases. Does MSF make this possible, or does the local DB have to have the same tables as the central?

    Read the article

  • Stop propagating deletes

    - by Mark
    Is it just me or is anyone else finding EF very difficult to use in a real app :( I'm using it as the data layer and have created custom business objects. I'm having difficulty converting the business objects back to EF objects and updating/adding/deleting from the database. Does anyone know a good, simple example of doing this? Actually the current problem that's driving me nuts is when I delete something EF tries to delete other related stuff as well. For example, if I delete an invoice it will also delete the associated customer! Seems odd. I can't figure out how to stop it doing this. // tried: invoiceEfData.CustomerReference = null; // also tried invoiceEfData.Customer = null; context.DeleteObject(invoiceEfData); context.SaveChanges(); // at this point I get a database error due to it attempting to delete the customer

    Read the article

  • Complex relationship between tables in NHibernate

    - by Ilya Kogan
    Hi all, I'm writing a Fluent NHibernate mapping for a legacy Oracle database. The challenge is that the tables have composite primary keys. If I were at total freedom, I would redesign the relationships and auto-generate primary keys, but other applications must write to the same database and read from it, so I cannot do it. These are the two tables I'll focus on: Example data Trips table: 1, 10:00, 11:00 ... 1, 12:00, 15:00 ... 1, 16:00, 19:00 ... 2, 12:00, 13:00 ... 3, 9:00, 18:00 ... Faults table: 1, 13:00 ... 1, 23:00 ... 2, 12:30 ... In this case, vehicle 1 made three trips and has two faults. The first fault happened during the second trip, and the second fault happened while the vehicle was resting. Vehicle 2 had one trip, during which a fault happened. Constraints Trips of the same vehicle never overlap. So the tables have an optional one-to-many relationship, because every fault either happens during a trip or it doesn't. If I wanted to join them in SQL, I would write: select ... from Faults left outer join Trips on Faults.VehicleId = Trips.VehicleId and Faults.FaultTime between Trips.TripStartTime and Trips.TripEndTime and then I'd get a dataset where every fault appears exactly once (one-to-many as I said). Note that there is no Vehicles table, and I don't need one. But I did create a view that contains all VehicleIds from both tables, so I can use it as a junction table. What am I actually looking for? The tables are huge because they cover years of data, and every time I only need to fetch a range of a few hours. So I need a mapping and a criteria that will run something like the following SQL underneath: select ... from Faults left outer join Trips on Faults.VehicleId = Trips.VehicleId and Faults.FaultTime between Trips.TripStartTime and Trips.TripEndTime where Faults.FaultTime between :p0 and :p1 Do you have any ideas how to achieve it? Note 1: Currently the application shouldn't write to the database, so persistence is not a must, although if the mapping supports persistence, it may help at some point in the future. Note 2: I know it's a tough one, so if you give me a great answer, you will be properly rewarded :) Thank you for reading this long question, and now I only hope for the best :)

    Read the article

  • How come jQuery can't remove this element?

    - by George Edison
    I have a table like this: <table id='inventory_table'> <tr id='no_items_avail'> <td> There are no items in the database. </td> </tr> </table> And I want to get rid of it with jQuery like this: $('#inventory_table tbody tr#no_items_avail').remove(); However it doesn't seem to be working at all. What am I doing wrong? Edit: Also, the row above was originally inserted into the DOM with another jQuery call: $('#inventory_table tbody').append("<tr id='no_items_avail'....... If that helps. And, running: alert($('#no_items_avail').text()); yields "There are no items in the database." as expected.

    Read the article

  • Run java thread at specific times

    - by rmarimon
    I have a web application that synchronizes with a central database four times per hour. The process usually takes 2 minutes. I would like to run this process as a thread at X:55, X:10, X:25, and X:40 so that the users knows that at X:00, X:15, X:30, and X:45 they have a clean copy of the database. It is just about managing expectations. I have gone through the executor in java.util.concurrent but the scheduling is done with the scheduleAtFixedRate which I believe provides no guarantee about when this is actually run in terms of the hours. I could use a first delay to launch the Runnable so that the first one is close to the launch time and schedule for every 15 minutes but it seems that this would probably diverge in time. Is there an easier way to schedule the thread to run 5 minutes before every quarter hour?

    Read the article

  • How can I allow users to switch data sources for an SSRS report?

    - by fatcat1111
    I have two SQL Server databases with identical schemas, but different data. I also have SSRS generating reports, in native mode, for one of the databases. All reports the same shared data source. I would like to allow users to get reports for the other database. I created a second shared data source for the second database. Modifying the reports to use this second data source results in reports as expected. Because the RDLs are the same, except for the data source, and because I don't want to maintain what are basically duplicate reports, I'm looking for a way to dynamically switch data sources, depending on user input. Is there an easy means of accomplishing this? An existing solution would be best. Barring that, can the RDL's data source be parametrized? Or, can the RDS's connection string be parametrized?

    Read the article

  • How to avoid injecting dependencies into an object so that it can pass them on?

    - by Pheter
    I am interested in applying dependency injection to my current project, which makes use of the MVC pattern. My controllers will call the models and therefore will need to inject the dependencies into the models. To do this, the controller must have the dependencies (such as a database object) in the first place. The controller doesn't need to make use of some of these dependencies (such as the database object), so I feel that it shouldn't be given this dependency. However, it has to have these dependencies if it is to inject them into the model objects. How can I avoid having dependencies injected into an object just so that it can pass them on? Doing so feels wrong and can result in many dependencies being injected into an object. Edit: I am using PHP.

    Read the article

  • unit test service layer - NUnit, NHibernate

    - by csetzkorn
    Hi, I would like to unit test a DEPENDENT service layer which allows me to perform CRUD operation without mocking using NUnit. I know this is probably bad practice but I want to give it a try anyway - even if the tests have to run over night. My data is persisted using NHibernate and I have implemented a little library that 'bootstraps' the database which I could use in a [Setup] method. I am just wondering if someone has done something similar and what the fastest method for bootstrapping the database is. I am using something like this: var cfg = new Configuration(); cfg.Configure(); cfg.AddAssembly("Bla"); new SchemaExport(cfg).Execute(false, true, false); to establish the db schema. After that I populate some lookup tables from some Excel tables. Any feedback would be very much appreciated. Thanks. Christian

    Read the article

  • MYSQL KEY-VALUE PAIR Viability

    - by Amit
    Hi, I am new to mysql and I am looking for some answers to the follwoing questions: a) Can mysql community server can be leveraged for a key-value pair type database.?? b) Which mysql engine is best suited for a key-value pair type database ?? c) Is Mysql cluster a must for horizontal scaling of key-value based datastore or can it be acheived using MySQL replication?? d) Are there any docs or whitepapers for best practices when implementiing a kv datastore on mysql?? e) Are there any known big implementations other that friendfeed doing kv pair using MYSQL?? Would really appreciate some advise from all you Mysql gurus out there !! Thanks In Advance, Amit

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC AuthorizeAttribute passing values to ActionMethod?

    - by subskii
    Hi everyone I'm only a newcomer to ASP.NET MVC and am not sure how to achieve a certain task the "right way". Essentially, I store the logged in userId in HttpContext.User.Identity and have written an EnhancedAuthorizeAttribute to perform some custom authorization. In the overriden OnAuthorization method, my domain model hits the database to ensure the current user id can access the passed in routeValue "BatchCode". The prototype is: ReviewGroup GetReviewGroupFromBatchCode(string batchCode); It will return null if the user can't access the ReviewGroup and the OnAuthorization then denies access. Now, I know the decorated action method will only get executed if OnAuthorization passes, but I don't want to hit the database a second time to get the ReviewGroup again. I am thinking of storing the ReviewGroup in HttpContext.Items["reviewGroup"] and accessing this from the controller at the moment. Is this a feasible solution, or am I on the wrong path? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How do I use SimpleRepository without the migration approach?

    - by Bill Sempf
    I am evaluating SubSonic for use in Phase 2 of a large project. This is an ASP.NET project, with 700 tables in a SQL Server database. We are planning for our domain model to consist of POCO classes to assist with an offline access requirements we have. I believe that the SimpleRepository pattern would be among my best options. Since I have a database already, however, the migration assistance doesn't help me. Are there T4 templates for SimpleRepository that I just overlooked? How do I 'turn off' migration? If I missed something in the Wiki, point me there, otherwise get me started and I'll write up a Wiki entry for y'all when we get there.

    Read the article

  • Tables with no Primary Key

    - by Matt Hamilton
    I have several tables whose only unique data is a uniqueidentifier (a Guid) column. Because guids are non-sequential (and they're client-side generated so I can't use newsequentialid()), I have made a non-primary, non-clustered index on this ID field rather than giving the tables a clustered primary key. I'm wondering what the performance implications are for this approach. I've seen some people suggest that tables should have an auto-incrementing ("identity") int as a clustered primary key even if it doesn't have any meaning, as it means that the database engine itself can use that value to quickly look up a row instead of having to use a bookmark. My database is merge-replicated across a bunch of servers, so I've shied away from identity int columns as they're a bit hairy to get right in replication. What are your thoughts? Should tables have primary keys? Or is it ok to not have any clustered indexes if there are no sensible columns to index that way?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 568 569 570 571 572 573 574 575 576 577 578 579  | Next Page >