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• Capacity Allocation

  - by user1708730

  I am new to VB in Excel. I have a unique requirement for capacity allocation which I want to automate using excel VB and facing hard time doing so, hope you can help. The objective is to maximize profit by allocating maximum capacity to those products which have highest profit potential first. Every Month I get demand along with backlogs of previous month. I need to allocate capacity to backlogs of previous month first and then only the remaining capacity for fresh demand. There are two primary constraints: 1.The number of working days in a month (variable) 2. Not all products can be made on every production line and out of same product may be different for each production line Also there will be losses whenever there is a change over from one SKU to another depending upon the Variant Type and size of next product. If there is variant change then 8 hours of production loss needs to be accounted and 4 hours in case of size change(8 hours in case of both). I have attached sample data(Actual data has 10 production lines and 50 products) https://rapidshare.com/files/1822719405/Sample%20Data.xlsx?bin=1 Thanks in advance for help!

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• PHP - uninitialized array offset

  - by kimmothy16

  Hey everyone, I am using PHP to create a form with an array of fields. Basically you can add an unlimited number of 'people' to the form and each person has a first name, last name, and phone number. The form requires that you add a phone number for the first person only. If you leave the phone number field blank on any others, the handler file is supposed to be programmed to use the phone number from the first person. So, my fields are: person[] - a hidden field with a value that is this person's primary key. fname[] - an input field lname[] - an input field phone[] - an input field my form handler looks like this: $people = $_POST['person'] $counter = 0; foreach($people as $person): if(phone[$counter] == '') { // use $phone[0]'s phone number } else { // use $phone[$counter] number } $counter = $counter + 1; endforeach; PHP doesn't like this though, it is throwing me an Notice: Uninitialized string offset error. I debugged it by running the is_array function on people, fname, lname, and phone and it returns true to being an array. I can also manually echo out $phone[2], etc. and get the correct value. I've also ran is_int on the $counter variable and it returned true, so I'm unsure why this isn't working as intended? Any help would be great!

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• C++ templated factory constructor/de-serialization

  - by KRao

  Hi, I was looking at the boost serialization library, and the intrusive way to provide support for serialization is to define a member function with signature (simplifying): class ToBeSerialized { public: //Define this to support serialization //Notice not virtual function! template<class Archive> void serialize(Archive & ar) {.....} }; Moreover, one way to support serilization of derived class trough base pointers is to use a macro of the type: //No mention to the base class(es) from which Derived_class inherits BOOST_CLASS_EXPORT_GUID(Derived_class, "derived_class") where Derived_class is some class which is inheriting from a base class, say Base_class. Thanks to this macro, it is possible to serialize classes of type Derived_class through pointers to Base_class correctly. The question is: I am used in C++ to write abstract factories implemented through a map from std::string to (pointer to) functions which return objects of the desired type (and eveything is fine thanks to covariant types). Hover I fail to see how I could use the above non-virtual serialize template member function to properly de-serialize (i.e. construct) an object without knowing its type (but assuming that the type information has been stored by the serializer, say in a string). What I would like to do (keeping the same nomenclature as above) is something like the following: XmlArchive xmlArchive; //A type or archive xmlArchive.open("C:/ser.txt"); //Contains type information for the serialized class Base_class* basePtr = Factory<Base_class>::create("derived_class",xmlArchive); with the function on the righ-hand side creating an object on the heap of type Derived_class (via default constructor, this is the part I know how to solve) and calling the serialize function of xmlArchive (here I am stuck!), i.e. do something like: Base_class* Factory<Base_class>::create("derived_class",xmlArchive) { Base_class* basePtr = new Base_class; //OK, doable, usual map string to pointer to function static_cast<Derived_class*>( basePtr )->serialize( xmlArchive ); //De-serialization, how????? return basePtr; } I am sure this can be done (boost serialize does it but its code is impenetrable! :P), but I fail to figure out how. The key problem is that the serialize function is a template function. So I cannot have a pointer to a generic templated function. As the point in writing the templated serialize function is to make the code generic (i.e. not having to re-write the serialize function for different Archivers), it does not make sense then to have to register all the derived classes for all possible archive types, like: MY_CLASS_REGISTER(Derived_class, XmlArchive); MY_CLASS_REGISTER(Derived_class, TxtArchive); ... In fact in my code I relies on overloading to get the correct behaviour: void serialize( XmlArchive& archive, Derived_class& derived ); void serialize( TxtArchive& archive, Derived_class& derived ); ... The key point to keep in mind is that the archive type is always known, i.e. I am never using runtime polymorphism for the archive class...(again I am using overloading on the archive type). Any suggestion to help me out? Thank you very much in advance! Cheers

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• What is the best / proper idiom in django for modifying a field during a .save() where you need to o

  - by MDBGuy

  Hi, say I've got: class LogModel(models.Model): message = models.CharField(max_length=512) class Assignment(models.Model): someperson = models.ForeignKey(SomeOtherModel) def save(self, *args, **kwargs): super(Assignment, self).save() old_person = #????? LogModel(message="%s is no longer assigned to %s"%(old_person, self).save() LogModel(message="%s is now assigned to %s"%(self.someperson, self).save() My goal is to save to LogModel some messages about who Assignment was assigned to. Notice that I need to know the old, presave value of this field. I have seen code that suggests, before super().save(), retrieve the instance from the database via primary key and grab the old value from there. This could work, but is a bit messy. In addition, I plan to eventually split this code out of the .save() method via signals - namely pre_save() and post_save(). Trying to use the above logic (Retrieve from the db in pre_save, make the log entry in post_save) seemingly fails here, as pre_save and post_save are two seperate methods. Perhaps in pre_save I can retrieve the old value and stick it on the model as an attribute? I was wondering if there was a common idiom for this. Thanks.

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• Oracle User definied aggregate function for varray of varchar

  - by baju

  I am trying to write some aggregate function for the varray and I get this error code when I'm trying to use it with data from the DB: ORA-00600 internal error code, arguments: [kodpunp1], [], [], [], [], [], [], [], [], [], [], [] [koxsihread1], [0], [3989], [45778], [], [], [], [], [], [], [], [] Code of the function is really simple(in fact it does nothing ): create or replace TYPE "TEST_VECTOR" as varray(10) of varchar(20) ALTER TYPE "TEST_VECTOR" MODIFY LIMIT 4000 CASCADE create or replace type Test as object( lastVector TEST_VECTOR, STATIC FUNCTION ODCIAggregateInitialize(sctx in out Test) return number, MEMBER FUNCTION ODCIAggregateIterate(self in out Test, value in TEST_VECTOR) return number, MEMBER FUNCTION ODCIAggregateMerge(self IN OUT Test, ctx2 IN Test) return number, MEMBER FUNCTION ODCIAggregateTerminate(self IN Test, returnValue OUT TEST_VECTOR, flags IN number) return number ); create or replace type body Test is STATIC FUNCTION ODCIAggregateInitialize(sctx in out Test) return number is begin sctx := Test(TEST_VECTOR()); return ODCIConst.Success; end; MEMBER FUNCTION ODCIAggregateIterate(self in out Test, value in TEST_VECTOR) return number is begin self.lastVector := value; return ODCIConst.Success; end; MEMBER FUNCTION ODCIAggregateMerge(self IN OUT Test, ctx2 IN Test) return number is begin return ODCIConst.Success; end; MEMBER FUNCTION ODCIAggregateTerminate(self IN Test, returnValue OUT TEST_VECTOR, flags IN number) return number is begin returnValue := self.lastVector; return ODCIConst.Success; end; end; create or replace FUNCTION test_fn (input TEST_VECTOR) RETURN TEST_VECTOR PARALLEL_ENABLE AGGREGATE USING Test; Next I create some test data: create table t1_test_table( t1_id number not null, t1_value TEST_VECTOR not null, Constraint PRIMARY_KEY_1 PRIMARY KEY (t1_id) ) Next step is to put some data to the table insert into t1_test_table (t1_id,t1_value) values (1,TEST_VECTOR('x','y','z')) Now everything is prepared to perform queries: Select test_fn(TEST_VECTOR('y','x')) from dual Query above work well Select test_fn(t1_value) from t1_test_table where t1_id = 1 Version of Oracle DBMS I use: 11.2.0.3.0 Does anyone tried do such a thing? What can be the reason that it does not work? How to solve it? Thanks in advance for help.

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• Rails Association Problem

  - by looloobs

  I am having trouble with this association. I need to get an array of the primaries that belong to the soldiers in a platoon. So once I get all the soldiers in a platoon: @company = Company.find_by_id(1) @platoons = @company.platoons <% @platoons.each do |p| %> <%= p.soldiers.primaries.find(:all,:conditions => ["relationship = ? AND contacted = ?", 'Spouse', 'Yes'])) %> <% end %> * So there is no method for primaries, I assume this is because I am trying to call an association on an array. Soldiers have a platoon_id but primaries do not, they only have the association to soldiers in that platoon. How do I do this? I need it to return an array of Primaries. Thanks in advance! class Soldier < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :company belongs_to :platoon has_many :primaries, :dependent => :destroy end class Platoon < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :company belongs_to :battalion has_many :soldiers end class Primary < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :soldier belongs_to :company end

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• How can get unique values from data table using dql?

  - by piemesons

  I am having a table in which there is a column in which various values are stored.i want to retrieve unique values from that table using dql. Doctrine_Query::create() ->select('rec.school') ->from('Records rec') ->where("rec.city='$city' ") ->execute(); Now i want only unique values. Can anybody tell me how to do that... Edit Table Structure: CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `records` ( `id` int(11) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `state` varchar(255) COLLATE utf8_unicode_ci DEFAULT NULL, `city` varchar(255) COLLATE utf8_unicode_ci DEFAULT NULL, `school` varchar(255) COLLATE utf8_unicode_ci DEFAULT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8 COLLATE=utf8_unicode_ci AUTO_INCREMENT=16334 ; This is the Query I am using: Doctrine_Query::create() ->select('DISTINCT rec.city') ->from('Records rec') ->where("rec.state = '$state'") // ->getSql(); ->execute(); Generting Sql for this gives me: SELECT DISTINCT r.id AS r__id, r.city AS r__city FROM records r WHERE r.state = 'AR' Now check the sql generated:::: DISTINCT is on 'id' column where as i want Distinct on city column. Anybody know how to fix this. EDIT2 Id is unique cause its an auto incremental value.Ya i have some real duplicates in city column like: Delhi and Delhi. Right.. Now when i am trying to fetch data from it, I am getting Delhi two times. How can i make query like this: select DISTINCT rec.city where state="xyz"; Cause this will give me the proper output. EDIT3: Anybody who can tell me how to figure out this query..???

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• Problem with Global Array in PHP

  - by Suezy

  Hi guys,, need some help pls.. i have a PHP code here that lets a user send a message to multiple recipients using the "phonebook" (from database) as the main list. I used an array to temporarily hold all the desired recipients for the current user. So I have a two box, with each for displaying. The user will clicks the name from the phonebook lisy and clicks "Add" button to add on the temporary list on the other select box. The problem is, whenever I use the "onChange" function in javascript; the array accepts only one recipients, and when I try to add, it replaces the first one. :( Here is my code: $recipients = array(); // How do I place the array here? function reload_page(){ i=document.maillinglist.firstletter.selectedIndex; this.location='./group_msg.php?firstletter='+document.maillinglist.firstletter.options[i].value; } function add(){ } $conn = pg_connect("host=localhost user=sa dbname=messaging"); if(isset($_GET['firstletter'])){ $letter=$_GET['firstletter']; } else { $letter='a';} print ""; print "GROUP MESSAGE"; print ""; print ""; print ""; print ""; for($chr_loop=97;$chr_loop<=122;$chr_loop++){ $alphabet = chr($chr_loop); # Displays list of users arranged by letters - this works fine if($alphabet==$letter){ print "\t\t<option value='$alphabet' selected>-------------------- $alphabet --------------------</option>\n"; } else { print "\t\t<option value='$alphabet'>-------------------- $alphabet --------------------</option>\n";} } print ""; print "<td><select style='width:210px' name=\"non_members[]\" size=10 width=200>"; $sql = "select name from test_phonebook where name like '$letter%';"; $result = pg_query($conn, $sql); # Display users from phonebook using the letter chosen while($row = pg_fetch_assoc($result)){ $my_name = $row['name']; print "<option width=200 value=\"$my_name\">$my_name</option>"; } print "</td>"; print "</select>"; print "<td><input type=submit name=add value=\"->>\" onClick=\"add()\"><br><input type=submit name=del value=\"<<-\"></td>"; print "<td><select name=\"members[]\" style='width:210px' size=10>"; # Display temporary recipients - problem: ONLY DISPLAYS ONE VALUE while (list ($key, $val) = each ($recipients)) { echo "$key -> $val <br>"; print "<option width=200 value=\"$val\">$val</option>"; } print "</select></table></form>"; My aim here, is to place all recipients that the user desires to an array, without losing the previous value added.

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• transfering a container of data to different classes

  - by user340699

  I am passing a vector of bids from Trader class to Simulator class.which class then passes it on to the auctioneer class.something seems messed up, can anyone spot it please. Below is part of the code: Error: 199 expected primary-expression before '&' token //Class of Origin of the vector. class Trader { private: int nextBidId; public: Trader(); ~Trader(){}; Bid getNextBid(); Bid getNextBid(int trdId, int qty, int price, char type); void loadRange( vector <Bid> & bids ) {} ; void loadRange(BidList &, int trdId, int qty, int price, char type, int size); }; //To be received by the Simulator class Simulator { vector <Bid> list; Trader trader; Auctioneer auctioneer; public: void run(); }; // Passing the vector into a function in simulator Simulator::accept_bids(bid_vector::const_iterator begin, bid_vector::const_iterator end){ vector<Bid>::iterator itr; } //Its journey should end with the Auctioneer. who displays the data class Auctioneer { public: vector <Bid>v2;// created a new vector to hold the objects void accept_bids(vector<Bid> & bids); void displayBids(){return bids} };

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• WPF MVVM TreeView item source losing context after command

  - by user3955716

  I have a treeview which contains files, every view model holds an item source which is an ObservableCollection with files items: public ObservableCollection<CMItemFileNode> SubItemNode On each item i have context menu options (Delete, Execute..). If i move from one viewModel to another the ObservableCollection of files updated correctly and presented correctly but, when i perform a context menu command like delete file item, the command execute good but when i move to another view model (which holds SubItemNode ObservableCollection of is own) after the command executed the WPF still thinks i'm in the last view model i was in and not the one i'm really on. Very important to mention is that when i update to .net 4.5 (which unfortunantly i can't do) everything is ok and the ObservableCollection addresses the correct view model. Here is the treeView: <TreeView x:Name="Files" Margin="0,5,5,0" Grid.Row="6" Grid.Column="2" ItemsSource="{Binding SubItemNode}" HorizontalAlignment="Stretch" HorizontalContentAlignment="Stretch" VerticalAlignment="Stretch" Height="300" Grid.RowSpan="6" Width="300" dd:DragDrop.IsDragSource="True" dd:DragDrop.IsDropTarget="True" dd:DragDrop.DropHandler="{Binding}" dd:DragDrop.UseDefaultDragAdorner="True"> <TreeView.Resources> <Style TargetType="{x:Type TreeView}"> <Setter Property="local:CMTreeViewFilesBehavior.IsTreeViewFilesBehavior" Value="True"/> </Style> <Style TargetType="{x:Type TreeViewItem}"> <Setter Property="IsSelected" Value="{Binding IsSelected}" /> <Setter Property="local:CMTreeViewFilesItemBehavior.IsTreeViewFilesItemBehavior" Value="True"/> </Style> <SolidColorBrush x:Key="{x:Static SystemColors.HighlightBrushKey}" Color="Transparent" /> <SolidColorBrush x:Key="{x:Static SystemColors.HighlightTextBrushKey}" Color="Black" /> </TreeView.Resources> <TreeView.ContextMenu> <ContextMenu> <MenuItem Header="View File" Command="{Binding ExecuteFileCommand}" /> <Separator /> <MenuItem Header="Delete all" Command="{Binding DeleteAllFilesCommand}" /> <MenuItem Header="Delete selected" Command="{Binding DeleteSelectedFilesCommand}" /> </ContextMenu> </TreeView.ContextMenu> <TreeView.ItemTemplate> <HierarchicalDataTemplate ItemsSource="{Binding SubItemNode}" > <Grid> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto"/> <ColumnDefinition Width="*"/> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <Image Grid.Column="0" Margin="2" Width="32" Height="18" Source="{Binding Path=Icon}" HorizontalAlignment="Left" VerticalAlignment="Center" /> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=Name}" Grid.Column="1" Margin="2" VerticalAlignment="Center" Foreground="{Binding Path=Status, Converter={StaticResource ItemFileStatusToColor}}" FontWeight="{Binding Path=IsSelected, Converter={StaticResource BoolToFontWidth}}"/> </Grid> </HierarchicalDataTemplate> </TreeView.ItemTemplate> </TreeView> Am I doing somthing wrong? and why in .net 4.5 it works well ?

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• Need opinions on LaTeX and ever upgrading

  - by yCalleecharan

  Hi, I've been using LaTeX since 2005 with the TeXLive distribution and I've been upgrading as each new TeXLive distribution comes out. In the recent years I noticed an increase in new packages, updated packages and in one instance a new package bearing a different name replacing an old one by the same package author. A LaTeX document which relies heavily on packages and which has been produced a few years back may start to get some warnings and error messages on present-day LaTeX compilation. The primary reason I switched to LaTeX is because of its reliability and robustness to create big documents easily, not to mention the adorable typographic quality. With LaTeX one doesn't have to worry about how to open a docx in an old program supporting only doc for instance. Now, when there are so much continual changes in the packages in a LaTeX distribution, I tend to wonder when will this madness end. Not that having enhanced and new features are bad in packages, but not all updated packages are backward compatible. Eventually one would like to be able to compile a LaTeX file in 10 years time that he/she is working on at present and not get any compilation warnings/error messages due to some unpredictable behavior of updated packages or due to a package that has been cast-off from a LaTeX distribution. If I understand correctly CTAN do keep a database with all packages from different versions. I would like to know how you LaTeX users handle this issue. Thanks a lot...

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• figuring out which field to look for a value in with SQL and perl

  - by Micah

  I'm not too good with SQL and I know there's probably a much more efficient way to accomplish what I'm doing here, so any help would be much appreciated. Thanks in advance for your input! I'm writing a short program for the local school high school. At this school, juniors and seniors who have driver's licenses and cars can opt to drive to school rather than ride the bus. Each driver is assigned exactly one space, and their DLN is used as the primary key of the driver's table. Makes, models, and colors of cars are stored in a separate cars table, related to the drivers table by the License plate number field. My idea is to have a single search box on the main GUI of the program where the school secretary can type in who/what she's looking for and pull up a list of results. Thing is, she could be typing a license plate number, a car color, make, and model, someone driver's name, some student driver's DLN, or a space number. As the programmer, I don't know what exactly she's looking for, so a couple of options come to mind for me to build to be certain I check everywhere for a match: 1) preform a couple of SELECT * FROM [tablename] SQL statements, one per table and cram the results into arrays in my program, then search across the arrays one element at a time with regex, looking for a matched pattern similar to the search term, and if I find one, add the entire record that had a match in it to a results array to display on screen at the end of the search. 2) take whatever she's looking for into the program as a scaler and prepare multiple select statements around it, such as SELECT * FROM DRIVERS WHERE DLN = $Search_Variable SELECT * FROM DRIVERS WHERE First_Name = $Search_Variable SELECT * FROM CARS WHERE LICENSE = $Search_Variable and so on for each attribute of each table, sticking the results into a results array to show on screen when the search is done. Is there a cleaner way to go about this lookup without having to make her specify exactly what she's looking for? Possibly some kind of SQL statement I've never seen before?

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• do not allow integrated windows authentication *for one of the domains*

  - by MK

  We have an ASP.NET web application which uses integrated windows authentication. It is accessed by users from two domains, A and B. A is the primary domain and B is an older domain which is going away. Web application is authenticating users using a group policy which only exists in domain A. Every user in domain B has an account in domain A. The application lives in domain A. There was no trust between the domains. So users from domain A would get silently authenticated and logged into the site. Users from domain B didn't get authenticated automatically and were prompted with the IE popup, to which they authenticated using their domain A credentials and everything worked. Now somebody has set up a trust between the domains and users from domain B get authenticated silently to IIS, and then their login fails (no group policy). So the question is: can I either programmatically or in IIS configuration make it so that users from domain B still get prompted even though there is trust between the domains? Is there a way to tell the server where IIS is running to ignore the trust relationship maybe?

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• Apache mod_rewrite - forward domain root to subdirectory

  - by DuFace

  I have what I originally assumed to be a simple problem. I am using shared hosting for my website (so I don't have access to the Apache configuration) and have only been given a single folder to store all my content in. This is all well and good but it means that all my subdomains must have their virtual document root's inside public_html, meaning they effectively become a folder on my main domain. What I'd like to do is organise my public_html something like this: public_html/ www/ index.php ... sub1/ index.php ... some_library/ ... This way, all my web content is still in public_html but only a small fraction of it will be served to the client. I can easily achieve this for all the subdomains, but it's the primary domain that I'm having issues with. I created a .htaccess file in public_html with the following: Options +SymLinksIfOwnerMatch # I'm not allowed to use FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine on RewriteBase / RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/www [NC] RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /www/$1 [L] This works fairly well, but for some strange reason www.example.com/stuff is translated into a request for www.example.com/www/stuff and hence a 404 error is given. It was my understanding that unless an 'R' flag was specified, mod_rewrite was purely internal so I can't understand why the request is generated as that implies (to me at least) redirection. I assumed this would be a trivial problem to solve as all I actually want to do is forward all requests for the root of www.example.com to a subdirectory, but I've spent hours searching for answers and none are quite correct. I find it difficult to believe I'm the only person to have this issue. I apologise if this question has been answered on here before, I did search and trawl but couldn't find an appropriate answer. Please could someone shed some light on this?

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• Need some advice before starting coding my next iPhone app...

  - by Tom

  Hi! I need some advice about how should I start coding something. So here is the context: I've just finished building a CMS that manage a SQLite database. My application will be picking this database and use its content as the application's content. So far it's pretty simple. The application will have a navigation that will browse through various workflows, and once at the end workflow, it'll show contents from the database. A consultation kind a thing, example: Liquids - Juice - Orange Juice - Informations about Orange Juice. For my SQLite transactions, so far I believe I'll be using fmdb. It looks like a great wrapper. Here's a simple schema from one of the database: Workflow: id: { type: integer(3), primary: true, autoincrement: true } workflow_id: { type: integer(1) } name: { type: string(255) } That table's rows will be my navigations. Do you believe I should use a navigation controller? If so, then how could I generate the navigation tree from it? I have a good working knowledge of Objective-C and Foundation framework, but never went too far with it so that is why I'm asking before starting in the wrong direction :) Thanks a lot.

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• Use SQL to clone a tree structure represented in a database

  - by AmoebaMan17

  Given a table that represents a hierarchical tree structure and has three columns ID (Primary Key, not-autoincrementing) ParentGroupID SomeValue I know the lowest most node of that branch, and I want to copy that to a new branch with the same number of parents that also need to be cloned. I am trying to write a single SQL INSERT INTO statement that will make a copy of every row that is of the same main has is part one GroupID into a new GroupID. Example beginning table: ID | ParentGroupID | SomeValue ------------------------ 1 | -1 | a 2 | 1 | b 3 | 2 | c Goal after I run a simple INSERT INTO statement: ID | ParentGroupID | SomeValue ------------------------ 1 | -1 | a 2 | 1 | b 3 | 2 | c 4 | -1 | a-cloned 5 | 4 | b-cloned 6 | 5 | c-cloned Final tree structure +--a (1) | +--b (2) | +--c (3) | +--a-cloned (4) | +--b-cloned (5) | +--c-cloned (6) The IDs aren't always nicely spaced out as this demo data is showing, so I can't always assume that the Parent's ID is 1 less than the current ID for rows that have parents. Also, I am trying to do this in T-SQL (for Microsoft SQL Server 2005 and greater). This feels like a classic exercise that should have a pure-SQL answer, but I'm too used to programming that my mind doesn't think in relational SQL.

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• Entity framework self referencing loop detected

  - by Lyd0n

  I have a strange error. I'm experimenting with a .NET 4.5 Web API, Entity Framework and MS SQL Server. I've already created the database and set up the correct primary and foreign keys and relationships. I've created a .edmx model and imported two tables: Employee and Department. A department can have many employees and this relationship exists. I created a new controller called EmployeeController using the scaffolding options to create an API controller with read/write actions using Entity Framework. In the wizard, selected Employee as the model and the correct entity for the data context. The method that is created looks like this: // GET api/Employee public IEnumerable<Employee> GetEmployees() { var employees = db.Employees.Include(e => e.Department); return employees.AsEnumerable(); } When I call my API via /api/Employee, I get this error: ...The 'ObjectContent`1' type failed to serialize the response body for content type 'application/json; ...System.InvalidOperationException","StackTrace":null,"InnerException":{"Message":"An error has occurred.","ExceptionMessage":"Self referencing loop detected with type 'System.Data.Entity.DynamicProxies.Employee_5D80AD978BC68A1D8BD675852F94E8B550F4CB150ADB8649E8998B7F95422552'. Path '[0].Department.Employees'.","ExceptionType":"Newtonsoft.Json.JsonSerializationException","StackTrace":" ... Why is it self referencing [0].Department.Employees? That doesn't make a whole lot of sense. I would expect this to happen if I had circular referencing in my database but this is a very simple example. What could be going wrong?

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• Inline function v. Macro in C -- What's the Overhead (Memory/Speed)?

  - by Jason R. Mick

  I searched Stack Overflow for the pros/cons of function-like macros v. inline functions. I found the following discussion: Pros and Cons of Different macro function / inline methods in C ...but it didn't answer my primary burning question. Namely, what is the overhead in c of using a macro function (with variables, possibly other function calls) v. an inline function, in terms of memory usage and execution speed? Are there any compiler-dependent differences in overhead? I have both icc and gcc at my disposal. My code snippet I'm modularizing is: double AttractiveTerm = pow(SigmaSquared/RadialDistanceSquared,3); double RepulsiveTerm = AttractiveTerm * AttractiveTerm; EnergyContribution += 4 * Epsilon * (RepulsiveTerm - AttractiveTerm); My reason for turning it into an inline function/macro is so I can drop it into a c file and then conditionally compile other similar, but slightly different functions/macros. e.g.: double AttractiveTerm = pow(SigmaSquared/RadialDistanceSquared,3); double RepulsiveTerm = pow(SigmaSquared/RadialDistanceSquared,9); EnergyContribution += 4 * Epsilon * (RepulsiveTerm - AttractiveTerm); (note the difference in the second line...) This function is a central one to my code and gets called thousands of times per step in my program and my program performs millions of steps. Thus I want to have the LEAST overhead possible, hence why I'm wasting time worrying about the overhead of inlining v. transforming the code into a macro. Based on the prior discussion I already realize other pros/cons (type independence and resulting errors from that) of macros... but what I want to know most, and don't currently know is the PERFORMANCE. I know some of you C veterans will have some great insight for me!!

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• iPhone or Android apps that use SMS based authentication?

  - by JSW

  What are some iPhone or Android applications that use SMS as their primary means of user authentication? I'm interested to see such apps in action. SMS-auth seems like a natural approach that is well-situated to mobile contexts. The basic workflow is: to sign up, a user provides a phone number; the app calls a backend webservice which generates a signed URL and sends it to the phone number via an SMS gateway; the user receives the SMS, clicks the link, and is thus verified and logged in. This results in a very strong user identity that is difficult to spoof yet fairly easy. It can be paired with a username or additional account attributes as needed for the product requirements. Despite the advantages, this does not seem to be in much use - hence my question. My initial assumption is that this is because products and users are wary of asking for / providing phone numbers, which users consider sensitive information. That said, I hope this becomes an increasingly more commonplace approach.

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• How does one force construction of a global object in a statically linked library? [MSVC9]

  - by Peter C O Johansson

  I have a global list of function pointers. This list should be populated at startup. Order is not important and there are no dependencies that would complicate static initialization. To facilitate this, I've written a class that adds a single entry to this list in its constructor, and scatter global instances of this class via a macro where necessary. One of the primary goals of this approach is to remove the need for explicitly referencing every instance of this class externally, instead allowing each file that needs to register something in the list to do it independently. Nice and clean. However, when placing these objects in a static library, the linker discards (or rather never links in) these units because no code in them is explicitly referenced. Explicitly referencing symbols in the compilation units would be counterproductive, directly contradicting one of the main goals of the approach. For the same reason, /INCLUDE is not an acceptable option, and /OPT:NOREF is not actually related to this problem. Metrowerks has a __declspec directive for it, GCC has -force_load, but I cannot find any equivalent for MSVC.

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• position of View on asp.net mvc site master page

  - by ognjenb

  How fix data table to open only in Main Content Frame? Structure of my site.master page is: left content, main content and right content. When open View page in main content she goes to the right content if it is large. Is this CSS problem? My problem is similar to this http://www.inq.me/post/ASPNet-MVC-Extension-method-to-create-a-Security-Aware-HtmlActionLink.aspx This is my CSS(come with template): /*~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ PRIMARY LAYOUT STYLES ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~*/ .content-container { position:relative; _height:1px; min-height:1px; width:900px; /* background:url(images/bg-column-left.png) repeat-y;*/ } .content-container-inner { /*background:url(images/bg-column-right.png) repeat-y right;*/ _height:1px; min-height:1px; /*padding:0 200px;*/ position:relative; /*width:900px;*/ } .content-main { padding :15px 0% 0px 2%; /*position:relative;*/ min-height:1px; _height:1px; float:left; position:relative; /*width:96%;*/ /*width:900px;*/ } .content-left { padding:20px 10px; float:left; width:180px; margin-top:-1px; position:relative; margin-left:-100%; right:200px; _left:200px; border-top:1px dotted #797979; } .content-right { padding :15px 10px 10px 10px; float:left; width:160px; position:relative; margin-right:-200px; } .ads { text-align:center; margin:20px 0; } /*~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~

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• Make wix installation set upgrade to same folder

  - by Magnus Akselvoll

  How can I make a major upgrade to an installation set (MSI) built with Wix install into the same folder as the original installation? The installation is correctly detected as an upgrade, but the directory selection screen is still shown and with the default value (not necessarily the current installation folder). Do I have to do manual work like saving the installation folder in a registry key upon first installing and then read this key upon upgrade? If so, is there any example? Or is there some easier way to achieve this in MSI / Wix? As reference I paste in my current Wix file below: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <!-- Package information --> <Package Keywords="Installer" Id="e85e6190-1cd4-49f5-8924-9da5fcb8aee8" Description="Installs MyCompany Integration Framework 1.0.0" Comments="Installs MyCompany Integration Framework 1.0.0" InstallerVersion="100" Compressed="yes" /> <Upgrade Id='9071eacc-9b5a-48e3-bb90-8064d2b2c45d'> <UpgradeVersion Property="PATCHFOUND" OnlyDetect="no" Minimum="0.0.1" IncludeMinimum="yes" Maximum="1.0.0" IncludeMaximum="yes"/> </Upgrade> <!-- Useless but necessary... --> <Media Id="1" Cabinet="MyCompany.cab" EmbedCab="yes" /> <!-- Precondition: .Net 2 must be installed --> <Condition Message='This setup requires the .NET Framework 2 or higher.'> <![CDATA[MsiNetAssemblySupport >= "2.0.50727"]]> </Condition> <Directory Id="TARGETDIR" Name="SourceDir"> <Directory Id="MyCompany" Name="MyCompany"> <Directory Id="INSTALLDIR" Name="Integrat" LongName="MyCompany Integration Framework"> <Component Id="MyCompanyDllComponent" Guid="4f362043-03a0-472d-a84f-896522ce7d2b" DiskId="1"> <File Id="MyCompanyIntegrationDll" Name="IbIntegr.dll" src="..\Build\MyCompany.Integration.dll" Vital="yes" LongName="MyCompany.Integration.dll" /> <File Id="MyCompanyServiceModelDll" Name="IbSerMod.dll" src="..\Build\MyCompany.ServiceModel.dll" Vital="yes" LongName="MyCompany.ServiceModel.dll" /> </Component> <!-- More components --> </Directory> </Directory> </Directory> <Feature Id="MyCompanyProductFeature" Title='MyCompany Integration Framework' Description='The complete package' Display='expand' Level="1" InstallDefault='local' ConfigurableDirectory="INSTALLDIR"> <ComponentRef Id="MyCompanyDllComponent" /> </Feature> <!-- Task scheduler application. It has to be used as a property --> <Property Id="finaltaskexe" Value="MyCompany.Integration.Host.exe" /> <Property Id="WIXUI_INSTALLDIR" Value="INSTALLDIR" /> <InstallExecuteSequence> <!-- command must be executed: MyCompany.Integration.Host.exe /INITIALCONFIG parameters.xml --> <Custom Action='PropertyAssign' After='InstallFinalize'>NOT Installed AND NOT PATCHFOUND</Custom> <Custom Action='LaunchFile' After='InstallFinalize'>NOT Installed AND NOT PATCHFOUND</Custom> <RemoveExistingProducts Before='CostInitialize' /> </InstallExecuteSequence> <!-- execute comand --> <CustomAction Id='PropertyAssign' Property='PathProperty' Value='[INSTALLDIR][finaltaskexe]' /> <CustomAction Id='LaunchFile' Property='PathProperty' ExeCommand='/INITIALCONFIG "[INSTALLDIR]parameters.xml"' Return='asyncNoWait' /> <!-- User interface information --> <UIRef Id="WixUI_InstallDir" /> <UIRef Id="WixUI_ErrorProgressText" />

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• ASP.MVC 2 Model Data Persistance

  - by toccig

  I'm and MVC1 programmer, new to the MVC2. The data will not persist to the database in an edit scenario. Create works fine. Controller: // // POST: /Attendee/Edit/5 [Authorize(Roles = "Admin")] [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Edit(Attendee attendee) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { UpdateModel(attendee, "Attendee"); repository.Save(); return RedirectToAction("Details", attendee); } else { return View(attendee); } } Model: [MetadataType(typeof(Attendee_Validation))] public partial class Attendee { } public class Attendee_Validation { [HiddenInput(DisplayValue = false)] public int attendee_id { get; set; } [HiddenInput(DisplayValue = false)] public int attendee_pin { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "* required")] [StringLength(50, ErrorMessage = "* Must be under 50 characters")] public string attendee_fname { get; set; } [StringLength(50, ErrorMessage = "* Must be under 50 characters")] public string attendee_mname { get; set; } } I tried to add [Bind(Exclude="attendee_id")] above the Class declaration, but then the value of the attendee_id attribute is set to '0'. View (Strongly-Typed): <% using (Html.BeginForm()) {%> ... <%=Html.Hidden("attendee_id", Model.attendee_id) %> ... <%=Html.SubmitButton("btnSubmit", "Save") %> <% } %> Basically, the repository.Save(); function seems to do nothing. I imagine it has something to do with a primary key constraint violation. But I'm not getting any errors from SQL Server. The application appears to runs fine, but the data is never persisted to the Database.

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• Beginner PHP: I can't insert data into MYSQL database

  - by Victor

  I'm learning PHP right now and I'm trying to insert data into a MySQL database called "pumpl2" The table is set up like this. create table product ( productid int unsigned not null auto_increment primary key, price int(9) not null, value int(9) not null, description text ); I have a form and want to insert the fields from the form in the database. Here is what the php file looks like. <?php // create short variable names $price = $_POST['price']; $value = $_POST['value']; $description = $_POST['description']; if (!$price || !$value || !$description) { echo "You have not entered all the required details.<br />" ."Please go back and try again."; exit; } @ $db = new mysqli('localhost', 'pumpl', '********', 'pumpl2'); if (mysqli_connect_errno()) { echo "Error: Could not connect to database. Please try again later."; exit; } $query = "insert into pumpl2 values ('".$price."', '".$value."', '".$description."')"; $result = $db->query($query); if ($result) { echo $db->affected_rows." product inserted into database."; } else { echo "An error has occurred. The item was not added."; } $db->close(); ?> When I submit the form, I get an error message "An error has occurred. The item was not added." Does anyone know what the problem is? Thank you!

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• How can I concisely copy multiple SQL rows, with minor modifications?

  - by Steve Jessop

  I'm copying a subset of some data, so that the copy will be independently modifiable in future. One of my SQL statements looks something like this (I've changed table and column names): INSERT Product( ProductRangeID, Name, Weight, Price, Color, And, So, On ) SELECT @newrangeid AS ProductRangeID, Name, Weight, Price, Color, And, So, On FROM Product WHERE ProductRangeID = @oldrangeid and Color = 'Blue' That is, we're launching a new product range which initially just consists of all the blue items in some specified current range, under new SKUs. In future we may change the "blue-range" versions of the products independently of the old ones. I'm pretty new at SQL: is there something clever I should do to avoid listing all those columns, or at least avoid listing them twice? I can live with the current code, but I'd rather not have to come back and modify it if new columns are added to Product. In its current form it would just silently fail to copy the new column if I forget to do that, which should show up in testing but isn't great. I am copying every column except for the ProductRangeID (which I modify), the ProductID (incrementing primary key) and two DateCreated and timestamp columns (which take their auto-generated values for the new row). Btw, I suspect I should probably have a separate join table between ProductID and ProductRangeID. I didn't define the tables. This is in a T-SQL stored procedure on SQL Server 2008, if that makes any difference.

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