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  • NSMutableURLRequest not obeying my timeoutInterval

    - by kubi
    I'm POST'ing a small image, so i'd like the timeout interval to be short. If the image doesn't send in a few seconds, it's probably never going to send. For some unknown reason my NSURLConnection is never failing, no matter how short I set the timeoutInterval. // Create the URL request NSMutableURLRequest *request = [[NSMutableURLRequest alloc] initWithURL:[NSURL URLWithString:@"http://www.tumblr.com/api/write"] cachePolicy:NSURLRequestUseProtocolCachePolicy timeoutInterval:0.00000001]; /* Populate the request, this part works fine */ [NSURLConnection connectionWithRequest:request delegate:self]; I have a breakpoint set on - (void)connection:(NSURLConnection *)connection didFailWithError:(NSError *)error but it's never being triggered. My images continue to be posted just fine, they're showing up on Tumblr despite the tiny timeoutInterval.

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  • How do you change the allowDefinition section attribute using appcmd in IIS 7?

    - by Edward Wilde
    Is it possible to use appcmd to change the value of allowDefinition? Specifically I'm try to enable changes to the httpCompression module at the application level. Modifying the applicationHost.config by manually changing the following line: <section name="httpCompression" allowDefinition="AppHostOnly" overrideModeDefault="Deny" /> To <section name="httpCompression" allowDefinition="MachineToApplication" overrideModeDefault="Allow" /> allows me to then execute the following appcmd commands: appcmd set config "website name" /section:httpCompression /noCompressionForProxies:false appcmd set config "website name" /section:httpCompression /noCompressionForHttp10:false However I need a solution that does not rely on manually editing the applicationHost.config

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  • Modifying nested structs in c#

    - by joniba
    Can someone tell me why the commented line of code (one before last) does not compile? Isn't it the same as the line following it? public struct OtherStruct { public int PublicProperty { get; set; } public int PublicField; public OtherStruct(int propertyValue, int fieldValue) : this() { PublicProperty = propertyValue; PublicField = fieldValue; } public int GetProperty() { return PublicProperty; } public void SetProperty(int value) { PublicProperty = value; } } public struct SomeStruct { public OtherStruct OtherStruct { get; set; } } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { SomeStruct a = new SomeStruct(); //a.OtherStruct.PublicProperty++; a.OtherStruct.SetProperty(a.OtherStruct.GetProperty() + 1); } }

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  • What response Adobe Acrobat/Reader gets back after submitting form to a PHP script

    - by Laszlo
    Hi, PDF experts help needed, I am posting a form from PDF to a PHP script with Adobe Acrobat. I would like to set my PDF to display appropiate messages based upon some returned values. So I am looking for returned values... if there is any returned values after posting the form, how can I access them? Maybe, there is an option to set this in Adobe? Another thing: When the PDF form gets submitted and let's say I echo back a 'thank you' message from my form-handler PHP script, a new PDF gets created and opened displaying my message... is there a way to open that new message in the same window and close the form instead? Thanks, Laz

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  • Spring MVC defaultValue for Double

    - by mlathe
    Hi All, I'm trying to build a controller like this: @RequestMapping(method = {RequestMethod.GET}, value = "/users/detail/activities.do") public View foo(@RequestParam(value = "userCash", defaultValue="0.0") Double userCash) { System.out.println("foo userCash=" + userCash); } This works fine: http://localhost/app/users/detail/activities.do?userCash=123& but in this one userCash==null despite the default value http://localhost/app/users/detail/activities.do?userCash=& From some digging it seems like the first one works b/c of a Editor binding like this: binder.registerCustomEditor(Double.class, new CustomNumberEditor(Double.class, false)); The trouble is that the second param (ie false) defines whether blank values are allowed. If i set that to true, than the system considers the blank input as valid so i get a null Double class. If i set it to false then the system chokes on the blank input string with: org.springframework.beans.TypeMismatchException: Failed to convert value of type 'java.lang.String' to required type 'double'; nested exception is java.lang.NumberFormatException: empty String Does anyone know how to get the defaultValue to work for Doubles? Thanks --Matthias

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  • Is it possible to change the border color of a UISearchDisplayController's search bar?

    - by prendio2
    I have a UISearchBar added as my table header with the following code. searchBar = [[UISearchBar alloc] initWithFrame:self.tableView.bounds]; searchBar.tintColor = [UIColor colorWithWhite:185.0/255 alpha:1.0]; [searchBar sizeToFit]; self.tableView.tableHeaderView = searchBar; Then I set my UISearchDisplayController up as follows. searchDisplayController = [[UISearchDisplayController alloc] initWithSearchBar:searchBar contentsController:self]; [searchDisplayController setDelegate:self]; [searchDisplayController setSearchResultsDataSource:self]; Everything functions as I would like except that the UISearchDisplayController has added a blue(ish) border above the search bar — this bar does not recognise the tintColor I have set on the search bar. Is it possible to change the color of this bar? It is obviously not absolutely crucial but that line is going to bug me forever if it stays blue like that!

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  • Publish content to Facebook C#

    - by Kyle
    I apologize if this has already been answered, but all the information out there on Facebook publishing is so confusing and conflicting, I haven't been able to get anything to work yet. I'm trying to set up an application that runs on my local server to publish content to my organization's fan page (this will tie in with my WCMS to cross-post content). I believe I want a Facebook Connect application to do this which I've set up properly in Facebook and gotten an application key and secret. Here's the code I'm trying to execute, but each time it's run I get "User has not authorized access" even if I'm just trying to publish to the application wall. ConnectSession fbSession = new ConnectSession("APP_KEY", "APP_SECRET"); Api fbAPI = new Api(fbSession); fbAPI.Stream.Publish("hello world"); I've also tried: fbAPI.Stream.Publish("hello world", null, null, FAN_PAGE_ID, APP_ID); I've granted my application access to publish on the fan page.

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  • Product table, many kinds of product, each product has many parameters

    - by StoneHeart
    Hi, i'm have not much experience in table design. My goal is a product table(s), it must design to fix some requirement below: Support many kind of products (TV, Phone, PC, ...). Each kind of product has different set of parameters like: Phone will have Color, Size, Weight, OS... PC will have CPU, HDD, RAM... Set of parameters must be dynamic. You can add or edit any parameter you like. I don't want make a table for each kind of product. So I need help to find a correct solution. Thanks.

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  • IIS Strategies for Accessing Secured Network Resources

    - by ErikE
    Problem: A user connects to a service on a machine, such as an IIS web site or a SQL Server database. The site or the database need to gain access to network resources such as file shares (the most common) or a database on a different server. Permission is denied. This is because the user the service is running under doesn't have network permissions in the first place, or if it does, it doesn't have rights to access the remote resource. I keep running into this problem over and over again and am tired of not having a really solid way of handling it. Here are some workarounds I'm aware of: Run IIS as a custom-created domain user who is granted high permissions If permissions are granted one file share at a time, then every time I want to read from a new share, I would have to ask a network admin to add it for me. Eventually, with many web sites reading from many shares, it is going to get really complicated. If permissions are just opened up wide for the user to access any file shares in our domain, then this seems like an unnecessary security surface area to present. This also applies to all the sites running on IIS, rather than just the selected site or virtual directory that needs the access, a further surface area problem. Still use the IUSR account but give it network permissions and set up the same user name on the remote resource (not a domain user, a local user) This also has its problems. For example, there's a file share I am using that I have full rights to for sharing, but I can't log in to the machine. So I have to find the right admin and ask him to do it for me. Any time something has to change, it's another request to an admin. Allow IIS users to connect as anonymous, but set the account used for anonymous access to a high-privilege one This is even worse than giving the IIS IUSR full privileges, because it means my web site can't use any kind of security in the first place. Connect using Kerberos, then delegate This sounds good in principle but has all sorts of problems. First of all, if you're using virtual web sites where the domain name you connect to the site with is not the base machine name (as we do frequently), then you have to set up a Service Principal Name on the webserver using Microsoft's SetSPN utility. It's complicated and apparently prone to errors. Also, you have to ask your network/domain admin to change security policy for both the web server and the domain account so they are "trusted for delegation." If you don't get everything perfectly right, suddenly your intended Kerberos authentication is NTLM instead, and you can only impersonate rather than delegate, and thus no reaching out over the network as the user. Also, this method can be problematic because sometimes you need the web site or database to have permissions that the connecting user doesn't have. Create a service or COM+ application that fetches the resource for the web site Services and COM+ packages are run with their own set of credentials. Running as a high-privilege user is okay since they can do their own security and deny requests that are not legitimate, putting control in the hands of the application developer instead of the network admin. Problems: I am using a COM+ package that does exactly this on Windows Server 2000 to deliver highly sensitive images to a secured web application. I tried moving the web site to Windows Server 2003 and was suddenly denied permission to instantiate the COM+ object, very likely registry permissions. I trolled around quite a bit and did not solve the problem, partly because I was reluctant to give the IUSR account full registry permissions. That seems like the same bad practice as just running IIS as a high-privilege user. Note: This is actually really simple. In a programming language of your choice, you create a class with a function that returns an instance of the object you want (an ADODB.Connection, for example), and build a dll, which you register as a COM+ object. In your web server-side code, you create an instance of the class and use the function, and since it is running under a different security context, calls to network resources work. Map drive letters to shares This could theoretically work, but in my mind it's not really a good long-term strategy. Even though mappings can be created with specific credentials, and this can be done by others than a network admin, this also is going to mean that there are either way too many shared drives (small granularity) or too much permission is granted to entire file servers (large granularity). Also, I haven't figured out how to map a drive so that the IUSR gets the drives. Mapping a drive is for the current user, I don't know the IUSR account password to log in as it and create the mappings. Move the resources local to the web server/database There are times when I've done this, especially with Access databases. Does the database have to live out on the file share? Sometimes, it was just easiest to move the database to the web server or to the SQL database server (so the linked server to it would work). But I don't think this is a great all-around solution, either. And it won't work when the resource is a service rather than a file. Move the service to the final web server/database I suppose I could run a web server on my SQL Server database, so the web site can connect to it using impersonation and make me happy. But do we really want random extra web servers on our database servers just so this is possible? No. Virtual directories in IIS I know that virtual directories can help make remote resources look as though they are local, and this supports using custom credentials for each virtual directory. I haven't been able to come up with, yet, how this would solve the problem for system calls. Users could reach file shares directly, but this won't help, say, classic ASP code access resources. I could use a URL instead of a file path to read remote data files in a web page, but this isn't going to help me make a connection to an Access database, a SQL server database, or any other resource that uses a connection library rather than being able to just read all the bytes and work with them. I wish there was some kind of "service tunnel" that I could create. Think about how a VPN makes remote resources look like they are local. With a richer aliasing mechanism, perhaps code-based, why couldn't even database connections occur under a defined security context? Why not a special Windows component that lets you specify, per user, what resources are available and what alternate credentials are used for the connection? File shares, databases, web sites, you name it. I guess I'm almost talking about a specialized local proxy server. Anyway, so there's my list. I may update it if I think of more. Does anyone have any ideas for me? My current problem today is, yet again, I need a web site to connect to an Access database on a file share. Here we go again...

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  • iPhone: NSTimer Countdown (Display Minutes:Seconds)

    - by user298261
    Hello! I have my timer code set up, and it's all kosher, but I want my label to display "Minutes : seconds" instead of just seconds. -(void)countDown{ time -= 1; theTimer.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%i", time]; if(time == 0) { [countDownTimer invalidate]; } } I've already set "time" to 600, or 10 minutes. However, I want the display to show 10:59, 10:58, etc. until it reaches zero. How do I do this? Thanks!

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  • Test if a Property is not Null before Returning

    - by DaveDev
    I have the following property public MyType MyProperty {get;set;} I want to change this property so that if the value is null, it'll do populate the value first, and then return it... but without using a private member variable. For instance, if I was doing this: public MyType MyProperty { get { if (_myProperty != null) return _myProperty else _myProperty = XYZ; return _myProperty; } set { _myProperty = value; } } is this possible? Or do I need the member variable to get it done?

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  • MediaElement.Position behaviour and Windows Phone 7 issue

    - by RoguePlanetoid
    I have a problem, I have written a simple Media Player for Windows Phone 7 and can Play, Stop and control the Volume of a Video (loaded from a URI) however when I try to set the position, this causes the application to freeze. I have used both these lines, but either does not work: Player.Position = new TimeSpan(0, 0, 0, 0, (int)Position.Value); Player.Position = TimeSpan.FromSeconds((int)(Position.Value)); I do have this event handler: void Player_MediaOpened(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { Position.Maximum = Player.NaturalDuration.TimeSpan.TotalMilliseconds; } And have tried using the Seconds value, casting to Ints etc, however everytime I try to set the Position, the app freezes. The video otherwise plays normally - anyone know what the problem may be here?

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  • how does vim's autoread work

    - by Viktor
    Hi, i'm not sure how vim's set autoread works. The help says "When a file has been detected to have been changed outside of Vim and it has not been changed inside of Vim, automatically read it again." So after :set autoread I open a file with vim, I switch to an other editor, change the file, and wait to see the changes in vim as well, nothing happens, I have to say :e to reload the file with the new content. what did i miss? I'm on mac, osx 10.5.8, VIM - Vi IMproved 7.2 thx, best Viktor

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  • Java 64bit install throwing non compatible 64bit error in 64bit Windows 7

    - by ThunderWolf
    JRE and JDK 64bit install executable are throwing a non compatible win32 error: jre_7u1_windows-x64bit.exe is not a valid Win32 application. I thought this could be a system environment variable problem, but from what I can tell it is not, the variable PROCESSOR_ARCHITECTURE is set as: AMD64 and the variable PROCESSOR_IDENTIFIER is set as: Intel64 Family 6 Model 37 Stepping 5, GenuineIntel I am not sure what variables the installer reads from if any. I have tried java 6 installer and the same thing. I can install other programs designed for a 64bit architecture and I have looked at Control PanelSystem and SecuritySystem: which is in fact "System type: 64-bit Operating System".

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  • Displaying FontFamily in Combobox

    - by Torsten
    Hi. My goal is to manipulate the text-styles of my application via DependencyProperties. I got a diagram in which the texts are to be manipulated in size, fontfamily, color, etc. So I'd like to use an interface similar to a rich text editor like Word. I'm using this code in my TextStyleVM http://shevaspace.blogspot.com/2006/12/i-have-some-fun-with-formattedtext_14.html So I have a FontFamilyProperty and a Getter and Setter for it: public static DependencyProperty FontFamilyProperty = DependencyProperty.Register( "FontFamily", typeof(FontFamily), typeof(OutlinedText), new FrameworkPropertyMetadata( SystemFonts.MessageFontFamily, FrameworkPropertyMetadataOptions.AffectsRender | FrameworkPropertyMetadataOptions.AffectsMeasure), new ValidateValueCallback(IsValidFontFamily)); public FontFamily FontFamily { get { return (FontFamily)base.GetValue(FontFamilyProperty); } set { base.SetValue(FontFamilyProperty, value); } } Then there is a ToStyle method, which sets the style for the labels of the diagram, which are to be manipulated: Style style = new Style(); Binding fontFamilyBinding = new Binding("FontFamily"); fontFamilyBinding.Source = this; Setter fontFamilySetter = new Setter(); fontFamilySetter.Property = TextBlock.FontFamilyProperty; fontFamilySetter.Value = fontFamilyBinding; style.Setters.Add(fontFamilySetter); return style; Now this works for a TextBox. The textbox displays the current FontFamily, and if I enter a new, valid FontFamily like Arial into the textbox the FontFamily of the labels are changed. However, what I'd like to have is a combobox, which displays the SystemFonts and where I can choose one FontFamily for my labels. However, the binding doesn't seem to work. Neither the system fonts nor the current fonts of the labels are displayed. The combobox is just empty. This is my xaml: <r:RibbonLabel Content="FontFamily" /> <!--these do not work--> <r:RibbonComboBox SelectedItem="{Binding FontFamily}"/> <r:RibbonComboBox ItemsSource="{Binding FontFamily}"/> <!--this works--> <r:RibbonTextBox Text="{Binding FontFamily}"/> Now, I assume I have to set a different Setter for a ComboBox in the ToStyle Method. But I have no clue, which one. Maybe someting like this: fontFamilySetter.Property = ComboBox.ItemSource; However, if I set that Property, the TextBox still works. So is this the wrong place to start at? I'd also be grateful if someone could hint me to some documentation about using these Style-, Setter-, Binding-key-words, which are used in the ToStyle method, since this is somebody elses code I'm working with.

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  • setting picture captured by built-in camera into an ImageView

    - by MAkS
    in my app i m calling built in camera for capturing picture but i want to set that picture into an image view following is the code . so what code should i add to it to set the picture into imageview. public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); Intent intent = new Intent("android.media.action.IMAGE_CAPTURE"); startActivityForResult(intent, 0); } @Override public void onActivityResult(int requestCode, int resultCode, Intent data) { if (resultCode == Activity.RESULT_OK && requestCode == 0) { String result = data.toURI(); // ... } } Thanks in advance

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  • Validation firing in ASP.NET MVC

    - by rkrauter
    I am lost on this MVC project I am working on. I also read Brad Wilsons article. http://bradwilson.typepad.com/blog/2010/01/input-validation-vs-model-validation-in-aspnet-mvc.html I have this: public class Employee { [Required] public int ID { get; set; } [Required] public string FirstName { get; set; } [Required] public string LastName { get; set; } } and these in a controller: public ActionResult Edit(int id) { var emp = GetEmployee(); return View(emp); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(int id, Employee empBack) { var emp = GetEmployee(); if (TryUpdateModel(emp,new string[] { "LastName"})) { Response.Write("success"); } return View(emp); } public Employee GetEmployee() { return new Employee { FirstName = "Tom", LastName = "Jim", ID = 3 }; } and my view has the following: <% using (Html.BeginForm()) {%> <%= Html.ValidationSummary() %> <fieldset> <legend>Fields</legend> <div class="editor-label"> <%= Html.LabelFor(model => model.FirstName) %> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%= Html.DisplayFor(model => model.FirstName) %> </div> <div class="editor-label"> <%= Html.LabelFor(model => model.LastName) %> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%= Html.TextBoxOrLabelFor(model => model.LastName, true)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.LastName) %> </div> <p> <input type="submit" value="Save" /> </p> </fieldset> <% } %> Note that the only field editable is the LastName. When I postback, I get back the original employee and try to update it with only the LastName property. But but I see on the page is the following error: •The FirstName field is required. This from what I understand, is because the TryUpdateModel failed. But why? I told it to update only the LastName property. I am using MVC2 RTM Thanks in advance.

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  • LD_LIBRARY_PATH : how to find a shared object

    - by CuriousDawg
    I have a shared object ( libxyz.so ). Given LD_LIBRARY_PATH, how can find the exact location of this shared object? If i had a binary that depends on this lib, i would have used ldd on that. Here is the reason why i ask: I have a cgi script which works when using LD_LIBRARY_PATH set to say VALUE1. It does not work when the path is set to VALUE2. I would like to find the exact location of the library as specified by the path in VALUE1 ( Note that VALUE1 has almost 20+ different locations ) Platform: Linux

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  • How to dynamic adjust the number of columns in Table layout

    - by michael
    Hi, I create a TableLayout which has 3 equally-wide columns (I put 'stretchColumns="*" in my TableLayout which has 3 TextViews). See below: But my questions is why I set one of the TextView to 'visibility' to Gone in my java code, the TableLayout does not re-size to 2 qually-wide columns which fit the whole screen. I have even call 'tableLayout.requestLayout()' after i set the visibility to Gone.' How can I achieve what I want? Thank you. <TableLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:id="@+id/textpanel" android:stretchColumns="*"> <TableRow android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content"> <TextView android:id="@+id/text1" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content"/> <TextView android:id="@+id/text2" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content"/> <TextView android:id="@+id/text3" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content"/> </TableRow> </TableLayout>

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  • UIBarButtonItem: target-action not working?

    - by Jacob Relkin
    Hey fellas, I've got a custom view inside of a UIBarButtonItem, set by calling -initWithCustomView. OK, so the view renders fine, but when I tap it, it doesn't call the method that I set as the UIBarButtonItem's action property. Oh, and I have verified that my -deselectAll method works fine. Here's my code: UIImageView *SOCImageView = [[ UIImageView alloc ] initWithImage:[ UIImage imageNamed: @"cancel_wide.png" ] ]; SOItem.leftBarButtonItem = [[ UIBarButtonItem alloc ] initWithCustomView: SOCImageView ]; [ SOCImageView release ]; [ SOItem.leftBarButtonItem setTarget: self ]; [ SOItem.leftBarButtonItem setAction: @selector( deselectAll ) ]; Thanks a million

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  • DataAnnotations multiple property validation in MVC

    - by scottrakes
    I am struggling with DataAnnotations in MVC. I would like to validate a specific property, not the entire class but need to pass in another property value to validate against. I can't figure out how to pass the other property's value, ScheduleFlag, to the SignUpType Validation Attribute. public class Event { public bool ScheduleFlag {get;set;} [SignupType(ScheduleFlag=ScheduleFlag)] } public class SignupTypeAttribute : ValidationAttribute { public bool ScheduleFlag { get; set; } public override bool IsValid(object value) { var DonationFlag = (bool)value; if (DonationFlag == false && ScheduleFlag == false) return false; return true; } }

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  • Setting session timezone with spring jdbc oracle

    - by user337620
    Hello I have a spring/jdbc/oracle 10g application. The Oracle server database timezone is set to GMT + 2 JVM timezone is GMT + 2 (even though it doesn't matter in my case). I have a stored procedure that performs some date operations. The problem is that session timezone is different(GMT) than database timezone even though I do not set session timezone explicit in my code/configuration. As far as I know the session timezone is by default equal to database timezone. Any idea why is the session timezone different than database timezone or how can I configure it in spring configuration (org.apache.commons.dbcp.BasicDataSource) ? Thank you.

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  • Can I check the validity of a single DataMapper property?

    - by Nathan Long
    In a custom DataMapper setter, I'd like to check whether the value I'm setting is valid or not. For instance: class ToastMitten include DataMapper::Resource property :id, Serial property :wearer, Enum['Chuck Norris', 'Jon Skeet'] property :first_worn_at, DateTime def wearer=(name) super if wearer.valid? # How can I do this? first_worn_at = Time.now end end end t = ToastMitten.new t.wearer = 'Nathan Long' # invalid value; do NOT set first_worn_at t.wearer = 'Jon Skeet' # valid value; set first_worn_at Can I check the validity of a single property like this without calling valid? on the object itself and looking through all the errors?

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  • iPhone app with tab bar and navigation bar as peers

    - by Mac
    I'm trying to write an application that uses a navigation bar and tab bar in what (I'm gathering) is an unusual manner. Basically, I've got several "pages" ("home", "settings", etc) that each have their own tab. I'd also like to have it so that the "home" page is the root view of the navigation bar, and the other pages are the second-level views of the navigation bar. That is, I should be able to navigate to any page by clicking the appropriate tab bar item, and should be able to navigate to the home page from any other page by clicking the navigation bar's back button. Currently, I have a UINavigationBar (through a UINavigationController) and a UITabBar (through a UITabController) as children of a UIView. The various pages' view controllers are set as the tab controller's viewControllers property, and the home page's controller is also set as the navigation controller's root view. Each page view's tag is set to its index in the tab control. I have the following logic in the tab controller's didSelectViewController delegate method: - (void) tabBarController:(UITabBarController*) tabBarController didSelectViewController:(UIViewController*) viewController { if ([navController.viewControllers count] > 1) [navController popViewControllerAnimated:NO]; [navController pushViewController:viewController animated:YES]; } Also, in the navigation controller's didShowViewController delegate method, I have the following code: - (void) navigationController:(UINavigationController *) navigationController didShowViewController:(UIViewController *)viewController animated:(BOOL)animated { tabController.selectedIndex = viewController.view.tag; } The problem that's occurring is that when I run this, the navigation bar, tab bar and home page all display ok, but the tab bar will not respond to input - I cannot select a different tab. I gather it's more usual to have the tab bar as the child of the navigation control, or vice versa. This doesn't seem to fit my approach, because I don't want to have to individually create the subordinate control each time a change occurs in the parent control - eg: recreate tab bar each time the navigation bar changes. Does anyone have suggestions as to what's wrong and how to fix it? I'm probably missing something obvious, but whatever it is I can't seem to find it. Thanks! EDIT: I'm guessing it has something to do with both controller's trying to have ownership of the page controller, but I can't for the life of me figure out a way around it.

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