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  • static initialization confusion

    - by Happy Mittal
    I am getting very confused in some concepts in c++. For ex: I have following two files //file1.cpp class test { static int s; public: test(){s++;} }; static test t; int test::s=5; //file2.cpp #include<iostream> using namespace std; class test { static int s; public: test(){s++;} static int get() { return s; } }; static test t; int main() { cout<<test::get()<<endl; } Now My question is : 1. How two files link successfully even if they have different class definitions? 2. Are the static member s of two classes related because I get output as 7. Please explain this concept of statics.

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  • Templates, Function Pointers and C++0x

    - by user328543
    One of my personal experiments to understand some of the C++0x features: I'm trying to pass a function pointer to a template function to execute. Eventually the execution is supposed to happen in a different thread. But with all the different types of functions, I can't get the templates to work. #include `<functional`> int foo(void) {return 2;} class bar { public: int operator() (void) {return 4;}; int something(int a) {return a;}; }; template <class C> int func(C&& c) { //typedef typename std::result_of< C() >::type result_type; typedef typename std::conditional< std::is_pointer< C >::value, std::result_of< C() >::type, std::conditional< std::is_object< C >::value, std::result_of< typename C::operator() >::type, void> >::type result_type; result_type result = c(); return result; } int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { // call with a function pointer func(foo); // call with a member function bar b; func(b); // call with a bind expression func(std::bind(&bar::something, b, 42)); // call with a lambda expression func( [](void)->int {return 12;} ); return 0; } The result_of template alone doesn't seem to be able to find the operator() in class bar and the clunky conditional I created doesn't compile. Any ideas? Will I have additional problems with const functions?

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  • problem with "select new Object ... join ... where"

    - by jacob
    Hi, I'm having a problem with an HQL query Three classes ClassOne is my BusinessObject public class ClassOne { private int id; private int status; private Set<ClassTwo> classTwos; + other fields/getters/setters/constructor etc } ClassTwo is referenced in a set of ClassOne and is kind of the history of an object of ClassOne public class ClassTwo { private int id; private int oldStatus; private int newStatus; private String message; //+ getters/setters/constructor etc } ClassThree is my DTO/VO with just one classTwo (not the whole history) public class ClassThree { private int id; private int status; private ClassTwo classTwo; public ClassThree(int pId, int pStatus, ClassTwo pClassTwo) { id=pId; status=pStatus; classTwo=pClassTwo; } //+ getters/setters etc } Now I'd like to create an HQL query like this: I'd like to get all objects of ClassThree with a certain status and if it exists the newest ClassTwo with a certain newStatus. For example: I'd like to get all the DTOs (ClassThree) of ClassOne whose status is now 1, but earlier in their history it has been 2 and I'd like to have the latest ClassTwo object which has 2 as newStatus. SELECT new ClassThree(c1.id, c1.status, c2) FROM ClassOne c1 LEFT JOIN c1.classtwos c2 (...) and (...) is where I don't know what to do, I'm not even sure if it's a join / join fetch Looked around and tried quite a lot already, but no clue. Especially with the join fetch I get some Hibernate errors like org.hibernate.QueryException: query specified join fetching, but the owner of the fetched association was not present in the select list. Fetching the BusinessObject like that is no problem SELECT distinct(c1) FROM ClassOne c1 LEFT OUTER JOIN FETCH c1.classtwos c2 and I get the ClassTwos as my field. Thanks in advance, Jacob P.S.: One thing might be important, ClassTwo has no reference to ClassOne!!

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  • returning a pointed to an object within a std::vector

    - by memC
    I have a very basic question on returning a reference to an element of a vector . There is a vector vec that stores instances of class Foo. I want to access an element from this vector . ( don't want to use the vector index) . How should I code the method getFoo here? #include<vector> #include<stdio.h> #include<iostream> #include<math.h> using namespace std; class Foo { public: Foo(){}; ~Foo(){}; }; class B { public: vector<Foo> vec; Foo* getFoo(); B(){}; ~B(){}; }; Foo* B::getFoo(){ int i; vec.push_back(Foo()); i = vec.size() - 1; // how to return a pointer to vec[i] ?? return vec.at(i); }; int main(){ B b; b = B(); int i = 0; for (i = 0; i < 5; i ++){ b.getFoo(); } return 0; }

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  • PHP 5.3 and interface \ArrayAccess

    - by Jakub Lédl
    I'm now working on a project and I have one class that implements the ArrayAccess interface. Howewer, I'm getting an error that says that my implementation: must be compatible with that of ArrayAccess::offsetSet(). My implementation looks like this: public function offsetSet($offset, $value) { if (!is_string($offset)) { throw new \LogicException("..."); } $this->params[$offset] = $value; } So, to me it looks like my implementation is correct. Any idea what is wrong? Thanks very much! The class look like this: class HttpRequest implements \ArrayAccess { // tons of private variables, methods for working // with current http request etc. Really nothing that // could interfere with that interface. // ArrayAccess implementation public function offsetExists($offset) { return isset ($this->params[$offset]); } public function offsetGet($offset) { return isset ($this->params[$offset]) ? $this->params[$offset] : NULL; } public function offsetSet($offset, $value) { if (!is_string($offset)) { throw new \LogicException("You can only assing to params using specified key."); } $this->params[$offset] = $value; } public function offsetUnset($offset) { unset ($this->params[$offset]); } }

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  • Overlaying one div over another, but not knowing the size of the div

    - by andyuk
    I'm trying to lay one div over another. This is really simple if you know the dimensions of the div. Solved here: How to overlay one div over another div So, here is my HTML: <div class="container"> <div class="overlay"></div> <div class="content"></div> </div> In my case, I don't know the exact dimensions of the "content" or "container" div. This is because I don't have control over any of the content in the div (we are making our app extensible for 3rd party developers). See my example on jsFiddle The overlay should cover the content entirely. Width 100% and Height 100%. However, this does not work because in my example I positioned the overlay absolutely. One solution is to use JavaScript to get the size of the content div and then set the size of the overlay. I don't like this solution much since if image sizes are not specified, you need to wait until images are loaded and recalculate the size of the div. Is there any way of solving this problem in CSS? 

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  • JQUERY - how Two elements - IMG - DIV when hover over IMG show/hide the DIV - added with hover hide/

    - by Jan Fosgerau
    Im very new to the wonder that is jquery. and i just figure out how to make my img buttons show/hide with a opacity difference (as such) <script type="text/javascript"> <![CDATA[ $(".ExcommKnap").mouseover(function () { $(this).stop().fadeTo('fast', 0.5, function(){}) }); $(".ExcommKnap").mouseout(function () { $(this).stop().fadeTo('fast', 1.0, function(){}) }); ]]> </script> which is good and all. but i also need to make the button when hovered over show text just above it that is specific to that button. i made these here elements that are looped in a for each. <div style="top:10px; width:755px;text-align:right; position:absolute; "> <div id="Page-{@id}" class="headlinebox"> <xsl:value-of select="@nodeName"/> </div> </div> <a href="{umbraco.library:NiceUrl(@id)}"> <img class="ExcommKnap" src="{$media/data[@alias='umbracoFile']}" /> </a> i need to make the individual text appear when hovered over its button. hence i have the id="page-{@id}" looped out along and need to get this place in the jquery code i presume. so when i hover over a img class="ExcommKnap" it makes the correct text visible. But i need the div id="page-{id}" to be invisible to begin with on pageload and then visible when its button is being hovered over. can anyone help ?

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  • Forms blank when rendering a partial when using a collection of objects. Help!

    - by dustmoo
    Alright, I know my title is a little obscure but it best describes the problem I am having. Essentially, I have a list of users, and want to be able to edit their information in-line using AJAX. Since the users are showing up in rows, I am using a partial to render the data and the forms (which will be hidden initially by the ajax), however, when the rows are rendered currently only the last item has it's form's fields populated. I suspect this has something to do with the fact that all the form fields have the same id's and it is confusing the DOM. But I don't know how to make sure the id's are unique. Here is a small example: In my view: <%= render :partial => 'shared/user', :collection => @users %> My partial (broke down to just the form) note that I am using the local variable "user" <% form_for user, :html => {:multipart => true} do |f| -%> <%= f.label :name, "Name*" %> <%= f.text_field :title, :class => "input" %> <%= f.label :Address, "Address" %> <%= f.text_field :address, :class => "input" %> <%= f.label :description, "Description*" %> <%= f.text_area :description, :class => "input" %> <% end -%> When the html is rendered each form has a unique id (for the id of the user) but the elements themselves all have the same id, and only the last user form is actually getting populated with values. Does anyone have any ideas?? :) Thanks in advance!

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  • Collect all fields in form to an array

    - by Industrial
    Hi everyone, Each div with the class "row" is added upon request from the user, to be able to add multiple items at once. So now is the question how I'll collect all the forms in to an array that PHP can read (like JSON for instance). I'll guess that there's already some easy and effective way of doing this? <div class="container"> <div class="row"> <input type="text" name="value1" id="textfield" /> <input type="text" name="value2" id="textfield" /> <input type="text" name="value3" id="textfield" /> </div> </div> Here's what I would like to achieve out of the shown example: array( array ('value1' => '', 'value2' => '', 'value3' => '') ); Thanks! Update: The form will be handled with PHP and it would be super to be able to do something like a foreach loop on the specific container-div content.

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  • How to Change Style of Parent <li> on Hover

    - by Stuart Haiz
    I have a WordPress site (on my localhost) that uses a <ul> for a custom menu. How can I change the CSS of a <li> on hover only if it has a <ul> sub-menu? All the main menu items have a border-radius and I want to remove this on the current item (Services, below) for example: <div class="main-nav"> <ul class="menu" id="menu-main-nav"> <li><a href="#">Home</a></li> <li><a href="#">Services</a> <ul class="sub-menu"> <li><a href="#">Item One</a></li> <li><a href="#>Item Two</a></li> </ul> </li> <li><a href="#>Contact</a></li> </ul> </div> I can't find a CSS solution and I've tried jQuery too: $('ul.sub-menu').parent().hover(function(){ $(this).addClass('no-radius'); });

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  • HIbernate 3.5.1 - can I just drop in EHCache 2.0.1?

    - by caerphilly
    I'm using Hibernate 3.5.1, which comes with EHCache 1.5 bundled. If I want to use the latest EHCache release (2.0.1), is it just a matter of removing the ehcache-1.5.jar from my project, and replacing with ehcache-core-2.0.1.jar? Any issues to be aware of? Also - is a cache "region" in the Hibernate mapping file that same as a cache "name" in the ehcache configuration xml? What I want to do is define 2 named cache regions - one for read-only reference entities that won't change (lookup lists etc), and one for all other entities. So in ehcache I want to define two elements; <cache name="readonly"> ... </cache> <cache name="mutable"> ... </cache> And then in my Hibernate mapping files, I will specify the cache to be used for each entity: <hibernate-mapping> <class name="lookuplist"> <cache region="readonly" usage="read-only"/> <property> ... </property> </class> </hibernate-mapping> Will that work? Some of the documentation seems to imply that a separate region/cache gets created for each mapped class... Thanks.

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  • Finding patterns of failure in a Unit Test

    - by Pekka
    I'm new to Unit Testing, and I'm only getting into the routine of building test suites. I have what is going to be a rather large project that I want to build tests for from the start. I'm trying to figure out general strategies and patterns for building test suites. When you look at a class, many tests come to you obviously due to the nature of the class. Say for a "user account" class with basic CRUD operations, being related to a database table, we will want to test - well, the CRUD. creating an object and seeing whether it exists query its properties change some properties change some properties to incorrect values and delete it again. As for how to break things, there are "fail" tests common to most CRUD classes like: Invalid input data types A number as the ID key that exceeds the range of the chosen data type Input in an incorrect character encoding Input that is too long And so on and so on. For a unit test concerned with file operations, the list of "breaking things" could be Invalid characters in file name File name too long File name uses incorrect protocol or path I'm pretty sure similar patterns - applicable beyond the unit test one is currently working on - can be found for most units that are being tested. Now my question is: Am I correct in seeing such "breaking patterns"? Or am I getting something completely wrong about Unit testing, and if I did it right, this wouldn't be an issue at all? Is Unit Testing as a process of finding as many ways to break the unit as possible the right way to go? If I am correct: Are there existing definitions, lists, cheat sheets for such patterns? Are there any provisions (mainly in PHPUnit, as that's the framework I'm working in) to automate such patterns? Is there any assistance - in the form of check lists, or software - to aid in writing complete tests?

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  • Reference problem when returning an object from array in PHP

    - by avastreg
    I've a reference problem; the example should be more descriptive than me :P I have a class that has an array of objects and retrieve them through a key (string), like an associative array: class Collection { public $elements; function __construct() { $this->elements = array(); } public function get_element($key) { foreach($this->elements as $element) { if ($element->key == $key) { return $element; break; } } return null; } public function add_element ($element) { $this->elements[] = $element; } } Then i have an object (generic), with a key and some variables: class Element { public $key; public $another_var; public function __construct($key) { $this->key = $key; $this->another_var = "default"; } } Now, i create my collection: $collection = new Collection(); $collection->add_element(new Element("test1")); $collection->add_element(new Element("test2")); And then i try to change variable of an element contained in my "array": $element = $collection->get_element("test1"); $element->another_var = "random_string"; echo $collection->get_element("test1")->another_var; Ok, the output is random_string so i know that my object is passed to $element in reference mode. But if i do, instead: $element = $collection-get_element("test1"); $element = null; //or $element = new GenericObject(); $element-another_var = "bla"; echo $collection-get_element("test1")-another_var; the output is default like if it lost the reference. So, what's wrong? I have got the references to the variables of the element and not to the element itself? Any ideas?

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  • C++ template type deduction problem

    - by hamishmcn
    motivation: I would like to create a utility class so that instead of having to write: if( someVal == val1 || someVal == val2 || someVal == val3 ) I could instead write: if( is(someVal).in(val1, val2, val3) ) which is much closer to the mathematical 'a is an element of (b,c,d)' and also would save on a lot of typing when the variable name 'someVal' is long. Here is the code I have so far (for 2 and 3 values): template<class T> class is { private: T t_; public: is(T t) : t_(t) { } bool in(const T& v1, const T& v2) { return t_ == v1 || t_ == v2; } bool in(const T& v1, const T& v2, const T& v3) { return t_ == v1 || t_ == v2 || t_ == v3; } }; However it fails to compile if I write: is(1).in(3,4,5); instead I have to write is<int>(1).in(3,4,5); Which isn't too bad, but it would be better if somehow the compiler could figure out that the type is int with out me having to explicitly specify it. Is there anyway to do this or I am stuck with specifying it explicitly?

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  • operator overloading and inheritance

    - by user168715
    I was given the following code: class FibHeapNode { //... // These all have trivial implementation virtual void operator =(FibHeapNode& RHS); virtual int operator ==(FibHeapNode& RHS); virtual int operator <(FibHeapNode& RHS); }; class Event : public FibHeapNode { // These have nontrivial implementation virtual void operator=(FibHeapNode& RHS); virtual int operator==(FibHeapNode& RHS); virtual int operator<(FibHeapNode& RHS); }; class FibHeap { //... int DecreaseKey(FibHeapNode *theNode, FibHeapNode& NewKey) { FibHeapNode *theParent; // Some code if (theParent != NULL && *theNode < *theParent) { //... } //... return 1; } }; Much of FibHeap's implementation is similar: FibHeapNode pointers are dereferenced and then compared. Why does this code work? (or is it buggy?) I would think that the virtuals here would have no effect: since *theNode and *theParent aren't pointer or reference types, no dynamic dispatch occurs and FibHeapNode::operator< gets called no matter what's written in Event.

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  • Copy object using pointer (templates)

    - by Azodious
    How the push_back of stl::vector is implemented so it can make copy of any datatype .. may be pointer, double pointer and so on ... I'm implementing a template class having a function push_back almost similar to vector. Within this method a copy of argument should be inserted in internal memory allocated memory. but the argument is a pointer. (an object pointer). Can you pls tell how to create copy from pointer. so that if i delete the pointer in caller still the copy exists in my template class? Code base is as follows: template<typename T> class Vector { public: void push_back(const T& val_in) { T* a = *(new T(val_in)); m_pData[SIZE++] = a; } } Caller: Vector<MyClass*> v(3); MyClass* a = new MyClass(); a->a = 0; a->b = .5; v.push_back(a); delete a; Thanks.

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  • best PHP programming approach?

    - by Nazmin
    Hello guys, i guess that many of us has acceptable years of experience in PHP programming, me myself got 5 years programming in PHP since in University (not very solid), i just want to gather some suggestion here, what is better approach in PHP OOP? Since there is a lot of PHP framework out there as well as javascript framework, can anyone share their experience in using one of them as well as using both of the PHP and javascript framework together especially for developing enterprise system? (my company want to start using framework, ISP company) if someone has his/her own framework or class or php file so on and so forth, mind to share? now I've only database connection class. I've never use any php framework before, just jquery as javascript framework, my company has a messed up of programming approach because they did not actually a software house, so all the files are scattered across the server, I see that there are some question before about the framework but i just want to know you all approaches on OOP and in developing massive web apps using PHP, or maybe someone kind enough to share their solid written class. Also pro's and con's of all this things. Thanks in advance.

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  • How can I set/store cookie when anchor clicked

    - by Unaverage Guy
    I am trying to use Cookie so that a default style OR a specific style is applied in reference to the anchor tag clicked, even when the browser is closed/reopen. So if the user clicked the second link, close or refresh the browser and reopen, than the style should still be active, if it is their first time the default should apply. This is a little over my turf. Here is the HTML: <a id="default" href="#/">Default Style</a> <a id="style2" href="#/">Style 2</a> <a id="style3" href="#/">Style 3</a> <ol> <li><span>Hello World</span></li> </ol> JQuery: (Compliments of StackOverflow) <script type="text/javascript"> $('#default').on('click',function(){ $('ol li span').removeClass(function() { return $(this).attr('class'); }).addClass('default'); }); $('#style2').click(function(){ $('ol li span').removeClass(function() { return $(this).attr('class'); }).addClass('style2'); }); $('#style3').click(function(){ $('ol li span').removeClass(function() { return $(this).attr('class'); }).addClass('style3'); }); </script> CSS: <style type="text/css"> .default{ color: #333; } .style2{ color: #999; } .style3{ color: #800; } </style>

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  • PHP: Check if 0?

    - by tarnfeld
    Hi, I am using a class which returns me the value of a particular row and cell of an excel spreadsheet. To build up an array of one column I am counting the rows and then looping through that number with a for() loop and then using the $array[] = $value to set the incrementing array object's value. This works great if none of the values in a cell are 0. The class returns me a number 0 so it's nothing to do with the class, I think it's the way I am looping through the rows and then assigning them to the array... I want to carry through the 0 value because I am creating graphs with the data afterwards, here is the code I have. // Get Rainfall $rainfall = array(); for($i=1;$i<=$count;$i++) { if($data->val($i,2) != 'Rainfall') // Check if not the column title { $rainfall[] = $data->val($i,2); } } For your info $data is the excel spreadsheet object and the method $data->val(row,col) is what returns me the value. In this case I am getting data from column 2. Screenshot of spreadsheet http://cl.ly/1Dmy Thanks! All help is very much appreciated!

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  • How to have variables with dynamic data types in Java?

    - by Nazgulled
    Hi, I need to have a UserProfile class that it's just that, a user profile. This user profile has some vital user data of course, but it also needs to have lists of messages sent from the user friends. I need to save these messages in LinkedList, ArrayList, HashMap and TreeMap. But only one at a time and not duplicate the message for each data structure. Basically, something like a dynamic variable type where I could pick the data type for the messages. Is this, somehow, possible in Java? Or my best approach is something like this? I mean, have 2 different classes (for the user profile), one where I host the messages as Map<K,V> (and then I use HashMap and TreeMap where appropriately) and another class where I host them as List<E> (and then I use LinkedList and ArrayList where appropriately). And probably use a super class for the UserProfile so I don't have to duplicate variables and methods for fields like data, age, address, etc... Any thoughts?

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  • std::bad_cast from parent to child?

    - by polyglot
    For simplicity, class Parent {} class Child1 : Parent {} class Child2 : Parent {} Elsewhere, I created instances of Child1 and Child2 and store it in same vector under Parent: // . . . in .h file, for example vector<Parent> vector_of_parent; // . . . in one particular method Child1 c1(); Child2 c2(); vector_of_parent.push_back(c1); vector_of_parent.push_back(c2); // . . . Then in another method which has access to vector_of_parent, I tried void doSomething(Parent& some_child) { // wrapped in a try block somehow... Child1& c = dynamic_cast<Child1&> some_child; // do something if the cast is successful } void otherMethod() { doSomething(vector_of_parent.at(0)); // vector_of_parent.at(0) is a Child1 } Why is there a std:bad_cast when I call otherMethod()?

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  • Why does my plist file exist even when I've uninstalled an app and wiped the simulator?

    - by just_another_coder
    I am trying to detect the existence of a plist file on application start. When my data class (descendant of NSObject) is initialized, it loads the plist file. Before it loads, it checks to see if the file exists, and if it doesn't, it sets the data = nil instead of trying to process the array of data in the plist file. However, every time it starts it indicates the file exists. Even when I uninstall the app in the organizer and when wiping the simulator directory (iPhone Simulator/3.0/Applications). I have the following static method in a library class named FileIO: +(BOOL) fileExists:(NSString *)fileName { NSString *path = [FileIO getPath:fileName]; // gets the path to the docs directory if ([[NSFileManager defaultManager] fileExistsAtPath:path]) return YES; else return NO; } In my data class: //if( [FileIO fileExists:kFavorites_Filename] ) [FileIO deleteFile:kFavorites_Filename]; if ([FileIO fileExists:kFavorites_Filename]) {NSLog(@"exists"); The "exists" is logged every time unless I un-comment the method to delete the file. How can the file exist if I've deleted the app? I've deleted the simulator directory and uninstalled on the device but both say it still exists. What gives???

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  • Setting Cursor property has no effect (C#)

    - by Knarf Navillus
    Hello, I have a class that I've derived from System.Windows.Forms.Panel, and my application has a main form with one of these panels. On the whole, the panel works great! The only thing I'm having trouble with is setting the cursor. Whether I'm setting it to one of the static members of the Cursors class (Default, WaitCursor, etc.) or setting it to a custom cursor that I've loaded from a resource, the end result is the same: it does nothing. I still see the default mouse pointer, no matter what. This line of code is inside a method of my panel-derived class: this.Cursor = Cursors.WaitCursor; I can set a break point there, and see that this line is being hit when I expect it to. I've also created an override for the OnCursorChanged method, and set a breakpoint in there just to see if it's being triggered. I can verify that both breakpoints are being hit when I expect them to. However, the cursor just never changes. There must be something that I'm missing. Does anyone have any ideas? P.S. I also did try setting Current.Cursor as well, however that did not help.

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  • Django Admin Running Same Query Thousands of Times for Model

    - by Tom
    Running into an odd . . . loop when trying to view a model in the Django admin. I have three related models (code trimmed for brevity, hopefully I didn't trim something I shouldn't have): class Association(models.Model): somecompany_entity_id = models.CharField(max_length=10, db_index=True) name = models.CharField(max_length=200) def __unicode__(self): return self.name class ResidentialUnit(models.Model): building = models.CharField(max_length=10) app_number = models.CharField(max_length=10) unit_number = models.CharField(max_length=10) unit_description = models.CharField(max_length=100, blank=True) association = models.ForeignKey(Association) created = models.DateTimeField(auto_now_add=True) updated = models.DateTimeField(auto_now=True) def __unicode__(self): return '%s: %s, Unit %s' % (self.association, self.building, self.unit_number) class Resident(models.Model): unit = models.ForeignKey(ResidentialUnit) type = models.CharField(max_length=20, blank=True, default='') lookup_key = models.CharField(max_length=200) jenark_id = models.CharField(max_length=20, blank=True) user = models.ForeignKey(User) is_association_admin = models.BooleanField(default=False, db_index=True) show_in_contact_list = models.BooleanField(default=False, db_index=True) created = models.DateTimeField(auto_now_add=True) updated = models.DateTimeField(auto_now=True) _phones = {} home_phone = None work_phone = None cell_phone = None app_number = None account_cache_key = None def __unicode__(self): return '%s' % self.user.get_full_name() It's the last model that's causing the problem. Trying to look at a Resident in the admin takes 10-20 seconds. If I take 'self.association' out of the __unicode__ method for ResidentialUnit, a resident page renders pretty quickly. Looking at it in the debug toolbar, without the association name in ResidentialUnit (which is a foreign key on Resident), the page runs 14 queries. With the association name put back in, it runs a far more impressive 4,872 queries. The strangest part is the extra queries all seem to be looking up the association name. They all come from the same line, the __unicode__ method for ResidentialUnit. Each one is the exact same thing, e.g., SELECT `residents_association`.`id`, `residents_association`.`jenark_entity_id`, `residents_association`.`name` FROM `residents_association` WHERE `residents_association`.`id` = 1096 ORDER BY `residents_association`.`name` ASC I assume I've managed to create a circular reference, but if it were truly circular, it would just die, not run 4000x and then return. Having trouble finding a good Google or StackOverflow result for this.

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  • Common methods/implementation across multiple WCF Services

    - by Rob
    I'm looking at implementing some WCF Services as part of an API for 3rd parties to access data within a product I work on. There are currently a set of services exposed as "classic" .net Web Services and I need to emulate the behaviour of these, at least in part. The existing services all have an AcquireAuthenticationToken method that takes a set of parameters (username, password, etc) and return a session token (represented as a GUID), which is then passed in on calls to any other method (There's also a ReleaseAuthenticationToken method, no guesses needed as to what that does!). What I want to do is implement multiple WCF services, such as: ProductData UserData and have both of these services share a common implementation of Acquire/Release. From the base project that is created by VS2k8, it would appear I will start with, per service: public class ServiceName : IServiceName { } public interface IServiceName { } Therefore my questions would be: Will WCF tolerate me adding a base class to this, public class ServiceName : ServiceBase, IServiceName, or does the fact that there's an interface involved mean that won't work? If "No it won't work" to Question 1, could I change IServiceName so it extends another interface, IServiceBase, thus forcing the presence of Acquire/Release methods, but then having to supply the implementation in each service. Are 1 and 2 both really bad ideas and there's actually a much better solution that, knowing next to nothing about WCF, I just haven't thought of?

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