Search Results

Search found 49670 results on 1987 pages for 'service method'.

Page 731/1987 | < Previous Page | 727 728 729 730 731 732 733 734 735 736 737 738  | Next Page >

  • Data validation: fail fast, fail early vs. complete validation

    - by Vivin Paliath
    Regarding data validation, I've heard that the options are to "fail fast, fail early" or "complete validation". The first approach fails on the very first validation error, whereas the second one builds up a list of failures and presents it. I'm wondering about this in the context of both server-side and client-side data validation. Which method is appropriate in what context, and why? My personal preference for data-validation on the client-side is the second method which informs the user of all failing constraints. I'm not informed enough to have an opinion about the server-side, although I would imagine it depends on the business logic involved.

    Read the article

  • .NET invoking against an arbitrary control.

    - by kerkeslager
    I have a method which takes in a .NET control and calls invoke against it like so: Form.Invoke(Target); However, I've run into an issue numerous times calling this method where due to timing or whatever, the form handle on the form doesn't exist, causing a Invoke or BeginInvoke cannot be called on a control until the window handle has been created error. In frustration, I jokingly changed the code to: MainForm.Invoke(Target); where MainForm is the main window of the application (the form handle for the main form is created at startup and remains active for the entire life cycle of the application). I ran all the tests and manually tested the application and everything seems to work fine despite the fact that this is used everywhere. So my question is, what exactly is the meaning of invoking against a specific control? Is there any downside to just always invoking against a control you know will be active? If not, why does .NET have you invoke against a control in the first place (instead of just creating a static GuiThread.InvokeOnGuiThread(Blah);)?

    Read the article

  • Can't get SWT Display on Mac OS X.

    - by Mattias Holmqvist
    I'm running Mac OS X Snow Leopard and wan't to access the Display from the activator in an OSGi bundle. Below is the start method for my activator: @Override public void start(BundleContext context) throws Exception { ExecutorService service = Executors.newSingleThreadExecutor(); service.execute(new Runnable() { @Override public void run() { Display display = Display.getDefault(); Shell shell = new Shell(display); Text helloText = new Text(shell, SWT.CENTER); helloText.setText("Hello SWT!"); helloText.pack(); shell.pack(); shell.open(); while (!shell.isDisposed()) { if (!display.readAndDispatch()) display.sleep(); } display.dispose(); } }); } Calling this code in a Windows environment works fine, but deploying on Mac OS X I get the following output: 2009-10-14 17:17:54.050 java[2010:10003] *** __NSAutoreleaseNoPool(): Object 0x101620d20 of class NSCFString autoreleased with no pool in place - just leaking 2009-10-14 17:17:54.081 java[2010:10003] *** __NSAutoreleaseNoPool(): Object 0x100119240 of class NSCFNumber autoreleased with no pool in place - just leaking 2009-10-14 17:17:54.084 java[2010:10003] *** __NSAutoreleaseNoPool(): Object 0x1001024b0 of class NSCFString autoreleased with no pool in place - just leaking 2009-10-14 17:17:54.086 java[2010:10003] *** __NSAutoreleaseNoPool(): Object 0x7fff701d7f70 of class NSCFString autoreleased with no pool in place - just leaking 2009-10-14 17:17:54.087 java[2010:10003] *** __NSAutoreleaseNoPool(): Object 0x100113330 of class NSCFString autoreleased with no pool in place - just leaking 2009-10-14 17:17:54.092 java[2010:10003] *** __NSAutoreleaseNoPool(): Object 0x101624540 of class NSCFData autoreleased with no pool in place - just leaking . . . I've used the -XstartOnFirstThread VM argument without any luck. I'm on 64-bit Cocoa but I've also tried 32-bit Cocoa. When trying on Carbon I get the following error: Invalid memory access of location 00000020 eip=9012337c When debugging into the Display class I can see that the Displays[] array only contains null references.

    Read the article

  • WCF RIA Silverlight deployment issues

    - by Handleman
    It seems the world is awash with people having problems deploying RIA WCF services, and now I'm one too. I've already tried a bunch of things, but to no avail. I need WCF RIA to support a Silverlight 3 application I've built. The short story is, using the new WCF RIA services (Nov 09?) I open VS 2008, create new project (silverlight application), enabling ".NET RIA services". Add new item to web project - Linq2SQL dbml file (from SQL 2005 DB prepared earlier) and compile. I add a new item to the web project - domain service (link the tables I need) and compiled. Using the domain context I "Load" data with a standard RIA get query in the MainPage and add a TextBlock to display returned data. Build & run (cassini) - success. Using VS to publish to IIS on local PC - success. Using VS to publish to test server (IIS6) - browse to location and the Silverlight app loads but Fiddler tells me I've got a 404 on all the the WCF .svc requests. Use Fiddler to "launch IE" on the service request and it's true - 404. I have already run aspnet_regiis, ServiceModelReg and added mime types for .xap, .xaml, .xbap and .svc. I have included the System.Web.Ria and System.Web.DomainServices DLL with copy local true. I need help with either a) a solution b) an approach to find a solution

    Read the article

  • Unit Testing - Validation of ViewModel ASP.NET MVC 2

    - by dean nolan
    I am currently unit testing a service that adds users to a repository. I am using dependency injection to test using a fake repository. The repository has a method CreateUser(User user) which just adds it to the database or in this case a List of Users. The logic for the creation is in the UserServices class. The application has a form for creating a user that requires some properties such as name and address. This is an MVC 2 app and I will be using the new validation using data annotations. This makes me wonder about a few things: 1) Should I annotate a POCO object that will map to the database? Or should I create a specific View Model that has these annotations and pass this data to the UserServices class? 2)Should the UserServicesClass also check this data? Would I best be constructing a Usr out of the ViewModel and passing this into the Service as a parameter? 3) The actual unit testing would depend on 2), I either populate a User object and pass that in, or I pass a large list of strings to the method CreateUser. Writing this out I get a basic idea that I should probably annotate the view model only, pass in a user (constructed by the view model if the data is valid) and also just construct the user in the unit test also. Is this the best way to go?

    Read the article

  • How to implement didReceiveMemoryWarning ?

    - by hib
    Hello all , I have developed a simple location aware iPhone application which is functionally working very well to our expectations except in the low memory condition of the phone . In low memory condition of the phone my app just got crashes and If I increases the phone memory by freeing up some space it again start working well without any crash . when I do some googling on the problem I found that in the low memory conditions the os will send didReceiveMemoryWarning to all the controllers in the current hierarchy so that each one of them should implement didReceiveMemoryWarning method and also set nil to iboutlet for the view that is currently not visible . I have also read somewhere that if the view for that controller is not visible the method setView with nil parameter will be called and if there are some outlet variables attached to view there will be problem in removing them. So with all these fundas what is the best to handle low level memory condition raised by the Iphone by implementing the didReceiveMemoryWarning and viewDidUnload methods. Please give a proper example or link if possible for the solution of the above problem . thanks.

    Read the article

  • EJB3 Transaction Propogation

    - by Matt S.
    I have a stateless bean something like: @Stateless public class MyStatelessBean implements MyStatelessLocal, MyStatelessRemote { @PersistenceContext(unitName="myPC") private EntityManager mgr; @TransationAttribute(TransactionAttributeType.SUPPORTED) public void processObjects(List<Object> objs) { // this method just processes the data; no need for a transaction for(Object obj : objs) { this.process(obj); } } @TransationAttribute(TransactionAttributeType.REQUIRES_NEW) public void process(Object obj) { // do some work with obj that must be in the scope of a transaction this.mgr.merge(obj); // ... this.mgr.merge(obj); // ... this.mgr.flush(); } } The typically usage then is the client would call processObjects(...), which doesn't actually interact with the entity manager. It does what it needs to do and calls process(...) individually for each object to process. The duration of process(...) is relatively short, but processObjects(...) could take a very long time to run through everything. Therefore I don't want it to maintain an open transaction. I do need the individual process(...) operations to operate within their own transaction. This should be a new transaction for every call. Lastly I'd like to keep the option open for the client to call process(...) directly. I've tried a number of different transaction types: never, not supported, supported (on processObjects) and required, requires new (on process) but I get TransactionRequiredException every time merge() is called. I've been able to make it work by splitting up the methods into two different beans: @Stateless @TransationAttribute(TransactionAttributeType.NOT_SUPPORTED) public class MyStatelessBean1 implements MyStatelessLocal1, MyStatelessRemote1 { @EJB private MyStatelessBean2 myBean2; public void processObjects(List<Object> objs) { // this method just processes the data; no need for a transaction for(Object obj : objs) { this.myBean2.process(obj); } } } @Stateless public class MyStatelessBean2 implements MyStatelessLocal2, MyStatelessRemote2 { @PersistenceContext(unitName="myPC") private EntityManager mgr; @TransationAttribute(TransactionAttributeType.REQUIRES_NEW) public void process(Object obj) { // do some work with obj that must be in the scope of a transaction this.mgr.merge(obj); // ... this.mgr.merge(obj); // ... this.mgr.flush(); } } but I'm still curious if it's possible to accomplish this in one class. It looks to me like the transaction manager only operates at the bean level, even when individual methods are given more specific annotations. So if I mark one method in a way to prevent the transaction from starting calling other methods within that same instance will also not create a transaction, no matter how they're marked? I'm using JBoss Application Server 4.2.1.GA, but non-specific answers are welcome / preferred.

    Read the article

  • Identify which AlertDialog triggered onClick(DialogInterface dialog, int which)

    - by Kurian
    I'm creating a dialog as follows: @Override protected Dialog onCreateDialog(int id) { switch (id) { case DIALOG_1: return new AlertDialog.Builder(this) .setTitle(R.string.s_dlg1) .setPositiveButton(android.R.string.ok, this) .create(); case DIALOG_2: ... ... } return null; } @Override public void onClick(DialogInterface dialog, int whichButton) { if (dialog == ???) { ... } else if (dialog == ???){ ... } } How do I identify which dialog triggered the onClick method? I can't declare the interface methods as in-line when creating the dialog because I want to access variables in my class. Every other interface passes some sort of id to its methods to identify which object called the method, but I can't seem to do anything with 'DialogInterface dialog'.

    Read the article

  • Could not load file or assembly 'GMap.NET.Core' or one of its dependencies. An attempt was made to load a program with an incorrect format.

    - by Sam M
    I have a wcf Service application in VS2010.My local machine is a 32 bit OS where as the server is a 64 bit. There are around 6 services in my solution. Im successfully able to host the application on IIS on my local machine.And it works fine. But when i try host that service application on Server i gets the below error Could not load file or assembly 'GMap.NET.Core' or one of its dependencies. An attempt was made to load a program with an incorrect format. I do have reference added in my solution for GMap.NET.Core . I have tried to set the properties in my solution to Any CPU . Also in the application pool i have set the Enable 32-Bit Application to True. i have also set the Copy Local to TRUE in my solution before publishing. When i run the source on through my solution i dont get any error and the solution is built successfully. What else can i try to get my services successfully hosted on the Server and should be accessed through my application.

    Read the article

  • How can I overwrite a System.Drawing.Bitmap onto an existing GDI bitmap?

    - by MusiGenesis
    If I have a .Net Bitmap, I can create from it a GDI bitmap by calling the Bitmap's GetHbitmap() method. Bitmap bmp = new Bitmap(100, 100); IntPtr gdiBmp = bmp.GetHbitmap(); This works fine, but every time you call GetHbitmap, Windows has to allocate new memory for the object that gdiBmp references. What I'd like to do - if possible - is write a function (I know PInvoke will be necessary here) that also generates a GDI bitmap copy of a Bitmap, but that uses an existing object instead of allocating a new one. So it would look something like this (if it were an extension method of Bitmap): //void OverwriteHbitmap(IntPtr gdi) Bitmap bmp1 = new Bitmap(100, 100); IntPtr gdi1 = bmp1.GetHbitmap(); Bitmap bmp2 = new Bitmap(100, 100); bmp2.OverwriteHbitmap(gdi1); How can I do this? I assume I'll need to know the structure of a GDI bitmap, and probably I can use LockBits and BitmapData for this, but I'm not sure exactly how.

    Read the article

  • Guice, JDBC and managing database connections

    - by pledge
    I'm looking to create a sample project while learning Guice which uses JDBC to read/write to a SQL database. However, after years of using Spring and letting it abstract away connection handling and transactions I'm struggling to work it our conceptually. I'd like to have a service which starts and stops a transaction and calls numerous repositories which reuse the same connection and participate in the same transaction. My questions are: Where do I create my Datasource? How do I give the repositories access to the connection? (ThreadLocal?) Best way to manage the transaction (Creating an Interceptor for an annotation?) The code below shows how I would do this in Spring. The JdbcOperations injected into each repository would have access to the connection associated with the active transaction. I haven't been able to find many tutorials which cover this, beyond ones which show creating interceptors for transactions. I am happy with continuing to use Spring as it is working very well in my projects, but I'd like to know how to do this in pure Guice and JBBC (No JPA/Hibernate/Warp/Reusing Spring) @Service public class MyService implements MyInterface { @Autowired private RepositoryA repositoryA; @Autowired private RepositoryB repositoryB; @Autowired private RepositoryC repositoryC; @Override @Transactional public void doSomeWork() { this.repositoryA.someInsert(); this.repositoryB.someUpdate(); this.repositoryC.someSelect(); } } @Repository public class MyRepositoryA implements RepositoryA { @Autowired private JdbcOperations jdbcOperations; @Override public void someInsert() { //use jdbcOperations to perform an insert } } @Repository public class MyRepositoryB implements RepositoryB { @Autowired private JdbcOperations jdbcOperations; @Override public void someUpdate() { //use jdbcOperations to perform an update } } @Repository public class MyRepositoryC implements RepositoryC { @Autowired private JdbcOperations jdbcOperations; @Override public String someSelect() { //use jdbcOperations to perform a select and use a RowMapper to produce results return "select result"; } }

    Read the article

  • Use Maven to trigger a wsgen & wsimport in a row, using wsdlLocation

    - by ben
    I have hard times using maven to generate my client. So Please refer to http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2131001/creating-a-web-service-client-directly-from-the-source for the first part of my question. To keep it simple and short, I want to go from here (a file in src/main/java) : package com.example.maven.jaxws.helloservice; import javax.jws.WebService; @WebService public class Hello { public String sayHello(String param) { ; return "Hello " + param; } } to there : /** * This class was generated by the JAX-WS RI. * JAX-WS RI 2.1.7-b01- * Generated source version: 2.1 * */ @WebServiceClient(name = "HelloService", targetNamespace = "http://helloservice.jaxws.maven.example.com/", wsdlLocation = "http://localhost:8080/test/") public class HelloService extends Service { private final static URL HELLOSERVICE_WSDL_LOCATION; private final static Logger logger = Logger.getLogger(com.example.wsimport.HelloService.class.getName()); ...etc using only 1 pom.xml file. Please note the wsdlLocation set on the end. The pom.xml file will probably use both maven-jaxws-plugin wsgen AND wsimport with some tricky configuration to achieve this.

    Read the article

  • Can you clear jquery ajax cache?

    - by chobo2
    Hi I am wondering is it possible to clear the cache from a particular ajax method? Say if I have this $.ajax({ url: "test.html", cache: true, success: function(html){ $("#results").append(html); } }); Now 99% of the time a cached result can be used since it should always be same content. However if a user updates this content it of course changes. If it is cached and it would still show the old content. So it would be cool if I could pick out this cache for this method and clear it and all other cached stuff would stay. Can this be done?

    Read the article

  • Can an interface be implemented across an aggregate/composite class in vb.net?

    - by Casey
    VB.NET .NET 3.5 I have an aggregate class called Package as part of a shipping system. Package contains another class, BoxType . BoxType contains information about the box used to ship the package, such as length, width, etc. of the Box. Package has a method called GetShippingRates. This method calls a separate helper class, ShipRater, and passes the Package itself as an argument. ShipRater examines the Package as well as the BoxType, and returns a list of possible shipping rates/methods. What I would like to do is construct an Interface, IRateable, that would be supplied to the helper class ShipRater. So instead of: Class ShipRater Sub New(SomePackage as Package) End Sub End Class we would do: Class ShipRater Sub New(SomePackage as IRateable) End Sub End Class However, ShipRater requires information from both the Package and its aggregate, BoxType. If I write an interface IRateable, then how can I use the BoxType properties to implement part of the Interface? Is this possible?

    Read the article

  • Intellisense in header files

    - by David
    I just right now "migrated" from C# to C++/CLR. First I was annoyed, that I had to write all class' declarations twice (into .h and .cpp). Then I figured out, that I could place the code also into the h-files - it compiles at least. Well, I deleted all cpp's of my classes and now I realized, VS won't give me any Intellisense when I work on my h-files. I guess I should not place my code in the hfiles (the code won't be reused in other projects for sure), but I find it terrible to adjust all method declarations at two places... Plus I have to switch back and forth to see what modifier my method etc. and it is not nicely all in one place like in C# (with it's pros and cons). I'm sorry this is a newbie question, but I just wanted to make sure that there isn't any possibility to enable intellisense for hfiles. Or at least to learn, that I am completely on the wrong path... Thanks, David

    Read the article

  • Converting to async,await using async targeting package

    - by e4rthdog
    I have this: private void BtnCheckClick(object sender, EventArgs e) { var a = txtLot.Text; var b = cmbMcu.SelectedItem.ToString(); var c = cmbLocn.SelectedItem.ToString(); btnCheck.BackColor = Color.Red; var task = Task.Factory.StartNew(() => Dal.GetLotAvailabilityF41021(a, b, c)); task.ContinueWith(t => { btnCheck.BackColor = Color.Transparent; lblDescriptionValue.Text = t.Result.Description; lblItemCodeValue.Text = t.Result.Code; lblQuantityValue.Text = t.Result.AvailableQuantity.ToString(); },TaskScheduler .FromCurrentSynchronizationContext() ); LotFocus(true); } and i followed J. Skeet's advice to move into async,await in my .NET 4.0 app. I converted into this: private async void BtnCheckClick(object sender, EventArgs e) { var a = txtLot.Text; var b = cmbMcu.SelectedItem.ToString(); var c = cmbLocn.SelectedItem.ToString(); btnCheck.BackColor = Color.Red; JDEItemLotAvailability itm = await Task.Factory.StartNew(() => Dal.GetLotAvailabilityF41021(a, b, c)); btnCheck.BackColor = Color.Transparent; lblDescriptionValue.Text = itm.Description; lblItemCodeValue.Text = itm.Code; lblQuantityValue.Text = itm.AvailableQuantity.ToString(); LotFocus(true); } It works fine. What confuses me is that i could do it without using Task but just the method of my Dal. But that means that i must have modified my Dal method, which is something i dont want? I would appreciate if someone would explain to me in "plain" words if what i did is optimal or not and why. Thanks P.s. My dal method public bool CheckLotExistF41021(string _lot, string _mcu, string _locn) { using (OleDbConnection con = new OleDbConnection(this.conString)) { OleDbCommand cmd = new OleDbCommand(); cmd.CommandText = "select lilotn from proddta.f41021 " + "where lilotn = ? and trim(limcu) = ? and lilocn= ?"; cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@lotn", _lot); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@mcu", _mcu); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@locn", _locn); cmd.Connection = con; con.Open(); OleDbDataReader rdr = cmd.ExecuteReader(); bool _retval = rdr.HasRows; rdr.Close(); con.Close(); return _retval; } }

    Read the article

  • How to avoid avoid linebreaks and spaces for XmlWellFormedWriter

    - by user302670
    Hi, i am getting an XmlWriter of the AppendChild() method of a xPathNavigator. using (XmlWriter writer = xPathNavigator.AppendChild()) { writer.WriteStartAttribute("name"); writer.WriteEndElement(); } The AppendChild() method returns a instance of XmlWellFormedWriter. I want to avoid linebreaks and spaces in my output xml. But the XmlWriterSettings are readonly and using an wrapper does not help anything. I tried this, but the setting of nether the wrapper nor the writer changes: XmlWriterSettings settings = new XmlWriterSettings(); settings.IndentChars = ""; settings.NewLineChars = ""; using (XmlWriter wrapper = xPathNavigator.AppendChild()) { XmlWriter writer = XmlWriter.Create(writer, settings); writer.WriteStartAttribute("name"); writer.WriteEndElement(); } Does anybody has an idea what todo? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Exchange Web Services and Property Sets

    - by Sam
    I need to retrieve calendar information by invoking the Exchange Web Service in BPOS. I'm using a CalendarView with a PropertySet to retrieve as little data as possible. However, property sets seems to be limited. I need the EmailAddress of the one who made the calendar appointment so I thought I could use the AppointmentSchema.Organizer in the PropertySet. When fetching a whole Appointment I can get the e-mail through appt.Organizer.EmailAddress. But with the code below the Organizer.EmailAddress is always null. I've enabled the trace and checked it and only the Organizer.Name property is sent, nothing else. Does anyone have a solution on how to get the EmailAddress when using a PropertySet? CalendarView view = new CalendarView(dtFrom, dtTo); view.PropertySet = new PropertySet(ItemSchema.Subject); view.PropertySet.Add(ItemSchema.Id); view.PropertySet.Add(AppointmentSchema.Start); view.PropertySet.Add(AppointmentSchema.End); view.PropertySet.Add(AppointmentSchema.Organizer); // This should contain EmailAddress but it doesn't Mailbox mailbox = new Mailbox("[email protected]"); FolderId id = new FolderId(WellKnownFolderName.Calendar, mailbox); CalendarFolder folder = CalendarFolder.Bind(service, id); FindItemsResults findResults = folder.FindAppointments(view);

    Read the article

  • java json/object to array

    - by heldopslippers
    Hi people. I have a question about type casting. I have the following json String: {"server":"clients","method":"whoIs","arguments":["hello"]} I am parsing it to the following Map< String, Object {arguments=[hello], method=whoIs, server=clients} It is now possible to do the following: request.get("arguments"); This works fine. But i need to get the array the is stored in the arguments. How can i accomplish this? I tried (for example) the following: System.out.println(request.get("arguments")[0]); But of course this doesn't work.. Does anybody know how this would be possible?

    Read the article

  • Rails 3, changing a specific value in a row

    - by Elliot
    Hey Guys, This question seems ridiculously easy, but I seem to be stuck. Lets say we have a table "Books" Each Book, has a name, description, and a status. Lets say I want to create link in the show view, that when clicked, solely changes the status (to "read") for example. So far, I've tried adding a block in the controller, that says: def read @book = Book.find(params[:id]) @book.status = "Read" @book.update_attributes(params[:book]) respond_to do |format| format.html { redirect_to :back} format.xml { render :xml => @book } end end Then I've added a link to the view that is like: <%= link_to "Read", read_book_path(@book), :method = :put % This isn't working at all. I have added it to my routes, but it doesn't seem to matter. Any help would be great! Thanks! -Elliot EDIT: Forgot to add I'm getting a NoMethodError: undefined method `read_book_path'

    Read the article

  • How do you set a variable value from another form?

    - by flavour404
    Hi, c# .Net 3.5 visual studio 2008, windows xp I have a main form in a project, given a specific set of circumstances another form is instantiated and displayed to the user: Form frmT = new frmTargetFolder(expName, this); frmT.Show(); As you can see, I am passing a reference to the new form from the current one. My question is, what do I have to do to a method so that it is exposed to the new form, the same for a variable? I have tried defining the functions as public, but I can't seem to access them, also I have written a Get and Set method for a variable, again how do I expose these functions and methods to other forms? public void hit() { MessageBox.Show("hit it"); } bool setOverRide { get { return OverRide; } set { OverRide = value; } } The main form is called frmDataXfer and the form, form which I am trying to call the functions and methods of frmDataXfer is called frmTargetFolder, an instance of which is created in the frmDataXfer and referenced as frmT. Thanks, R.

    Read the article

  • Optimizing multiple dispatch notification algorithm in C#?

    - by Robert Fraser
    Sorry about the title, I couldn't think of a better way to describe the problem. Basically, I'm trying to implement a collision system in a game. I want to be able to register a "collision handler" that handles any collision of two objects (given in either order) that can be cast to particular types. So if Player : Ship : Entity and Laser : Particle : Entity, and handlers for (Ship, Particle) and (Laser, Entity) are registered than for a collision of (Laser, Player), both handlers should be notified, with the arguments in the correct order, and a collision of (Laser, Laser) should notify only the second handler. A code snippet says a thousand words, so here's what I'm doing right now (naieve method): public IObservable<Collision<T1, T2>> onCollisionsOf<T1, T2>() where T1 : Entity where T2 : Entity { Type t1 = typeof(T1); Type t2 = typeof(T2); Subject<Collision<T1, T2>> obs = new Subject<Collision<T1, T2>>(); _onCollisionInternal += delegate(Entity obj1, Entity obj2) { if (t1.IsAssignableFrom(obj1.GetType()) && t2.IsAssignableFrom(obj2.GetType())) obs.OnNext(new Collision<T1, T2>((T1) obj1, (T2) obj2)); else if (t1.IsAssignableFrom(obj2.GetType()) && t2.IsAssignableFrom(obj1.GetType())) obs.OnNext(new Collision<T1, T2>((T1) obj2, (T2) obj1)); }; return obs; } However, this method is quite slow (measurable; I lost ~2 FPS after implementing this), so I'm looking for a way to shave a couple cycles/allocation off this. I thought about (as in, spent an hour implementing then slammed my head against a wall for being such an idiot) a method that put the types in an order based on their hash code, then put them into a dictionary, with each entry being a linked list of handlers for pairs of that type with a boolean indication whether the handler wanted the order of arguments reversed. Unfortunately, this doesn't work for derived types, since if a derived type is passed in, it won't notify a subscriber for the base type. Can anyone think of a way better than checking every type pair (twice) to see if it matches? Thanks, Robert

    Read the article

  • How to consume webservices over https

    - by Kumar
    I am trying to consume a webservices which are located at https://TestServices/ServiceList.asmx. When I try to add a service reference to my C# library class project my app.config file looks like below: <system.serviceModel> <bindings> <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="TestServicesSoap" closeTimeout="00:01:00" openTimeout="00:01:00" receiveTimeout="00:10:00" sendTimeout="00:01:00" allowCookies="false" bypassProxyOnLocal="false" hostNameComparisonMode="StrongWildcard" maxBufferSize="50000000" maxBufferPoolSize="524288" maxReceivedMessageSize="50000000" messageEncoding="Text" textEncoding="utf-8" transferMode="Buffered" useDefaultWebProxy="true"> <readerQuotas maxDepth="32" maxStringContentLength="8192" maxArrayLength="16384" maxBytesPerRead="4096" maxNameTableCharCount="16384" /> <security mode="None"> <transport clientCredentialType="None" proxyCredentialType="None" realm=""> </transport> <message clientCredentialType="UserName" algorithmSuite="Default" /> </security> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> </bindings> <client> <endpoint address="http://TestServices/ServiceList.asmx" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="TestServicesSoap" contract="TestServices.TestServicesSoap" name="TestServicesSoap" /> </client> </system.serviceModel> Even when I tried to add a service reference to the https://TestServices/ServiceList.asmx for some reason end point address is still pointing to http://TestServices/ServiceList.asmx. I tried changing the http to https but I am getting the below error: The provided URI scheme 'https' is invalid; expected 'http'. Parameter name: via What is the right way of consuming the webservices on https?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 727 728 729 730 731 732 733 734 735 736 737 738  | Next Page >