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• How to eliminate tearing from animation?

  - by MusiGenesis

  I'm running an animation in a WinForms app at 18.66666... frames per second (it's synced with music at 140 BPM, which is why the frame rate is weird). Each cel of the animation is pre-calculated, and the animation is driven by a high-resolution multimedia timer. The animation itself is smooth, but I am seeing a significant amount of "tearing", or artifacts that result from cels being caught partway through a screen refresh. When I take the set of cels rendered by my program and write them out to an AVI file, and then play the AVI file in Windows Media Player, I do not see any tearing at all. I assume that WMP plays the file smoothly because it uses DirectX (or something else) and is able to synchronize the rendering with the screen's refresh activity. It's not changing the frame rate, as the animation stays in sync with the audio. Is this why WMP is able to render the animation without tearing, or am I missing something? Is there any way I can use DirectX (or something else) in order to enable my program to be aware of where the current scan line is, and if so, is there any way I can use that information to eliminate tearing without actually using DirectX for displaying the cels? Or do I have to fully use DirectX for rendering in order to deal with this problem? Update: forgot a detail. My app renders each cell onto a PictureBox using Graphics.DrawImage. Is this significantly slower than using BitBlt, such that I might eliminate at least some of the tearing by using BitBlt?

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• Counting string length in javascript and Ruby on Rails

  - by williamjones

  I've got a text area on a web site that should be limited in length. I'm allowing users to enter 255 characters, and am enforcing that limit with a Rails validation: validates_length_of :body, :maximum => 255 At the same time, I added a javascript char counter like you see on Twitter, to give feedback to the user on how many characters he has already used, and to disable the submit button when over length, and am getting that length in Javascript with a call like this: element.length Lastly, to enforce data integrity, in my Postgres database, I have created this field as a varchar(255) as a last line of defense. Unfortunately, these methods of counting characters do not appear to be directly compatible. Javascript counts the best, in that it counts what users consider as number of characters where everything is a single character. Once the submission hits Rails, however, all of the carriage returns have been converted to \r\n, now taking up 2 characters worth of space, which makes a close call fail Rails validations. Even if I were to handcode a different length validation in Rails, it would still fail when it hits the database I think, though I haven't confirmed this yet. What's the best way for me to make all this work the way the user would want? Best Solution: an approach that would enable me to meet user expectations, where each character of any type is only one character. If this means increasing the length of the varchar database field, a user should not be able to sneakily send a hand-crafted post that creates a row with more than 255 letters. Somewhat Acceptable Solution: a javascript change that enables the user to see the real character count, such that hitting return increments the counter 2 characters at a time, while properly handling all symbols that might have these strange behaviors.

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• .Net 2.0 ServiceController.GetServices()

  - by Miles

  I've got a website that has windows authentication enable on it. From a page in the website, the users have the ability to start a service that does some stuff with the database. It works fine for me to start the service because I'm a local admin on the server. But I just had a user test it and they can't get the service started. My question is: Does anyone know of a way to get a list of services on a specified computer by name using a different windows account than the one they are currently logged in with? I really don't want to add all the users that need to start the service into a windows group and set them all to a local admin on my IIS server..... Here's some of the code I've got: public static ServiceControllerStatus FindService() { ServiceControllerStatus status = ServiceControllerStatus.Stopped; try { string machineName = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["ServiceMachineName"]; ServiceController[] services = ServiceController.GetServices(machineName); string serviceName = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["ServiceName"].ToLower(); foreach (ServiceController service in services) { if (service.ServiceName.ToLower() == serviceName) { status = service.Status; break; } } } catch(Exception ex) { status = ServiceControllerStatus.Stopped; SaveError(ex, "Utilities - FindService()"); } return status; } My exception comes from the second line in the try block. Here's the error: System.InvalidOperationException: Cannot open Service Control Manager on computer 'server.domain.com'. This operation might require other privileges. --- System.ComponentModel.Win32Exception: Access is denied --- End of inner exception stack trace --- at System.ServiceProcess.ServiceController.GetDataBaseHandleWithAccess(String machineName, Int32 serviceControlManaqerAccess) at System.ServiceProcess.ServiceController.GetServicesOfType(String machineName, Int32 serviceType) at TelemarketingWebSite.Utilities.StartService() Thanks for the help/info

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• SQL - Updating records based on most recent date

  - by Remnant

  I am having difficulty updating records within a database based on the most recent date and am looking for some guidance. By the way, I am new to SQL. As background, I have a windows forms application with SQL Express and am using ADO.NET to interact with the database. The application is designed to enable the user to track employee attendance on various courses that must be attended on a periodic basis (e.g. every 6 months, every year etc.). For example, they can pull back data to see the last time employees attended a given course and also update attendance dates if an employee has recently completed a course. I have three data tables: EmployeeDetailsTable - simple list of employees names, email address etc., each with unique ID CourseDetailsTable - simple list of courses, each with unique ID (e.g. 1, 2, 3 etc.) AttendanceRecordsTable - has 3 columns { EmployeeID, CourseID, AttendanceDate, Comments } For any given course, an employee will have an attendance history i.e. if the course needs to be attended each year then they will have one record for as many years as they have been at the company. What I want to be able to do is to update the 'Comments' field for a given employee and given course based on the most recent attendance date. What is the 'correct' SQL syntax for this? I have tried many things (like below) but cannot get it to work: UPDATE AttendanceRecordsTable SET Comments = @Comments WHERE AttendanceRecordsTable.EmployeeID = (SELECT EmployeeDetailsTable.EmployeeID FROM EmployeeDetailsTable WHERE (EmployeeDetailsTable.LastName =@ParameterLastName AND EmployeeDetailsTable.FirstName =@ParameterFirstName) AND AttendanceRecordsTable.CourseID = (SELECT CourseDetailsTable.CourseID FROM CourseDetailsTable WHERE CourseDetailsTable.CourseName =@CourseName)) GROUP BY MAX(AttendanceRecordsTable.LastDate) After much googling, I discovered that MAX is an aggregate function and so I need to use GROUP BY. I have also tried using the HAVING keyword but without success. Can anybody point me in the right direction? What is the 'conventional' syntax to update a database record based on the most recent date?

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• How to tell what account my webservice is running under in Visual Studio 2005

  - by John Galt

  I'm going a little nuts trying to understand the doc on impersonation and delegation and the question has come up what account my webservice is running under. I am logged as myDomainName\johna on my development workstation called JOHNXP. From Vstudio2005 I start my webservice via Debug and the wsdl page comes up in my browser. From Task Manager, I see the following while sitting at a breakpoint in my .asmx code: aspnet_wp.exe pid=1316 UserName=ASPNET devenv.exe pid=3304 UserName=johna The IIS Directory Security tab for the Virtual Directory that hosts my ws.asmx code has "Enable Anonymous access" UNCHECKED and has "Integrated Windows Authentication" CHECKED. So when the MSDN people state "you must configure the user account under which the server process runs", what would they be refering to in the case of my little webservice described above? I am quoting from: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa302400.aspx Ultimately, I want this webservice of mine to impersonate whatever authenticated domain user browses through to an invoke of my webservice. My webservice in turn consumes another ASMX webservice on a different server (but same domain). I need this remote webservice to use the impersonated domain user credentials (not those of my webservice on JOHNXP). So its getting a little snarly for me to understand this and I see I am unclear about the account my web service uses. I think it is ASPNET in IIS 5.1 on WinXP but not sure.

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• Pattern for UI configuration

  - by TERACytE

  I have a Win32 C++ program that validates user input and updates the UI with status information and options. Currently it is written like this: void ShowError() { SetIcon(kError); SetMessageString("There was an error"); HideButton(kButton1); HideButton(kButton2); ShowButton(kButton3); } void ShowSuccess() { SetIcon(kError); std::String statusText (GetStatusText()); SetMessageString(statusText); HideButton(kButton1); HideButton(kButton2); ShowButton(kButton3); } // plus several more methods to update the UI using similar mechanisms I do not likes this because it duplicates code and causes me to update several methods if something changes in the UI. I am wondering if there is a design pattern or best practice to remove the duplication and make the functionality easier to understand and update. I could consolidate the code inside a config function and pass in flags to enable/disable UI items, but I am not convinced this is the best approach. Any suggestions and ideas?

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• Automatically hyper-link URL's and Email's using C#, whilst leaving bespoke tags in place

  - by marcusstarnes

  I have a site that enables users to post messages to a forum. At present, if a user types a web address or email address and posts it, it's treated the same as any other piece of text. There are tools that enable the user to supply hyper-linked web and email addresses (via some bespoke tags/markup) - these are sometimes used, but not always. In addition, a bespoke 'Image' tag can also be used to reference images that are hosted on the web. My objective is to both cater for those that use these existing tools to generate hyper-linked addresses, but to also cater for those that simply type a web or email address in, and to then automatically convert this to a hyper-linked address for them (as soon as they submit their post). I've found one or two regular expressions that convert a plain string web or email address, however, I obviously don't want to perform any manipulation on addresses that are already being handled via the sites bespoke tagging, and that's where I'm stuck - how to EXCLUDE any web or email addresses that are already catered for via the bespoke tagging - I wan't to leave them as is. Here are some examples of bespoke tagging for the variations that I need to be left alone: [URL=www.msn.com]www.msn.com[/URL] [URL=http://www.msn.com]http://www.msn.com[/URL] [[email protected]][email protected][/EMAIL] [IMG]www.msn.com/images/test.jpg[/IMG] [IMG]http://www.msn.com/images/test.jpg[/IMG] The following examples would however ideally need to be automatically converted into web & email links respectively: www.msn.com http://www.msn.com [email protected] Ideally, the 'converted' links would just have the appropriate bespoke tags applied to them as per the initial examples earlier in this post, so rather than: <a href="..." etc. they'd become: [URL=http://www.. etc.) Unfortunately, we have a LOT of historic data stored with this bespoke tagging throughout, so for now, we'd like to retain that rather than implementing an entirely new way of storing our users posts. Any help would be much appreciated. Thanks.

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• XML-RPC over SSL with Ruby: end of file reached (EOFError)

  - by Michael Conigliaro

  Hello, I have some very simple Ruby code that is attempting to do XML-RPC over SSL: require 'xmlrpc/client' require 'pp' server = XMLRPC::Client.new2("https://%s:%d/" % [ 'api.ultradns.net', 8755 ]) pp server.call2('UDNS_OpenConnection', 'sponsor', 'username', 'password') The problem is that it always results in the following EOFError exception: /System/Library/Frameworks/Ruby.framework/Versions/1.8/usr/lib/ruby/1.8/net/protocol.rb:135:in `sysread': end of file reached (EOFError) So it appears that after doing the POST, I don't get anything back. Interestingly, this is the behavior I would expect if I tried to make an HTTP connection on the HTTPS port (or visa versa), and I actually do get the same exact exception if I change the protocol. Everything I've looked at indicates that using "https://" in the URL is enough to enable SSL, but I'm starting wonder if I've missed something. Note that Even though the credentials I'm using in the RPC are made up, I'm expecting to at least get back an XML error page (similar to if you access https://api.ultradns.net:8755/ with a web browser). I've tried running this code on OSX and Linux with the exact same result, so I have to conclude that I'm just doing something wrong here. Does anyone have any examples of doing XML-RPC over SSL with Ruby?

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• NUnit integration programmatically with spring

  - by harkon

  Hi! I have a component based architecture framework designed and I use NUnit for isolated testing - okay so far. Now I want to enable integration tests. Therefore the tests use real implementations of the existing components. Each element of the component has a life cycle (init, start and stop) and I created a NUnit component. In the start section the Console runner of the NUnit will be executed. Okay - now if I have a test fixture class in my dlls in the execution path the runner exectues them - fine! But: And this is crucial! Each to be tested implementation exists so far in the process and I want to use this instances for testing. If I use NUnit runner in the current way each instance will be created twice - and above all: I have a spring container and a implementation registry. Via this registry I can get access to all instances in the processes. But how do I give the test fixture access to the existing registry? Good: I can start the component architecture framework in the startup of the nunit runner - but this is not what I want. My guide is the apache Cactus framework (with JUnit and tomcat, JBoss etc.) Can someone help? Thanks a lot! Check: http://cone.codeplex.com

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• Excel 2010 64 bit can't create .net object

  - by aboes81

  I have a simple class library that I use in Excel. Here is a simplification of my class... using System; using System.Runtime.InteropServices; namespace SimpleLibrary { [ComVisible(true)] public interface ISixGenerator { int Six(); } public class SixGenerator : ISixGenerator { public int Six() { return 6; } } } In Excel 2007 I would create a macro enabled workbook and add a module with the following code: Public Function GetSix() Dim lib As SimpleLibrary.SixGenerator lib = New SimpleLibrary.SixGenerator Six = lib.Six End Function Then in Excel I could call the function GetSix() and it would return six. This no longer works in Excel 2010 64bit. I get a Run-time error '429': ActiveX component can't create object. I tried changing the platform target to x64 instead of Any CPU but then my code wouldn't compile unless I unchecked the Register for COM interop option, doing so makes it so my macro enable workbook cannot see SimpleLibrary.dll as it is no longer regsitered. Any ideas how I can use my library with Excel 2010 64 bit?

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• Make JFace Window blink in taskbar or get users attention?

  - by Sophomore

  Hi folks I wonder someone has any idea how to solve this: In my Java Eclipse plugin there are some processes which take some time. Therefore the user might minimize the window and let the process run in the background. Now, when the process is finished, I can force the window to come to the top again, but that is a no-no in usability. I'd rather want the process to blink in the taskbar instead. Is there any way to achieve this? I had a look at the org.eclipse.jface.window but could'nt find anything like that, same goes for the SWT documentation... Another thing which came to my mind - as people are using this app on mac os x and linux as well, is there a platform independant solution, which will inform the user that the process has finished but without bringing the window to the top? Any ideas are highly welcome! Edit: I found out that on windows the user can adjust whether he would like to enable a force to foreground or not. If that option is disabled, the task will just blink in the taskbar... Here's a good read on that... If anyone maybe knows about some platform independant way of achieving this kind of behaviour, please share your knowledge with me!

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• Client-Side Dynamic Removal of <script> Tags in <head>

  - by merv

  Is it possible to remove script tags in the <head> of an HTML document client-side and prior to execution of those tags? On the server-side I am able to insert a <script> above all other <script> tags in the <head>, except one, and I would like to be able to remove all subsequent scripts. I do not have the ability to remove <script> tags from the server side. What I've tried: (function (c,h) { var i, s = h.getElementsByTagName('script'); c.log("Num scripts: " + s.length); i = s.length - 1; while(i > 1) { h.removeChild(s[i]); i -= 1; } })(console, document.head); However, the logged number of scripts comes out to only 1, since (as @ryan pointed out) the code is being executed prior to the DOM being ready. Although wrapping the code above in a document.ready event callback does enable proper calculation of the number of <script> tags in the <head>, waiting until the DOM is ready fails to prevent the scripts from loading. Is there a reliable means of manipulating the HTML prior to the DOM being ready? Background If you want more context, this is part of an attempt to consolidate scripts where no option for server-side aggregation is available. Many of the JS libraries being loaded are from a CMS with limited configuration options. The content is mostly static, so there is very little concern about manually aggregating the JavaScript and serving it from a different location. Any suggestions for alternative applicable aggregation techniques would also be welcome.

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• Heterogeneous queries require the ANSI_NULLS

  - by Dezigo

  I wrote a trigger. USE [TEST] GO /****** Object: Trigger [dbo].[TR_POSTGRESQL_UPDATE_YC] Script Date: 05/26/2010 08:54:03 ******/ SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO ALTER TRIGGER [dbo].[TR_POSTGRESQL_UPDATE_YC] ON [dbo].[BCT_CNTR_EVENTS] FOR INSERT AS BEGIN DECLARE @MOVE_TIME varchar(14); DECLARE @MOVE_TIME_FORMATED varchar(20); DECLARE @RELEASE_NOTE varchar(32); DECLARE @CMR_NUMBER varchar(15); DECLARE @MOVE_TYPE varchar(2); SELECT @MOVE_TIME = inserted.move_time ,@MOVE_TYPE = inserted.move_type ,@RELEASE_NOTE = inserted.release_note ,@CMR_NUMBER = inserted.cmr_number FROM inserted IF(@MOVE_TYPE = 'YC') BEGIN SET @MOVE_TIME_FORMATED = SUBSTRING(@MOVE_TIME,1,4) + '-' + SUBSTRING(@MOVE_TIME,5,2) + '-' + SUBSTRING(@MOVE_TIME,7,2) + ' 00:00:00' --UPDATE OpenQuery(POSTGRESQL_SERV,'SELECT visit_cmr,visit_timestamp,visit_pin FROM VISIT') -- SET visit_cmr = @RELEASE_NOTE -- WHERE visit_timestamp = @MOVE_TIME_FORMATED -- AND visit_pin = right(@CMR_NUMBER,5) -- AND visit_cmr IS NULL END SET NOCOUNT ON; END When I have inserted a row,I have get an error **Heterogeneous queries require the ANSI_NULLS and ANSI_WARNINGS options to be set for the connection. This ensures consistent query semantics. Enable these options and then reissue your query.** Then I ofcourse SET SET ANSI_WARNINGS is ON but it`s not work for me. (trigger fo linked server postgresql) I have restarted a server. not work again.

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• DotNetNuke and Subversion guidelines

  - by David Stratton

  I've Googled, Binged, and here at StackOverflow, looked through the related questions and searched, but I'm not finding what I'm looking for. I've also searched documentation on DNN. What I'm looking for is any guidance (tutorials, blogs, step-by-step instructions for setting up a repository) etc from people who are experienced in using DotNetNuke with SVN. We use SVN for all our source control, and have no problem with standard applications, because we pretty much built the repository and directory structure to work with our processes. This means when we do web sites, in Visual Studio, we do file based web sites, rather than setting them up in the local IIS. It just makes things easier for us. However, with DNN, it appears that even if you get the source code, it is expecting to be set up in the local IIS, which means additional headaches for us. For example, we are moving all of our source code off our local C drives, and onto a shared drive on a server. This is to enable backups in addition to our normal source control. (This was a management decision). So that means that we need to change the virtual web app when we make the move. Has anyone come up with a good way to work around this? Can DNN be set up so that the developer web server in Visual Studio can be used, so that we can treat it just like any normal web app? Am I missing something obvious? Edit - added I'm willing to accept answers like "We tried it and never got it to work", and "It can't be done" as answers. I'm always open to hearing "It can't be done the way you want. You need to change your procedures to match how it works" if necessary. I guess if you've got experience trying this and just couldn't get it to work, I can learn from your experience that way as well, but some detail would be good.

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• Ext JS 4.2.1 loading controller - best practice

  - by Hown_

  I am currently developing a Ext JS application with many views/controlers/... I am wondering myself what the best practice is for loading the JS controllers/views/and so on... currently i have my application defined like this: // enable javascript cache for debugging, otherwise Chrome breakpoints are lost Ext.Loader.setConfig({ disableCaching: false }); Ext.require('Ext.util.History'); Ext.require('app.Sitemap'); Ext.require('app.Error'); Ext.define('app.Application', { name: 'app', extend: 'Ext.app.Application', views: [ // TODO: add views here 'app.view.Viewport', 'app.view.BaseMain', 'app.view.Main', 'app.view.ApplicationHeader', //administration 'app.view.administration.User' ... ], controllers: [ 'app.controller.Viewport', 'app.controller.Main', 'app.controller.ApplicationHeader', //administration 'app.controller.administration.User', ... ], stores: [ // stores in there.. ] }); somehow this forces the client to load all my views and controllers at startup and is calling all init methods of all controllers of course.. i need to load data everytime i chnage my view.. and now i cant load it in my controllers init function. I would have to do something like this i assume: init: function () { this.control({ '#administration_User': { afterrender: this.onAfterRender } }); }, Is there a better way to do this? Or just an other event? Though the main thing i am questioning myself is if it is the best practice to load all the javascript at startup. Wouldnt it be better to only load the controllers/views/... which the client does need right now? Or should i load all the JS at startup? If i do want to load the controllers dynamicly how could i do this? I assume a would have to remove them from my application arrays (views, controllers, stores) and create an instance if i do need it and mby set the view in the controllers init?! What's best practice??

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• DotNetOpenAuth / WebSecurity Basic Info Exchange

  - by Jammer

  I've gotten a good number of OAuth logins working on my site now. My implementation is based on the WebSecurity classes with amends to the code to suit my needs (I pulled the WebSecurity source into mine). However I'm now facing a new set of problems. In my application I have opted to make the user email address the login identifier of choice. It's naturally unique and suits this use case. However, the OAuth "standards" strikes again. Some providers will return your email address as "username" (Google) some will return the display name (Facebook). As it stands I see to options given my particular scenario: Option 1 Pull even more framework source code into my solution until I can chase down where the OpenIdRelyingParty class is actually interacted with (via the DotNetOpenAuth.AspNet facade) and make addition information requests from the OpenID Providers. Option 2 When a user first logs in using an OpenID provider I can display a kind of "complete registration" form that requests missing info based on the provider selected.* Option 2 is the most immediate and probably the quickest to implement but also includes some code smells through having to do something different based on the provider selected. Option 1 will take longer but will ultimately make things more future proof. I will need to perform richer interactions down the line so this also has an edge in that regard. The more I get into the code it does seem that the WebSecurity class itself is actually very limiting as it hides lots of useful DotNetOpenAuth functionality in the name of making integration easier. Andrew (the author of DNOA) has said that the Attribute Exchange stuff happens in the OpenIdRelyingParty class but I cannot see from the DotNetOpenAuth.AspNet source code where this class is used so I'm unsure of what source would need to be pulled into my code in order to enable the functionality I need. Has anyone completely something similar?

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• Is Accessing USB from web application for cross browser cross os possible at all ?

  - by Ved

  Hey Guys, I am wondering if there is anyway we can achieve this. I heard different things about Silverlight 4 , Java Script or Active X control but not seen any demo of code for any of them. Does anyone know any web component that is available or how to write one. We really like capture client's USB drive via Web and read/write data on it. This has to work for ANY Operating system in Any web browser. Thanks UPDATED What about WPF in browser mode...I read that I can host my wpf apps inside browser and sort of like smart client. Here is a great example of doing this via silverlight 4 but author mentions about possibility of accessing USB on MAC via 1) Enable executing AppleScripts. This option will let us have the same amount of control on a mac machine as we do on a windows machine. 2) Add an overload to ComAutomationFactory.CreateObject() that calls the “Tell Application” command under the scenes and gets a AppleScript object. This option would work extremely well for Office automation. For any other operating system feature, you’ll have to code OS access twice.  I did not quite understand it. Has any tried this ?

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• Fastest inline-assembly spinlock

  - by sigvardsen

  I'm writing a multithreaded application in c++, where performance is critical. I need to use a lot of locking while copying small structures between threads, for this I have chosen to use spinlocks. I have done some research and speed testing on this and I found that most implementations are roughly equally fast: Microsofts CRITICAL_SECTION, with SpinCount set to 1000, scores about 140 time units Implementing this algorithm with Microsofts InterlockedCompareExchange scores about 95 time units Ive also tried to use some inline assembly with __asm {} using something like this code and it scores about 70 time units, but I am not sure that a proper memory barrier has been created. Edit: The times given here are the time it takes for 2 threads to lock and unlock the spinlock 1,000,000 times. I know this isn't a lot of difference but as a spinlock is a heavily used object, one would think that programmers would have agreed on the fastest possible way to make a spinlock. Googling it leads to many different approaches however. I would think this aforementioned method would be the fastest if implemented using inline assembly and using the instruction CMPXCHG8B instead of comparing 32bit registers. Furthermore memory barriers must be taken into account, this could be done by LOCK CMPXHG8B (I think?), which guarantees "exclusive rights" to the shared memory between cores. At last [some suggests] that for busy waits should be accompanied by NOP:REP that would enable Hyper-threading processors to switch to another thread, but I am not sure whether this is true or not? From my performance-test of different spinlocks, it is seen that there is not much difference, but for purely academic purpose I would like to know which one is fastest. However as I have extremely limited experience in the assembly-language and with memory barriers, I would be happy if someone could write the assembly code for the last example I provided with LOCK CMPXCHG8B and proper memory barriers in the following template: __asm { spin_lock: ;locking code. spin_unlock: ;unlocking code. }

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• apache web server configuration problem

  - by mohit

  i want to have apache server to serve only /var/www/ directory now it serves all my files on system from directory "/" i tried to edit httpd.conf placed in /etc/apache2 and placed the folllowing content in it(intially it was empty) <Directory /> Options None AllowOverride None </Directory> DocumentRoot "/var/www" <Directory "/var/www"> Options Indexes FollowSymLinks AllowOverride None Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> then saved it,restarted apache server put the location /var/www in the web browser address bar,still it shows the higher level directories too then i edited the file Default,Default-ssl in the sites-available folder repeated the same process still apache serves all files on my system 2.when i try to use the following command gedit httpd.conf I get the error gedit:2696): EggSMClient-WARNING **: Failed to connect to the session manager: None of the authentication protocols specified are supported GConf Error: Failed to contact configuration server; some possible causes are that you need to enable TCP/IP networking for ORBit, or you have stale NFS locks due to a system crash. See http://projects.gnome.org/gconf/ for information. (Details - 1: Failed to get connection to session: Did not receive a reply. Possible causes include: the remote application did not send a reply, the message bus security policy blocked the reply, the reply timeout expired, or the network connection was broken.)

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• Apache proxy to Lighttpd: changing $_SERVER['HTTP_HOST'] in php

  - by watain

  I have a WordPress blog running on lighttpd-1.4.19, listening on at www00:81. On the same host, apache-2.2.11 listens on port 80, which creates a proxy connection from http://blog.mydomain.org:80 to http://blog.mydomain.org:81. The Apache virtualhost looks as follows: <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName blog.mydomain.org ProxyRequests Off <Proxy *> Order deny,allow Allow from all </Proxy> ProxyPass / http://blog.mydomain.org:81/ ProxyPassReverse / http://blog.mydomain.org:81/ </VirtualHost> Using debug.log-request-handling = "enable" I get the following log entry when I browse http://blog.mydomain.org:80 (notice the Host headers): 2010-05-10 08:47:14: (request.c.294) fd: 6 request-len: 853 GET / HTTP/1.1 Host: blog.mydomain.org:81 [...] 2010-05-10 08:47:15: (request.c.294) fd: 8 request-len: 754 GET /wp-content/uploads/2010/01/image.gif?w=280 HTTP/1.1 Host: www00:81 My problem: as far as I know, the PHP environment variable $_SERVER['HTTP_HOST'] is set to that Host header variable. Unfortunately, WordPress uses that variable in their system to create URLs to pictures on the blog. These URLs won't be accessible behind a firewall of course. How can I force the host header to be blog.mydomain.org instead of blog.mydomain.org:81, respectively www00:81? I already added set server.name = "blog.mydomain.org" to my lighttpd.conf, but this didn't work. Any suggestions are appreciated, thank you.

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• Google Chrome and (cache or memory leaks).

  - by Alexey Ogarkov

  Hello All, I have a big problem with Google Chrome and its memory. My app is displaying to user several image charts and reloads them every 10s. In the interval i have code like that var image = new Image(); var src = 'myurl/image'+new Date().getTime(); image.onload = function() { document.getElementById('myimage').src = src; image.onload = image.onabort = image.onerror = null; } image.src = src; So i have no memory leaks in Firefox and IE. Here the response headers for images Server Apache-Coyote/1.1 Vary * Cache-Control no-store (// I try no-cache, must-revalidate and so on here) Content-Type image/png Content-Length 11131 Date Mon, 31 May 2010 14:00:28 GMT Vary * taken from here In about:cache page there is no my cached images. If i enable purge-memory-button for chrome (--purge-memory-button parameter) it`s not help. Images is in PNG24. So i think that the problem is not in cache. May be Google Chrome is not releasing memory for old images. Please help. Any suggestions. Thanks.

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• struts2 action not calling properly

  - by Ziplin

  On default I want my struts2 app to forward to an action: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" ?> <!DOCTYPE struts PUBLIC "-//Apache Software Foundation//DTD Struts Configuration 2.0//EN" "http://struts.apache.org/dtds/struts-2.0.dtd"> <struts> <constant name="struts.enable.DynamicMethodInvocation" value="false" /> <constant name="struts.devMode" value="false" /> <package name="myApp" namespace="/myApp" extends="struts-default"> <action name="Login_*" method="{1}" class="myApp.SessionManager"> <result name="input">/myApp/Login.jsp</result> <result type="redirectAction">Menu</result> </action> </package> <package name="default" namespace="/" extends="struts-default"> <default-action-ref name="index" /> <action name="index"> <result type="redirectAction"> <param name="actionName">Login_input.action</param> <param name="namespace">/myApp</param> </result> </action> </package> </struts> I'm looking for the application to call SessionManager.input(), but instead it calls SessionManager.execute().

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• Why does my javascript file sometimes compressed while sometimes not?(IIS Gzip problem)

  - by Kevin Yang

  i enable gzip for javascript file in my iis settings, here 's the corresponding config section. <httpCompression directory="%SystemDrive%\inetpub\temp\IIS Temporary Compressed Files"> <scheme name="gzip" dll="%Windir%\system32\inetsrv\gzip.dll" staticCompressionLevel="10" dynamicCompressionLevel="8" /> <dynamicTypes> <add mimeType="text/*" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="message/*" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="application/soap+msbin1" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="*/*" enabled="false" /> </dynamicTypes> <staticTypes> <add mimeType="text/*" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="message/*" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="application/javascript" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="application/x-javascript" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="*/*" enabled="false" /> </staticTypes> </httpCompression> currently, when i download my js file, it seems that sometimes server return the gzip one, and sometimes not. i dont know why, and how to debug that. If a file is already gzipped, it should be cached in local disk, and next time someone visit that file again, iis kernel should return the cache gzip file directly without compressing it again. Is that right?

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• php automatically commented with apache

  - by clement

  We have installed apache 2.2, and activeperl to run bugzilla, all that on a Windows Server 2003. Here We want to install PHP on the server to install a wiki. I followed those steps: tutorial to install PHP and enable it from Apache. After all those steps, I restart couples of times, and When I try a simple phpinfo() on PHP, the whole PHP code is commented: < ! - - ?php phpinfo(); ? - - Now, the httpd.conf was already edited for the PERL and it can be those edits that make the mistake. Here is the whole httpd.conf file: ServerRoot "C:/Program Files/Apache Software Foundation/Apache2.2" Listen 6969 LoadModule actions_module modules/mod_actions.so LoadModule alias_module modules/mod_alias.so LoadModule asis_module modules/mod_asis.so LoadModule auth_basic_module modules/mod_auth_basic.so LoadModule php5_module "c:/php/php5apache2_2.dll" LoadModule authn_default_module modules/mod_authn_default.so LoadModule authn_file_module modules/mod_authn_file.so LoadModule authz_default_module modules/mod_authz_default.so LoadModule authz_groupfile_module modules/mod_authz_groupfile.so LoadModule authz_host_module modules/mod_authz_host.so LoadModule authz_user_module modules/mod_authz_user.so LoadModule autoindex_module modules/mod_autoindex.so LoadModule cgi_module modules/mod_cgi.so LoadModule dir_module modules/mod_dir.so LoadModule env_module modules/mod_env.so LoadModule include_module modules/mod_include.so LoadModule isapi_module modules/mod_isapi.so LoadModule log_config_module modules/mod_log_config.so LoadModule mime_module modules/mod_mime.so LoadModule negotiation_module modules/mod_negotiation.so LoadModule setenvif_module modules/mod_setenvif.so User daemon Group daemon ServerAdmin [email protected] DocumentRoot C:/bugzilla-4.4.2/ Options FollowSymLinks AllowOverride None Order deny,allow Deny from all Options Indexes FollowSymLinks ExecCGI AllowOverride All Order allow,deny Allow from all ScriptInterpreterSource Registry-Strict DirectoryIndex index.html index.html.var index.cgi index.php Order allow,deny Deny from all Satisfy All ErrorLog "logs/error.log" LogLevel warn LogFormat "%h %l %u %t \"%r\" %s %b \"%{Referer}i\" \"%{User-Agent}i\"" combined LogFormat "%h %l %u %t \"%r\" %s %b" common <IfModule logio_module> LogFormat "%h %l %u %t \"%r\" %>s %b \"%{Referer}i\" \"%{User-Agent}i\" %I %O" combinedio </IfModule> ScriptAlias /cgi-bin/ "C:/Program Files/Apache Software Foundation/Apache2.2/cgi-bin/" AllowOverride None Options None Order allow,deny Allow from all DefaultType text/plain AddType application/x-compress .Z AddType application/x-gzip .gz .tgz AddHandler cgi-script .cgi AddType application/x-httpd-php .php SSLRandomSeed startup builtin SSLRandomSeed connect builtin PHPIniDir "c:/php"

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• How to use data receive event in Socket class?

  - by affan

  I have wrote a simple client that use TcpClient in dotnet to communicate. In order to wait for data messages from server i use a Read() thread that use blocking Read() call on socket. When i receive something i have to generate various events. These event occur in the worker thread and thus you cannot update a UI from it directly. Invoke() can be use but for end developer its difficult as my SDK would be use by users who may not use UI at all or use Presentation Framework. Presentation framework have different way of handling this. Invoke() on our test app as Microstation Addin take a lot of time at the moment. Microstation is single threaded application and call invoke on its thread is not good as it is always busy doing drawing and other stuff message take too long to process. I want my events to generate in same thread as UI so user donot have to go through the Dispatcher or Invoke. Now i want to know how can i be notified by socket when data arrive? Is there a build in callback for that. I like winsock style receive event without use of separate read thread. I also do not want to use window timer to for polling for data. I found IOControlCode.AsyncIO flag in IOControl() function which help says Enable notification for when data is waiting to be received. This value is equal to the Winsock 2 FIOASYNC constant. I could not found any example on how to use it to get notification. If i am write in MFC/Winsock we have to create a window of size(0,0) which was just used for listening for the data receive event or other socket events. But i don't know how to do that in dotnet application.

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