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• Question About Fk refrence in The Collection

  - by Ahmed

  Hi , i have 2 entities : ( person ) & (Address) with follwing mapping : <class name="Adress" table="Adress" lazy="false"> <id name="Id" column="Id"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <many-to-one name="Person" class="Person"> <column name="PersonId" /> </many-to-one> </class> <class name="Person" table="Person" lazy="false"> <id name="PersonId" column="PersonId"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <property name="Name" column="Name" type="String" not-null="true" /> <set name="Adresses" lazy="true" inverse="true" cascade="save-update"> <key> <column name="PersonId" /> </key> <one-to-many class="Adress" /> </set> </class> my propblem is that when i set Adrees.Person with new object of person ,The collection person.Adresses doesn't update itself . should i update every end role of the association to be updated in the two both? another thing : if i updated the Fk manually like this : Adress.PersonId it doesn't break or change association. does this is Nhibernte behavior ? thanks in advance , i am waiting for your experiencies

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• When is it safe to use a broken hash function?

  - by The Rook

  It is trivial to use a secure hash function like SHA256 and continuing to use md5 is reckless behavior. However, there are some complexities to hash function vulnerabilities that I would like to better understand. Collisions have been generated for md4 and md5. According to NIST md5() is not a secure hash function. It only takes 2^39th operations to generate a collision and should never be used for passwords. However SHA1 is vulnerable to a similar collision attack in which a collision can be found in 2^69 operations, where as brute force is 2^80th. No one has generated a sha1 collision and NIST still lists sha1 as a secure message digest function. So when is it safe to use a broken hash function? Even though a function is broken it can still be "big enough". According to Schneier a hash function vulnerable to a collsion attack can still be used as an HMAC. I believe this is because the security of an HMAC is Dependant on its secret key and a collision cannot be found until this key is obtained. Once you have the key used in a HMAC its already broken, so its a moot point. What hash function vulnerabilities would undermine the security of an HMAC? Lets take this property a bit further. Does it then become safe to use a very weak message digest like md4 for passwords if a salt is perpended to the password? Keep in mind the md4 and md5 attacks are prefixing attacks, and if a salt is perpended then an attacker cannot control the prefix of the message. If the salt is truly a secret, and isn't known to the attacker, then does it matter if its a appended to the end of the password? Is it safe to assume that an attacker cannot generate a collision until the entire message has been obtained? Do you know of other cases where a broken hash function can be used in a security context without introducing a vulnerability? (Please post supporting evidence because it is awesome!)

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• Passing Object From Controller to JavaScript JQuery

  - by TMan

  This is driving me crazy. All I'm trying to do is to pass in a Id to a ActionMethod which is working and have an Object be returned to the javascript. Then in javascript, I want to be able to say something like..Objec.Property, ie/ Student.Name, or Student.GPA. Any help is appreciated. I tried json but couldn't get that to work either. ActionResult: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Get)] public Epic GetEpicPropertyDetails(int id) { var Epictemplist = epicRepository.Select().Where(x => x.Id.Equals(id)); return Epictemplist.SingleOrDefault(); } javascript: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $(".ListBoxClass").click(function (event) { var selectedid = $(this).find("option:selected").val(); event.preventDefault(); $.get("/Estimate/GetEpicPropertyDetails", { id: selectedid }, function (result) { $(".TimeClass").val(result); }); }); }); </script> result.Name is obviously wrong I just dont know how to call this the right way.

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• How to cancel a deeply nested process

  - by Mystere Man

  I have a class that is a "manager" sort of class. One of it's functions is to signal that the long running process of the class should shut down. It does this by setting a boolean called "IsStopping" in class. public class Foo { bool isStoping void DoWork() { while (!isStopping) { // do work... } } } Now, DoWork() was a gigantic function, and I decided to refactor it out and as part of the process broke some of it into other classes. The problem is, Some of these classes also have long running functions that need to check if isStopping is true. public class Foo { bool isStoping void DoWork() { while (!isStopping) { MoreWork mw = new MoreWork() mw.DoMoreWork() // possibly long running // do work... } } } What are my options here? I have considered passing isStopping by reference, which I don't really like because it requires there to be an outside object. I would prefer to make the additional classes as stand alone and dependancy free as possible. I have also considered making isStopping a property, and then then having it call an event that the inner classes could be subscribed to, but this seems overly complex. Another option was to create a "Process Cancelation Token" class, similar to what .net 4 Tasks use, then that token be passed to those classes. How have you handled this situation? EDIT: Also consider that MoreWork might have a EvenMoreWork object that it instantiates and calls a potentially long running method on... and so on. I guess what i'm looking for is a way to be able to signal an arbitrary number of objects down a call tree to tell them to stop what they're doing and clean up and return.

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• What prevents a user from adding controls to an ASP.NET page client side?

  - by Curtis White

  This goes back to my other question which I thought was sufficiently answers but upon reflect am not sure that it was (sorry). Backgrounder: I am generating a form dynamically. I am pulling from the database the controls. I must associate each control with a database ID which is not the user's session id. I do this currently by storing my ID in the ID for the web control with some other stuff to make it unique/clear what I am doing. On the post back, I iterate through all the controls on my web page checking for my special identifier, ie, MyGeneratedTextBox_ID_Unique. This process enables for 2 important steps, identifying the control was one I generated and also getting the ID for this input field. And, all of this works but I'm still concerned about the security of it. I do not see a security issue with showing the actual database ID's in this case, although agree it is not desirable. However, I am concerned of the following possibilities: If a user could add a nefarious control to my collection and use that for a SQL injection attack. More academic, but if a user could somehow store data for fields they do not have access too by changing the id's. I agree this is a "hack" of a way to do it. But my question is, is it a security risk and is there an 'easy' way to do it in a less hack way? I assume that only the controls that are created/instantiated on the page are added to the controls list.. thus all controls must be created server side and thus the security issue is address but just wanted to validate. Thanks again. PS: I could see adding a property for each control and encrypting the viewstate would be a little more secure.

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• c# warn if text box is empty or contains a non-whole number

  - by Jamaul Smith

  In my specific case, I need the value in propertyPriceTextBox to be numeric only, and a whole number. A value also has to be entered, and I can just Messagebox.Show() a warning and that's all I'd need to do. This is what I have so far. private void computeButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { decimal propertyPrice; if ((decimal.TryParse(propertyPriceTextBox.Text, out propertyPrice))) decimal.Parse(propertyPriceTextBox.Text); { if (residentialRadioButton.Checked == true) commisionLabel.Text = (residentialCom * propertyPrice).ToString("c"); if (commercialRadioButton.Checked == true) commisionLabel.Text = (commercialCom * propertyPrice).ToString("c"); if (hillsRadioButton.Checked == true) countySalesTaxTextBox.Text = ( hilssTax * propertyPrice).ToString("c"); if (pascoRadioButton.Checked == true) countySalesTaxTextBox.Text = (pascoTax * propertyPrice).ToString("c"); if (polkRadioButton.Checked == true) countySalesTaxTextBox.Text = (polkTax * propertyPrice).ToString("c"); decimal result; result = (countySalesTaxTextBox.Text + stateSalesTaxTextBox.Text + propertyPriceTextBox.Text + comissionTextBox.Text).ToString("c"); } else (.) MessageBox.Show("Property Price must be a whole number."); }

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• How to detect the root recursive call?

  - by ahmadabdolkader

  Say we're writing a simple recursive function fib(n) that calculates the nth Fibonacci number. Now, we want the function to print that nth number. As the same function is being called repeatedly, there has to be a condition that allows only the root call to print. The question is: how to write this condition without passing any additional arguments, or using global/static variables. So, we're dealing with something like this: int fib(int n) { if(n <= 0) return 0; int fn = 1; if(n > 2) fn = fib(n-2) + fib(n-1); if(???) cout << fn << endl; return fn; } int main() { fib(5); return 0; } I thought that the root call differs from all children by returning to a different caller, namely the main method in this example. I wanted to know whether it is possible to use this property to write the condition and how. Update: please note that this is a contrived example that only serves to present the idea. This should be clear from the tags. I'm not looking for standard solutions. Thanks.

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• custom *arbitrary* TemplateField definitions

  - by end-user

  I'm building a GridView on the fly, and I'd like to pre-define the TemplateFields to be included ondemand. So, what I'd like to do is have a declarative file that defines how the different templates look for a specific column. Like: <asp:TemplateField> <HeaderTemplate> this is a text column </HeaderTemplate> <ItemTemplate> data goes here </ItemTemplate> <EditItemTemplate> <asp:TextBox Text="databindhere" /> </EditItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> <asp:TemplateField> <HeaderTemplate> this is a bool column </HeaderTemplate> <ItemTemplate> if(true) "yes" else "no" </ItemTemplate> <EditItemTemplate> <asp:CheckBox Checked="databindme" /> </EditItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> So, if my query had a text and two bool fields, I could push the appropriate TemplateFields in the the Columns property as needed. (I hope I'm making sense here) So, how would I go about creating declarative files for the above definitions? And then, how would I reference those definitions programmatically?

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• Unable to delete inherited entity class in EF4

  - by Coding Gorilla

  I have two entities in an EF4 model (using Model First), let's call them EntityA and EntityB. EntityA is marked as abstract, and EntityB inherits from EntityA. They are similar to the following: public class EntityA { public Guid Id; public string Name; public string Uri; } public class EntityB : EntityA { public string AnotherProperty; } The generated database tables look as I would expect them, with EntityA as on table, and then another table like: EntityA_EntityB Id (PK, FK, uniqueidentifier) AnotherProperty (varchar) There is a foreign key constraint on EntityA_EntityB that references EntityA's Id property, no cascades are configured (although I did try changing these myself). The problem is that when I attempt to do something like: Context.DeleteObject(EntityA_EntityB); EF attempts to delete the EntityA_EntityB table record before deleting the EntityA table record, which of course violates the foreign key constraint on EntityA_EntityB table. Using EFProfiler I see the following commands being sent to the database: delete [dbo].[EntityA_EntityB] where (([Id] = '5c02899f-09ea-2ed9-d44b-01aef80f6b64' /* @0 */) followed by delete [dbo].[EntityA] where ([Id] = '5c02899f-09ea-2ed9-d44b-01aef80f6b64' /* @0 */) I'm completely stumped as to how to get around this problem. I would think the EF should know that it needs to delete the base class first, before deleting the inherited class. I know I could do some triggers or other database type solutions, but I'd rather avoid doing that if I can. All my classes are POCO built using some customized T4 templates. I don't want to paste in a lot of extraneous code, but if you need more information I'll provide what I can.

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• What does P mean in Sort(Expression<Func<T, P>> expr, ListSortDirection direction)?

  - by Grasshopper

  I am attempting to use the answer in post: How do you sort an EntitySet<T> to expose an interface so that I can sort an EntitySet with a Binding list. I have created the class below and I get the following compiler error: "The type or namespace 'P' could not be found (are you missing a using directive or assembly reference?). Can someone tell me what the P means and which namespace I need to include to get the method below to compile? I am very new to delegates and lamba expressions. Also, can someone confirm that if I create a BindingList from my EntitySet that any modifications I make to the BindingList will be made to the EntitySet? Basically, I have an EntitySet that I need to sort and make changes to. Then, I will need to persist these changes using the original Entity that the BindingList came from. public class EntitySetBindingWrapper<T> : BindingList<T> { public EntitySetBindingWrapper(BindingList<T> root) : base(root) { } public void Sort(Expression<Func<T, P>> expr, ListSortDirection direction) { if (expr == null) base.RemoveSortCore(); MemberExpression propExpr = expr as MemberExpression; if (propExpr == null) throw new ArgumentException("You must provide a property", "expr"); PropertyDescriptorCollection descriptorCol = TypeDescriptor.GetProperties(typeof(T)); IEnumerable<PropertyDescriptor> descriptors = descriptorCol.Cast<PropertyDescriptor>(); PropertyDescriptor descriptor = descriptors.First(pd => pd.Name == propExpr.Member.Name); base.ApplySortCore(descriptor, direction); } }

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• Flex Tree Properties, Null Reference?

  - by mvrak

  I am pulling down a large XML file and I have no control over it's structure. I used a custom function to use the tag name to view the tree structure as a flex tree, but then it breaks. I am guessing it has something to do with my other function, one that calls attribute values from the selected node. See code. <mx:Tree x="254" y="21" width="498" height="579" id="xmllisttree" labelFunction="namer" dataProvider="{treeData}" showRoot="false" change="treeChanged(event)" /> //and the Cdata import mx.rpc.events.ResultEvent; [Bindable] private var fullXML:XMLList; private function contentHandler(evt:ResultEvent):void{ fullXML = evt.result.page; } [Bindable] public var selectedNode:Object; public function treeChanged(event:Event):void { selectedNode=Tree(event.target).selectedItem; } public function namer(item:Object):String { var node:XML = XML(item); var nodeName:QName = node.name(); var stringtest:String ="bunny"; return nodeName.localName; } The error is TypeError: Error #1009: Cannot access a property or method of a null object reference. Where is the null reference?

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• Programatically adding,changing and removing controls bound to model objects (MVVM)

  - by Ittai

  I have the following scenario and I'm trying to decide how it can and should be implemented in silverlight and c# via MVVM. Scenario: I have the following objects in my scenario: MyModel, MyModelControl, MyView and MyViewModel. MyModelcontrol is a custom UserControl of mine and the rest I think are pretty much self explanatory. MyViewModel is a Subscriber of a message which hands it a Collection<MyModel> newCol and let's mark curCol as the current Collection<MyModel> that MyViewModel holds. I then want to programatically add MyModelControl controls for each MyModel instance which belongs to newCol and not to curCol. I also want to bind the MyModelControl instance to the corresponding MyModel instance. In a similar manner I want to remove the controls which don't belong now to the collection and I want to update a property for those which belong to both. I do not want to remove all controls which belong to curCol and then add all controls for newCol as the creation of MyModelControl is "expensive". I'd appreciate help with how this should be implemented in SL as I'm new to it and to the MVVM pattern. Comments regarding the design would also be welcomed. B.T.W This will run on Windows Phone 7 so I think there are some limitations on versions, if this is an issue please comment and I'll verify which versions exactly I can use on the phone.

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• Objective-C Objects Having Each Other as Properties

  - by mwt

  Let's say we have two objects. Furthermore, let's assume that they really have no reason to exist without each other. So we aren't too worried about re-usability. Is there anything wrong with them "knowing about" each other? Meaning, can each one have the other as a property? Is it OK to do something like this in a mythical third class: Foo *f = [[Foo alloc] init]; self.foo = f; [f release]; Bar *b = [[Bar alloc] init]; self.bar = b; [b release]; foo.bar = bar; bar.foo = foo; ...so that they can then call methods on each other? Instead of doing this, I'm usually using messaging, etc., but sometimes this seems like it might be a tidier solution. I hardly ever see it in example code (maybe never), so I've shied away from doing it. Can somebody set me straight on this? Thanks.

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• C# textbox cursor positioning

  - by Jim

  I feel like I am just missing a simple property, but can you set the cursor to the end of a line in a textbox? private void txtNumbersOnly_KeyPress(object sender, KeyPressEventArgs e) { if (Char.IsDigit(e.KeyChar) || e.KeyChar == '\b' || e.KeyChar == '.' || e.KeyChar == '-') { TextBox t = (TextBox)sender; bool bHandled = false; _sCurrentTemp += e.KeyChar; if (_sCurrentTemp.Length > 0 && e.KeyChar == '-') { // '-' only allowed as first char bHandled = true; } if (_sCurrentTemp.StartsWith(Convert.ToString('.'))) { // add '0' in front of decimal point t.Text = string.Empty; t.Text = '0' + _sCurrentTemp; _sCurrentTemp = t.Text; bHandled = true; } e.Handled = bHandled; } After testing for '.' as first char, the cursor goes before the text that is added. So instead of "0.123", the results are "1230." without moving the cursor myself. I also apologize if this is a duplicate question.

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• JPA / Hibernate checks conditions in merge()

  - by bert

  Working with JPA / Hibernate in an OSIV Web environment is driving me mad ;) Following scenario: I have an entity A that is loaded via JPA and has a collection of B entities. Those B entities have a required field. When the user adds a new B to A by pressing a link in the webapp, that required field is not set (since there is no sensible default value). Upon the next http request, the OSIV filter tries to merge the A entity, but this fails as Hibernate complains that the new B has a required field is not set. javax.persistence.PersistenceException: org.hibernate.PropertyValueException: not-null property references a null or transient value Reading the JPA spec, i see no sign that those checks are required in the merge phase (i have no transaction active) I can't keep the collection of B's outside of A and only add them to A when the user presses 'save' (aka entitymanager.persist()) as the place where the save button is does not know about the B's, only about A. Also A and B are only examples, i have similar stuff all over the place .. Any ideas? Do other JPA implementaions behave the same here? Thanks in advance.

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• Building a structure/object in a place other than the constructor

  - by Vishal Naidu

  I have different types of objects representing the same business entity. UIObject, PowershellObject, DevCodeModelObject, WMIObject all are different representation to the same entity. So say if the entity is Animal then I have AnimalUIObject, AnimalPSObject, AnimalModelObject, AnimalWMIObject, etc. Now the implementations of AnimalUIObject, AnimalPSObject, AnimalModelObject are all in separate assemblies. Now my scenario is I want to verify the contents of business entity Animal irrespective of the assembly it came from. So I created a GenericAnimal class to represent the Animal entity. Now in GenericAnimal I added the following constructors: GenericAnimal(AnimalUIObject) GenericAnimal(AnimalPSObject) GenericAnimal(AnimalModelObject) Basically I made GenericAnimal depend on all the underlying assemblies so that while verifying I deal with this abstraction. Now the other approach to do this is have GenericAnimal with an empty constructor an allow these underlying assemblies to have a Transform() method which would build the GenericAnimal. Both approaches have some pros and cons: The 1st approach: Pros: All construction logic is in one place in one class GenericAnimal Cons: GenericAnimal class must be touched every-time there is a new representation form. The 2nd approach: Pros: construction responsibility is delegated to the underlying assembly. Cons: As construction logic is spread accross assemblies, tomorrow if I need to add a property X in GenericAnimal then I have to touch all the assemblies to change the Transform method. Which approach looks better ? or Which would you consider a lesser evil ? Is there any alternative way better than the above two ?

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• Display Consistent Value of an Item using MVVM and WPF

  - by Blake Blackwell

  In my list view control (or any other WPF control that will fit the situation), I would like to have one TextBlock that stays consistent for all items while another TextBlock that changes based on the value in the ObservableCollection. Here is how my code is currently laid out: XAML <ListView ItemsSource="{Binding Path=MyItems, Mode=TwoWay}"> <ListView.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <TextBlock x:Name="StrVal" Text="{Binding StrVal}" /> <TextBlock x:Name="ConstVal" Text="{Binding MyVM.ConstVal}" /> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </ListView.ItemTemplate> </ListView> Model public class MyItem { public string StrVal { get; set; } } ViewModel public class MyVM { public MyVM() { ObservableCollection<MyItem> myItems = new ObservableCollection<MyItem>(); for (int i = 0 ; i < 10; i++) myItems.Add(new MyItem { StrVal = i.ToString()}); MyItems = myItems; ConstVal = "1"; } public string ConstVal { get; set; } public ObservableCollection<MyItem> MyItems { get; set; } } Code Behind this.DataContext = new MyVM(); The StrVal property repeats correctly in the ListView, but the ConstVal TextBlock does not show the ConstVal that is contained in the VM. I would guess that this is because the ItemsSource of the ListView is MyItems and I can't reference other variables outside of what is contained in the MyItems. My question is: How do I get ConstVal to show the value in the ViewModel for all listviewitems that will be controlled by the Observable Collection of MyItems.

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• Deleting from 2 arrays of dictionaries

  - by Matt Winters

  I have an array of dictionaries loaded from a plist (below) called arrayHistory. <plist version="1.0"> <array> <dict> <key>item</key> <string>1</string> <key>result</key> <string>8.1</string> <key>date</key> <date>2009-12-15T19:36:59Z</date> </dict> ... </array> </plist> I filter this array based on 'item' so that a second array, arrayHistoryDetail has the same structure as arrayHistory but only contains e.g. 'item's equal to '1'. These detail items are successfully displayed in a tableView. I then want to select an item from the tableView, and delete it from the tableView data source, arrayHistoryDetail (line 2 in the code below) - works, then I want to delete the item from the tableView itself (line 3 in the code below) - also works. My problem is that I also need to delete it from the original arrayHistory, so I tried the following: created a temporary dictionary as an ivar: NSMutableDictionary *tempDict; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSMutableDictionary *tempDict; Then my thinking was to make a copy in line 1 and remove it from the original array in line 4. 1 tempDict = [arrayHistoryDetail objectAtIndex: indexPath.row]; 2 [arrayHistoryDetail removeObjectAtIndex: indexPath.row]; 3 [tableView deleteRowsAtIndexPaths:[NSArray arrayWithObject:indexPath] withRowAnimation:UITableViewRowAnimationFade]; 4 [arrayHistory removeObject:tempDict]; Didn't work. Could someone please guide me in the right direction. I'm thinking that tempDict is a pointer and that removeObject needs a copy? I don't know. Thanks.

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• Which is better Span that runat server or default asp lable ?

  - by Space Cracker

  I have a simple asp.net web page that contain a table with about 5 TR and each row have 2 TD .. in the page load I get user data ( 5 property ) and view them in this page the following are first 2 rows : <table> <tr> <td> FullName </td> <td> <span id="fullNameSpan" runat="server"></span> </td> </tr> <tr> <td> Username </td> <td> <span id="userNameSpan" runat="server"></span> </td> </tr> </table> I always used <asp:Label to set value by code but i always notice that label converted in runtime to span so i decided to user span by making him runat=server to be accessed by code, so Which is better to use asp:label or span with runat=server ??

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• Why is only the first shown window focusable

  - by Miha Markic

  Imagine the code below. Only the first window appears on the top, all of subsequent windows won't nor can they be programatically focused for some reason (they appear in the background). Any idea how to workaround this? BTW, static methods/properties are not allowed nor is any global property. [STAThread] static void Main() { Application.EnableVisualStyles(); Application.SetCompatibleTextRenderingDefault(false); Thread t1 = new Thread(CreateForm); t1.SetApartmentState(ApartmentState.STA); t1.Start(); t1.Join(); t1 = new Thread(CreateForm); t1.SetApartmentState(ApartmentState.STA); t1.Start(); t1.Join(); } private static void CreateForm() { using (Form f = new Form()) { System.Windows.Forms.Timer t = new System.Windows.Forms.Timer { Enabled = true, Interval = 2000 }; t.Tick += (s, e) => { f.Close(); t.Enabled = false; }; f.TopMost = true; Application.Run(f); } }

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• How can you determine the file size in JavaScript?

  - by Daniel Lew

  I help moderate a forum online, and on this forum we restrict the size of signatures. At the moment we test this via a simple Greasemonkey script I wrote; we wrap all signatures with a <div>, the script looks for them, and then measures the div's height and width. All the script does right now is make sure the signature resides in a particular height/width. I would like to start measuring the file size of the images inside of a signature automatically so that the script can automatically flag users who are including huge images in their signature. However, I can't seem to find a way to measure the size of images loaded on the page. I've searched and found a property special to IE (element.fileSize) but I obviously can't use that in my Greasemonkey script. Is there a way to find out the file size of an image in Firefox via JavaScript? Edit: People are misinterpreting the problem. The forums themselves do not host images; we host the BBCode that people enter as their signature. So, for example, people enter this: This is my signature, check out my [url=http://google.com]awesome website[/url]! This image is cool! [img]http://image.gif[/img] I want to be able to check on these images via Greasemonkey. I could write a batch script to scan all of these instead, but I'm just wondering if there's a way to augment my current script.

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• WCF: get generic type object (e.g. MyObject<T>) from remote machine

  - by Aaron

  I have two applications that are communicating through WCF. On the server the following object exists: public class MyObject<T> { ... public Entry<T> GetValue() } Where Entry<T> is another object with T Data as a public property. T could be any number of types (string, double, etc) On the client I have ClientObject<T> that needs to get the value of Data from the server (same type). Since I'm using WCF, I have to define my ServiceContract as an interface, and I can't have ClientObject<T> call Entry<T> GetMyObjectValue (string Name) which calls GetValue on the correct MyObject<T> because my interface isn't aware of the type information. I've tried implementing separate GetValue functions (GetMyObjectValueDouble, GetMyObjectValueString) in the interface and then have ClientObject determine the correct one to call. However, Entry<T> val = (Entry<T>)GetMyObjectValueDouble(...); doesn't work because it's not sure about the type information. How can I go about getting a generic object over WCF with the correct type information? Let me know if there are other details I can provide. Thanks!

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• What C# container is most resource-efficient for existence for only one operation?

  - by ccornet

  I find myself often with a situation where I need to perform an operation on a set of properties. The operation can be anything from checking if a particular property matches anything in the set to a single iteration of actions. Sometimes the set is dynamically generated when the function is called, some built with a simple LINQ statement, other times it is a hard-coded set that will always remain the same. But one constant always exists: the set only exists for one single operation and has no use before or after it. My problem is, I have so many points in my application where this is necessary, but I appear to be very, very inconsistent in how I store these sets. Some of them are arrays, some are lists, and just now I've found a couple linked lists. Now, none of the operations I'm specifically concerned about have to care about indices, container size, order, or any other functionality that is bestowed by any of the individual container types. I picked resource efficiency because it's a better idea than flipping coins. I figured, since array size is configured and it's a very elementary container, that might be my best choice, but I figure it is a better idea to ask around. Alternatively, if there's a better choice not out of resource-efficiency but strictly as being a better choice for this kind of situation, that would be nice as well.

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• Is it possible to load an entire SQL Server CE database into RAM?

  - by DanM

  I'm using LinqToSql to query a small SQL Server CE database. I've noticed that any operations involving sub-properties are disappointingly slow. For example, if I have a Customer table that is referenced by an Order table via a foreign key, LinqToSql will automatically create an EntitySet<Order> property. This is a nice convenience, allowing me to do things like Customer.Order.Where(o => o.ProductName = "Stopwatch"), but for some reason, SQL Server CE hangs up pretty bad when I try to do stuff like this. One of my queries, which isn't really that complicated takes 3-4 seconds to complete. I can get the speed up to acceptable, even fast, if I just grab the two tables individually and convert them to List<Customer> and List<Order>, then join then manually with my own query, but this is throwing out a lot of the appeal of LinqToSql. So, I'm wondering if I can somehow get the whole database into RAM and just query that way, then occasionally save it. Is this possible? How? If not, is there anything else I can do to boost the performance? Note: My database in its initial state is about 250K and I don't expect it to grow to more than 1-2Mb. So, loading the data into RAM certainly wouldn't be a problem from a memory point of view.

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• Spring MessageSource not being used during validation

  - by Jeremy

  I can't get my messages in messages.properties to be used during Spring validation of my form backing objects. app-config.xml: <bean id="messageSource" class="org.springframework.context.support.ResourceBundleMessageSource"> <property name="basename" value="messages" /> </bean> WEB-INF/classes/messages.properties: NotEmpty=This field should not be empty. Form Backing Object: ... @NotEmpty @Size(min=6, max=25) private String password; ... When I loop through all errors in the BindingResult and output the ObjectError's toString I get this: Field error in object 'settingsForm' on field 'password': rejected value []; codes [NotEmpty.settingsForm.password,NotEmpty.password,NotEmpty.java.lang.String,NotEmpty]; arguments [org.springframework.context.support.DefaultMessageSourceResolvable: codes [settingsForm.password,password]; arguments []; default message [password]]; default message [may not be empty] As you can see the default message is "may not be empty" instead of my message "This field should not be empty". I do get my correct message if I inject the messageSource into a controller and output this: messageSource.getMessage("NotEmpty", new Object [] {"password"}, "default empty message", null); So why isn't the validation using my messages.properties? I'm running Spring 3.1.1. Thanks!

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