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  • Cross-table linq query with EF4/POCO

    - by Basiclife
    Hi All, I'm new to EF(any version) and POCO. I'm trying to use POCO entities with a generic repository in a "code-first" mode(?) I've got some POCO Entities (no proxies, no lazy loading, nothing). I have a repository(of T as Entity) which provides me with basic get/getsingle/getfirst functionality which takes a lambda as a parameter (specifically a System.Func(Of T, Boolean)) Now as I'm returning the simplest possible POCO object, none of the relationship parameters work once they've been retrieved from the database (as I would expect). However, I had assumed (wrongly) that my lambda query passed to the repository would be able to use the links between entities as it would be executed against the DB before the simple POCO entities are generated. The flow is: GUI calls: Public Function GetAllTypesForCategory(ByVal CategoryID As Guid) As IEnumerable(Of ItemType) Return ItemTypeRepository.Get(Function(x) x.Category.ID = CategoryID) End Function Get is defined in Repository(of T as Entity): Public Function [Get](ByVal Query As System.Func(Of T, Boolean)) As IEnumerable(Of T) Implements Interfaces.IRepository(Of T).Get Return ObjectSet.Where(Query).ToList() End Function The code doesn't error when this method is called but does when I try to use the result set. (This seems to be a lazy loading behaviour so I tried adding the .ToList() to force eager loading - no difference) I'm using unity/IOC to wire it all up but I believe that's irrelevant to the issue I'm having NB: Relationships between entities are being configured properly and if I turn on proxies/lazy loading/etc... this all just works. I'm intentionally leaving all that turned off as some calls to the BL will be from a website but some will be via WCF - So I want the simplest possible objects. Also, I don't want a change in an object passed to the UI to be committed to the DB if another BL method calls Commit() Can someone please either point out how to make this work or explain why it's not possible? All I want to do is make sure the lambda I pass in is performed against the DB before the results are returned Many thanks. In case it matters, the container is being populated with everything as shown below: Container.AddNewExtension(Of EFRepositoryExtension)() Container.Configure(Of IEFRepositoryExtension)(). WithConnection(ConnectionString). WithContextLifetime(New HttpContextLifetimeManager(Of IObjectContext)()). ConfigureEntity(New CategoryConfig(), "Categories"). ConfigureEntity(New ItemConfig()). ... )

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  • Problems upgrading VB.Net 2008 project into VS2010

    - by Brett Rigby
    Hi there, I have been upgrading several different VS2008 projects into VS2010 and have found a problem with VB.Net projects when they are converted. Once converted, the .vbproj files have changed from this in VS2008: <PropertyGroup Condition=" '$(Configuration)|$(Platform)' == 'Debug|AnyCPU' "> <DebugSymbols>true</DebugSymbols> <DebugType>full</DebugType> <DefineDebug>true</DefineDebug> <DefineTrace>true</DefineTrace> <OutputPath>bin\Debug\</OutputPath> <DocumentationFile>CustomerManager.xml</DocumentationFile> <WarningsAsErrors>41999,42016,42017,42018,42019,42020,42021,42022,42032,42036</WarningsAsErrors> </PropertyGroup> To this in VS2010: <PropertyGroup Condition=" '$(Configuration)|$(Platform)' == 'Debug|AnyCPU' "> <DebugSymbols>true</DebugSymbols> <DebugType>full</DebugType> <DefineDebug>true</DefineDebug> <DefineTrace>true</DefineTrace> <OutputPath>bin\Debug\</OutputPath> <DocumentationFile>CustomerManager.xml</DocumentationFile> <NoWarn>42353,42354,42355</NoWarn> <WarningsAsErrors>41999,42016,42017,42018,42019,42020,42021,42022,42032,42036</WarningsAsErrors> </PropertyGroup> The main difference, is that in the VS2010 version, the 42353,42354,42355 value has been added; Inside the IDE, this manifests itself as the following setting in the Project Properties | Compile section as: "Function returning intrinsic value type without return value" = None This isn't a problem when building code inside Visual Studio 2010, but when trying to build the code through our continuous integration scripts, it fails with the following errors: [msbuild] vbc : Command line error BC2026: warning number '42353' for the option 'nowarn' is either not configurable or not valid [msbuild] vbc : Command line error BC2026: warning number '42354' for the option 'nowarn' is either not configurable or not valid [msbuild] vbc : Command line error BC2026: warning number '42355' for the option 'nowarn' is either not configurable or not valid I couldn't find anything on Google for these messages, which is strange, as I am trying to find out why this is happening. Any suggestions as to why Visual Studio 2010's conversion wizard is doing this?

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  • How do I diagnose "Microsoft .NET ClickOnce Launch Utility has stopped working"?

    - by Xaero
    Hello StackOverflow! We deploy our application using ClickOnce, installed from a file path. For 24 versions it has been working perfectly - now, on version 25 I get the following error once the application has installed and it launches: If I test a previous deployment on the same machine, it works. Where can I even begin to look to find the cause of this error? I already checked the windows event logs - nothing. EDIT: I noticed that while the dialog is displayed, a temporary xml file 'WER561D.tmp.WERInternalMetadata.xml' is generated in my temp folder. Here is the contents (it might contain clues helpful to those more knowledgeable in this area than I): <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-16"?> <WERReportMetadata> <OSVersionInformation> <WindowsNTVersion>6.1</WindowsNTVersion> <Build>7600 </Build> <Product>(0x4): Windows 7 Enterprise</Product> <Edition>Enterprise</Edition> <BuildString>7600.16385.x86fre.win7_rtm.090713-1255</BuildString> <Revision>1</Revision> <Flavor>Multiprocessor Free</Flavor> <Architecture>X86</Architecture> <LCID>1033</LCID> </OSVersionInformation> <ProblemSignatures> <EventType>CLR20r3</EventType> <Parameter0>applaunch.exe</Parameter0> <Parameter1>2.0.50727.4927</Parameter1> <Parameter2>4a275abe</Parameter2> <Parameter3>mscorlib</Parameter3> <Parameter4>2.0.0.0</Parameter4> <Parameter5>4a275af7</Parameter5> <Parameter6>4f3</Parameter6> <Parameter7>0</Parameter7> <Parameter8>System.Security.Security</Parameter8> </ProblemSignatures> <DynamicSignatures> <Parameter1>6.1.7600.2.0.0.256.4</Parameter1> <Parameter2>1033</Parameter2> </DynamicSignatures> <SystemInformation> -- removed for privacy reasons -- </SystemInformation> </WERReportMetadata> Another key point is that I am publishing via Visual Studio, there is no manual manifest editing going on.

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  • Playing an InputStream video in Blackberry JDE.

    - by Jenny
    I think I'm using InputStream incorrectly with a Blackberry 9000 simulator: I found some sample code, http://www.blackberry.com/knowledgecenterpublic/livelink.exe/fetch/2000/348583/800332/1089414/How%5FTo%5F-%5FPlay%5Fvideo%5Fwithin%5Fa%5FBlackBerry%5Fsmartphone%5Fapplication.html?nodeid=1383173&vernum=0 that lets you play video from within a Blackberry App. The code claims it can handle HTTP, but it's taken some fandangling to get it to actually approach doing so: http://pastie.org/609491 Specifically, I'm doing: StreamConnection s = null; s = (StreamConnection)Connector.open("http://10.252.9.15/eggs.3gp"); HttpConnection c = (HttpConnection)s; InputStream i = c.openInputStream(); System.out.println("~~~~~I have a connection?~~~~~~" + c); System.out.println("~~~~~I have a URL?~~~~" + c.getURL()); System.out.println("~~~~~I have a type?~~~~" + c.getType()); System.out.println("~~~~~I have a status?~~~~~~" + c.getResponseCode()); System.out.println("~~~~~I have a stream?~~~~~~" + i); player = Manager.createPlayer(i, c.getType()); I've found that this is the only way I can get an InputStream from an HTTPConnection without causing a: "JUM Error 104: Uncaught NullPointer Exception". (That is, the casting as a StreamConnection, and THEN as an HttpConnection stops it from crashing). However, I'm still not streaming video. Before, a stream wasn't able to be created (it would crash with the null pointer exception). Now, a stream is being made, the debugger claims it's begining to stream video from it...and nothing happens. No video plays. The app doesn't freeze, or crash or anything. I can 'pause' and 'play' freely, and get appropriate debug messages for both. But no video shows up. If I'm playing a video stored locally on the blackberry, everything is fine (it actually plays the video), so I know the Player itself is working fine, I"m just wondering if maybe I have something wrong with my stream? The API says the player can take in an InputStream. Is there a specific kind it needs? How can I query my inputstream to know if it's valid? It existing is further than I've gotten before. -Jenny Edit: I'm on a Blackberry Bold simulator (9000). I've heard that some versions of phones do NOT stream video via HTTP, however, the Bold does. I have yet to see examples of this though. When I go to the internet and point at a blackberry playable video, it attempts to stream, and then asks me to physically download the file (and then plays fine once I download). Edit: Also, I have a physical blackberry Bold, as well, but it can't stream either (I've gone to m.youtube.com, only to get a server/content not found error). Is there something special I need to do to stream RTSP content?

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  • Java ReentrantReadWriteLocks - how to safely acquire write lock?

    - by Andrzej Doyle
    I am using in my code at the moment a ReentrantReadWriteLock to synchronize access over a tree-like structure. This structure is large, and read by many threads at once with occasional modifications to small parts of it - so it seems to fit the read-write idiom well. I understand that with this particular class, one cannot elevate a read lock to a write lock, so as per the Javadocs one must release the read lock before obtaining the write lock. I've used this pattern successfully in non-reentrant contexts before. What I'm finding however is that I cannot reliably acquire the write lock without blocking forever. Since the read lock is reentrant and I am actually using it as such, the simple code lock.getReadLock().unlock(); lock.getWriteLock().lock() can block if I have acquired the readlock reentrantly. Each call to unlock just reduces the hold count, and the lock is only actually released when the hold count hits zero. EDIT to clarify this, as I don't think I explained it too well initially - I am aware that there is no built-in lock escalation in this class, and that I have to simply release the read lock and obtain the write lock. My problem is/was that regardless of what other threads are doing, calling getReadLock().unlock() may not actually release this thread's hold on the lock if it acquired it reentrantly, in which case the call to getWriteLock().lock() will block forever as this thread still has a hold on the read lock and thus blocks itself. For example, this code snippet will never reach the println statement, even when run singlethreaded with no other threads accessing the lock: final ReadWriteLock lock = new ReentrantReadWriteLock(); lock.getReadLock().lock(); // In real code we would go call other methods that end up calling back and // thus locking again lock.getReadLock().lock(); // Now we do some stuff and realise we need to write so try to escalate the // lock as per the Javadocs and the above description lock.getReadLock().unlock(); // Does not actually release the lock lock.getWriteLock().lock(); // Blocks as some thread (this one!) holds read lock System.out.println("Will never get here"); So I ask, is there a nice idiom to handle this situation? Specifically, when a thread that holds a read lock (possibly reentrantly) discovers that it needs to do some writing, and thus wants to "suspend" its own read lock in order to pick up the write lock (blocking as required on other threads to release their holds on the read lock), and then "pick up" its hold on the read lock in the same state afterwards? Since this ReadWriteLock implementation was specifically designed to be reentrant, surely there is some sensible way to elevate a read lock to a write lock when the locks may be acquired reentrantly? This is the critical part that means the naive approach does not work.

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  • Fluid CSS: floating column with max-width and overflow

    - by Ates Goral
    I'm using a fluid layout in the new theme that I'm working on for my blog. I often blog about code and include <pre> blocks within the posts. The float: left column for the content area has a max-width so that the column stops at a certain maximum width and can also be shrunk: +----------+ +------+ | text | | text | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | +----------+ +------+ max shrunk What I want is for the <pre> elements to be wider than the text column so that I can fit 80-character-wrapped code without horizontal scroll bars. But I want the <pre> elements to overflow from the content area, without affecting its fluidity: +----------+ +------+ | text | | text | | | | | +----------+--+ +------+------+ | code | | code | +----------+--+ +------+------+ | | | | +----------+ +------+ max shrunk But, max-width stops being fluid once I insert the overhanging <pre> in there: the width of the column remains at the specified max-width even when I shrink the browser beyond that width. I've reproduced the issue with this bare-minimum scenario: <div style="float: left; max-width: 460px; border: 1px solid red"> <p>Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipisicing elit</p> <pre style="max-width: 700px; border: 1px solid blue"> function foo() { // Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipisicing elit } </pre> <p>Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipisicing elit</p> </div> I noticed that doing either of the following brings back the fluidity: Remove the <pre> (doh...) Remove the float: left The workaround I'm currently using is to insert the <pre> elements into "breaks" in the post column, so that the widths of the post segments and the <pre> segments are managed mutually exclusively: +----------+ +------+ | text | | text | +----------+ +------+ +-------------+ +-------------+ | code | | code | +-------------+ +-------------+ +----------+ +------+ +----------+ +------+ max shrunk But this forces me to insert additional closing and opening <div> elements into the post markup which I'd rather keep semantically pristine. Admittedly, I don't have a full grasp of how the box model works with floats with overflowing content, so I don't understand why the combination of float: left on the container and the <pre> inside it cripple the max-width of the container. I'm observing the same problem on Firefox/Chrome/Safari/Opera. IE6 (the crazy one) seems happy all the time. This also doesn't seem dependent on quirks/standards mode. Update I've done further testing to observe that max-width seems to get ignored when the element has a float: left. I glanced at the W3C box model chapter but couldn't immediately see an explicit mention of this behaviour. Any pointers?

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  • m2eclipse: Eclipse is running in a JRE, but a JDK is required

    - by GernoK
    Hello, I have a problem with m2eclipse (0.10.0) together with eclipse galileo (Build id: 20090920-1017). I always get the error message:"Eclipse is running in a JRE, but a JDK is required". I have tried several things, but nothing works. The error message is still there. Here are the things I have tried: In WindowPreferencesJavaInstalled JREs I checked JDK1.6.0_20. DOES NOT WORK In WindowPreferencesJavaInstalled JREs I removed all JREs. Only the checked JDK1.6.0_20 is still there. DOES NOT WORK In WindowPreferencesJavaInstalled JREsExecution Environments I choosed JavaSE-1.6 and checked JDK1.6.0_20[perfect match]. DOES NOT WORK. In Preferences of the eclipse desktop start icon I added the -vm parameter (C:\Programme\eclipse_galileo\eclipse\eclipse.exe -vm C:\Programme\Java\jdk1.6.0_20\bin). DOES NOT WORK. I added the clean parameter (C:\Programme\eclipse_galileo\eclipse\eclipse.exe -vm C:\Programme\Java\jdk1.6.0_20\bin -clean). DOES NOT WORK. I added the -vm parameter to the eclipse.ini file with a carriage return after -vm and C:/Programme/Java/jdk1.6.0_20/bin/javaw.exe in a new line. DOES NOT WORK. After doing all these things I removed the m2eclipse plugin and installed it once again. DOES NOT WORK. New ideas I have tried: In Preferences of the eclipse desktop start icon I put the executable at the end (C:\Programme\eclipse_galileo\eclipse\eclipse.exe -vm C:\Programme\Java\jdk1.6.0_20\bin\javaw.exe). DOES NOT WORK. I changed in eclipse.ini the slashes to backslashes. DOES NOT WORK. Here is my eclipse.ini file: -startup plugins/org.eclipse.equinox.launcher_1.0.201.R35x_v20090715.jar --launcher.library plugins/org.eclipse.equinox.launcher.win32.win32.x86_1.0.200.v20090519 -product org.eclipse.epp.package.jee.product --launcher.XXMaxPermSize 256M -showsplash org.eclipse.platform --launcher.XXMaxPermSize 256m -vm C:\Programme\Java\jdk1.6.0_20\bin\javaw.exe -vmargs -Dosgi.requiredJavaVersion=1.5 -Xms40m -Xmx512m Is anyone out there who have other ideas? Any help is appreciated. Thank You very much. GernoK

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  • Can I force JAXB not to convert " into &quot;, for example, when marshalling to XML?

    - by Elliot
    I have an Object that is being marshalled to XML using JAXB. One element contains a String that includes quotes ("). The resulting XML has &quot; where the " existed. Even though this is normally preferred, I need my output to match a legacy system. How do I force JAXB to NOT convert the HTML entities? -- Thank you for the replies. However, I never see the handler escape() called. Can you take a look and see what I'm doing wrong? Thanks! package org.dc.model; import java.io.IOException; import java.io.Writer; import javax.xml.bind.JAXBContext; import javax.xml.bind.JAXBException; import javax.xml.bind.Marshaller; import org.dc.generated.Shiporder; import com.sun.xml.internal.bind.marshaller.CharacterEscapeHandler; public class PleaseWork { public void prettyPlease() throws JAXBException { Shiporder shipOrder = new Shiporder(); shipOrder.setOrderid("Order's ID"); shipOrder.setOrderperson("The woman said, \"How ya doin & stuff?\""); JAXBContext context = JAXBContext.newInstance("org.dc.generated"); Marshaller marshaller = context.createMarshaller(); marshaller.setProperty(Marshaller.JAXB_FORMATTED_OUTPUT, Boolean.TRUE); marshaller.setProperty(CharacterEscapeHandler.class.getName(), new CharacterEscapeHandler() { @Override public void escape(char[] ch, int start, int length, boolean isAttVal, Writer out) throws IOException { out.write("Called escape for characters = " + ch.toString()); } }); marshaller.marshal(shipOrder, System.out); } public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { new PleaseWork().prettyPlease(); } } -- The output is this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="yes"?> <shiporder orderid="Order's ID"> <orderperson>The woman said, &quot;How ya doin &amp; stuff?&quot;</orderperson> </shiporder> and as you can see, the callback is never displayed. (Once I get the callback being called, I'll worry about having it actually do what I want.) --

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  • UITableView with background UIImageView hides table controls

    - by Khanzor
    I am having a problem setting the background of UITableView to a UIImageView (see below for why I am doing this), once the view is set, it works fine, and scrolls with the UITableView, but it hides the elements of the Table View. I need to have a UIImageView as the background for a UITableView. I know this has been answered before, but the answers are to use: [UIColor colorWithPatternImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"myImage.png"]]; Or something like (which I need to use): UIImageView *background = [MainWindow generateBackgroundWithFrame:tableView.bounds]; [tableView addSubview:background]; [tableView sendSubviewToBack:background]; The reason I need to use the latter is because of my generateBackgroundWithFrame method, which takes a large image, and draws a border around that image to the dimensions specified, and clips the remainder of the image: + (UIImageView *) generateBackgroundWithFrame: (CGRect)frame { UIImageView *background = [[[UIImageView alloc] initWithFrame:frame] autorelease]; background.image = [UIImage imageNamed:@"globalBackground.png"]; [background.layer setMasksToBounds:YES]; [background.layer setCornerRadius:10.0]; [background.layer setBorderColor:[[UIColor grayColor] CGColor]]; [background.layer setBorderWidth:3.0]; return background; } Please note: I understand that this might poorly effect performance, but I don't have the resources to go through and make those images for each potential screen in the app. Please do not answer this question with a mindless "you shouldn't do this" response. I am aware that it is possibly the wrong thing to do. How do I show my UITableView control elements? Is there something that I am doing wrong in my delegate? Here is a simplified version: - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(20, 20, 261, 45) reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; cell.accessoryType = UITableViewCellAccessoryDetailDisclosureButton; UIImage *rowBackground; NSString *imageName = @"standAloneTVButton.png"; rowBackground = [UIImage imageNamed:imageName]; UITextView *textView = [[UITextView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0, 5, 300, 200)]; textView.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; textView.textColor = [UIColor blackColor]; textView.font = [UIFont fontWithName:@"Helvetica" size:18.0f]; Purchase *purchase = [[PurchaseModel productsPurchased] objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; textView.text = [purchase Title]; selectedTextView.text = textView.text; UIImageView *normalBackground = [[[UIImageView alloc] init] autorelease]; normalBackground.image = rowBackground; [normalBackground insertSubview:textView atIndex:0]; cell.backgroundView = normalBackground; [textView release]; } return cell; }

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  • sqlite3-ruby can't make on rvm 1.8.7

    - by Josh Crews
    Upgrading to Rails 3 by starting with RVM 1.8.7. OSX 10.5.8 Output: josh-crewss-macbook:~ joshcrews$ gem install sqlite3-rubyBuilding native extensions. This could take a while...ERROR: Error installing sqlite3-ruby: ERROR: Failed to build gem native extension. /Users/joshcrews/.rvm/rubies/ruby-1.8.7-p174/bin/ruby extconf.rb checking for sqlite3.h... yes checking for sqlite3_libversion_number() in -lsqlite3... yes checking for rb_proc_arity()... no checking for sqlite3_column_database_name()... no checking for sqlite3_enable_load_extension()... no checking for sqlite3_load_extension()... no creating Makefile make gcc -I. -I. -I/Users/joshcrews/.rvm/rubies/ruby-1.8.7-p174/lib/ruby/1.8/i686-darwin9.8.0 -I. -I/usr/local/include -I/opt/local/include -I/usr/include -D_XOPEN_SOURCE -D_DARWIN_C_SOURCE -fno-common -g -O2 -fno-common -pipe -fno-common -O3 -Wall -Wcast-qual -Wwrite-strings -Wconversion -Wmissing-noreturn -Winline -c database.c database.c: In function ‘deallocate’: database.c:17: warning: implicit declaration of function ‘sqlite3_next_stmt’ database.c:17: warning: assignment makes pointer from integer without a cast database.c: In function ‘initialize’: database.c:76: warning: implicit declaration of function ‘sqlite3_open_v2’ database.c:79: error: ‘SQLITE_OPEN_READWRITE’ undeclared (first use in this function) database.c:79: error: (Each undeclared identifier is reported only once database.c:79: error: for each function it appears in.) database.c:79: error: ‘SQLITE_OPEN_CREATE’ undeclared (first use in this function) database.c: In function ‘set_sqlite3_func_result’: database.c:277: error: ‘sqlite3_int64’ undeclared (first use in this function) database.c: In function ‘rb_sqlite3_func’: database.c:311: warning: passing argument 1 of ‘ruby_xcalloc’ as signed due to prototype database.c: In function ‘rb_sqlite3_step’: database.c:378: warning: passing argument 1 of ‘ruby_xcalloc’ as signed due to prototype make: *** [database.o] Error 1 Gem list (these are under RVM, under system I've got lot more gems included the sqlite3-ruby that's worked for 1.5 years) josh-crewss-macbook:~ joshcrews$ gem list *** LOCAL GEMS *** abstract (1.0.0) actionmailer (3.0.0.beta3) actionpack (3.0.0.beta3) activemodel (3.0.0.beta3) activerecord (3.0.0.beta3) activeresource (3.0.0.beta3) activesupport (3.0.0.beta3, 2.3.8) arel (0.3.3) builder (2.1.2) bundler (0.9.25) capybara (0.3.8) configuration (1.1.0) cucumber (0.7.2) cucumber-rails (0.3.1) culerity (0.2.10) database_cleaner (0.5.2) diff-lcs (1.1.2) erubis (2.6.5) ffi (0.6.3) gherkin (1.0.30) i18n (0.4.0, 0.3.7) json_pure (1.4.3) launchy (0.3.5) mail (2.2.1) memcache-client (1.8.3) mime-types (1.16) nokogiri (1.4.2) polyglot (0.3.1) rack (1.1.0) rack-mount (0.6.3) rack-test (0.5.4) rails (3.0.0.beta3) railties (3.0.0.beta3) rake (0.8.7) rdoc (2.5.8) rspec (2.0.0.beta.10, 2.0.0.beta.8) rspec-core (2.0.0.beta.10, 2.0.0.beta.8) rspec-expectations (2.0.0.beta.10, 2.0.0.beta.8) rspec-mocks (2.0.0.beta.10, 2.0.0.beta.8) rspec-rails (2.0.0.beta.10, 2.0.0.beta.8) rubygems-update (1.3.7) selenium-webdriver (0.0.20) spork (0.8.3) term-ansicolor (1.0.5) text-format (1.0.0) text-hyphen (1.0.0) thor (0.13.6) treetop (1.4.8) trollop (1.16.2) tzinfo (0.3.22) webrat (0.7.1) Version of XCode: 3.1.1 My suspicion is it has to do with "-I/Users/joshcrews/.rvm/rubies/ruby-1.8.7-p174/lib/ruby/1.8/i686-darwin9.8.0", because i686-darwin9.8.0 doesnt exist in that file

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  • RuntimeBinderException with dynamic in C# 4.0

    - by Terence Lewis
    I have an interface: public abstract class Authorizer<T> where T : RequiresAuthorization { public AuthorizationStatus Authorize(T record) { // Perform authorization specific stuff // and then hand off to an abstract method to handle T-specific stuff // that should happen when authorization is successful } } Then, I have a bunch of different classes which all implement RequiresAuthorization, and correspondingly, an Authorizer<T> for each of them (each business object in my domain requires different logic to execute once the record has been authorized). I'm also using a UnityContainer, in which I register various Authorizer<T>'s. I then have some code as follows to find the right record out of the database and authorize it: void Authorize(RequiresAuthorization item) { var dbItem = ChildContainer.Resolve<IAuthorizationRepository>() .RetrieveRequiresAuthorizationById(item.Id); var authorizerType = type.GetType(String.Format("Foo.Authorizer`1[[{0}]], Foo", dbItem.GetType().AssemblyQualifiedName)); dynamic authorizer = ChildContainer.Resolve(type) as dynamic; authorizer.Authorize(dbItem); } Basically, I'm using the Id on the object to retrieve it out of the database. In the background NHibernate takes care of figuring out what type of RequiresAuthorization it is. I then want to find the right Authorizer for it (I don't know at compile time what implementation of Authorizer<T> I need, so I've got a little bit of reflection to get the fully qualified type). To accomplish this, I use the non-generic overload of UnityContainer's Resolve method to look up the correct authorizer from configuration. Finally, I want to call Authorize on the authorizer, passing through the object I've gotten back from NHibernate. Now, for the problem: In Beta2 of VS2010 the above code works perfectly. On RC and RTM, as soon as I make the Authorize() call, I get a RuntimeBinderException saying "The best overloaded method match for 'Foo.Authorizer<Bar>.Authorize(Bar)' has some invalid arguments". When I inspect the authorizer in the debugger, it's the correct type. When I call GetType().GetMethods() on it, I can see the Authorize method which takes a Bar. If I do GetType() on dbItem it is a Bar. Because this worked in Beta2 and not in RC, I assumed it was a regression (it seems like it should work) and I delayed sorting it out until after I'd had a chance to test it on the RTM version of C# 4.0. Now I've done that and the problem still persists. Does anybody have any suggestions to make this work? Thanks Terence

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  • Javascript Noob: How to emulate slideshow on front page by automatically cycling through existing ho

    - by Zildjoms
    hey everyone. hope you could help me out am working on this website and i've finished all the hover effects i like - they're exactly how i want them to be: http://s5ent.brinkster.net/beta3.asp - try hovering over the four links and you'll see a very simple fade effect at work, which degrades into a regular css hover without javascript. what i plan to do is to make the page look like it had a fancy slideshow going on upon loading and while idle, and i wanted to achieve that by capitalizing on the existing hover styling/behavior of the main page links instead of using another script to create the effect from scratch. to do this i imagined i'll need a script that emulates a hover action on each link at regular time intervals once the page has loaded, starting from left to right (footcare, lawn & equipment, about us, contact us), looping through all 4 links indefinitely (footcare, lawn & equipment, about us, contact us, footcare, lawn& equipment, etc.) but pauses when any of them have been actually hovered over by a viewer and resumes from wherever the user left off upon mouseout. hope you get my drift... i also want to achieve this without unnecessarily disrupting the current html. so i guess everything will have to be done by scripting as much as possible.. i'm very new to javascript and jquery. as you can see at s5ent.brinkster.net/beta3.1-autohover.asp, the following script i made works wrong: it hovers-on all of them at the same time and doesn't hover-out anymore. when you try to actually hover into and out of each link the link just comes back on: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { var speed = 5000; var run = setInterval('rotate()', speed); }); function rotate() { $('.lilevel1 a').each(function(i) { $(this).mouseover(); }); } </script> it's just gross. aside from the fact that this last bit of script isn't even working in ie. could you please help me make this thing happen? that'd be really sweet, guys. i know there are tonsa geniuses out there who could whip this up in no time. or if you have a better way to go about it by all means kindly lemme know. thanks guys, hope you're all havin a blast.

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  • fresh_when in ruby not working with xml rendering

    - by Guilherme Silveira
    While trying to implement support for conditional GETting in a rest system, we have come across the fresh_when and stale? methods. The following code works fine with 304 and not further rendering: if stale?(:etag = resource, :last_modified = resource.updated_at.utc) respond_to do |format| format.html # show.html.erb } end end But accessing 1.xml will try to render the resource twice: if stale?(:etag => resource, :last_modified => resource.updated_at.utc) respond_to do |format| format.html # show.html.erb format.xml { render :xml => @order.to_xml(:controller => self, :except => [:paid_at]) } end end The error message: ActionController::DoubleRenderError in OrdersController#show Can only render or redirect once per action RAILS_ROOT: /Users/guilherme/Documents/ruby/restfulie-test Application Trace | Framework Trace | Full Trace /Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/actionpack-2.3.4/lib/action_controller/base.rb:900:in render_without_benchmark' /Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/actionpack-2.3.4/lib/action_controller/benchmarking.rb:51:in render' /Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.4/lib/active_support/core_ext/benchmark.rb:17:in ms' /Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.4/lib/active_support/core_ext/benchmark.rb:10:in realtime' /Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.4/lib/active_support/core_ext/benchmark.rb:17:in ms' /Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/actionpack-2.3.4/lib/action_controller/benchmarking.rb:51:in render' /Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/actionpack-2.3.4/lib/action_controller/base.rb:1331:in send' /Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/actionpack-2.3.4/lib/action_controller/base.rb:1331:in perform_action_without_filters' /Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/actionpack-2.3.4/lib/action_controller/filters.rb:617:in call_filters' /Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/actionpack-2.3.4/lib/action_controller/filters.rb:610:in perform_action_without_benchmark' /Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/actionpack-2.3.4/lib/action_controller/benchmarking.rb:68:in perform_action_without_rescue' /Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.4/lib/active_support/core_ext/benchmark.rb:17:in ms' /Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.4/lib/active_support/core_ext/benchmark.rb:10:in realtime' /Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.4/lib/active_support/core_ext/benchmark.rb:17:in ms' /Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/actionpack-2.3.4/lib/action_controller/benchmarking.rb:68:in perform_action_without_rescue' /Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/actionpack-2.3.4/lib/action_controller/rescue.rb:160:in perform_action_without_flash' /Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/actionpack-2.3.4/lib/action_controller/flash.rb:146:in perform_action' /Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/actionpack-2.3.4/lib/action_controller/base.rb:532:in send' /Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/actionpack-2.3.4/lib/action_controller/base.rb:532:in process_without_filters' /Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/actionpack-2.3.4/lib/action_controller/filters.rb:606:in process' /Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/actionpack-2.3.4/lib/action_controller/base.rb:391:in process' /Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/actionpack-2.3.4/lib/action_controller/base.rb:386:in call' /Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/actionpack-2.3.4/lib/action_controller/routing/route_set.rb:437:in `call' Any suggestions? Regards

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  • Salesforce/PHP - Bulk Outbound message (SOAP), Time out issue

    - by Phill Pafford
    Salesforce can send up to 100 requests inside 1 SOAP message. While sending this type of Bulk Ooutbound message request my PHP script finishes executing but SF fails to accept the ACK used to clear the message queue on the Salesforce side of things. Looking at the Outbound message log (monitoring) I see all the messages in a pending state with the Delivery Failure Reason "java.net.SocketTimeoutException: Read timed out". If my script has finished execution, why do I get this error? I have tried these methods to increase the execution time on my server as I have no access on the Salesforce side: set_time_limit(0); // in the script max_execution_time = 360 ; Maximum execution time of each script, in seconds max_input_time = 360 ; Maximum amount of time each script may spend parsing request data memory_limit = 32M ; Maximum amount of memory a script may consume I used the high settings just for testing. Any thoughts as to why this is failing the ACK delivery back to Salesforce? Here is some of the code: This is how I accept and send the ACK file for the imcoming SOAP request $data = 'php://input'; $content = file_get_contents($data); if($content) { respond('true'); } else { respond('false'); } The respond function function respond($tf) { $ACK = <<<ACK <?xml version = "1.0" encoding = "utf-8"?> <soapenv:Envelope xmlns:soapenv="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"> <soapenv:Body> <notifications xmlns="http://soap.sforce.com/2005/09/outbound"> <Ack>$tf</Ack> </notifications> </soapenv:Body> </soapenv:Envelope> ACK; print trim($ACK); } These are in a generic script that I include into the script that uses the data for a specific workflow. I can process about 25 requests (That are in 1 SOAP response) but once I go over that I get the timeout error in the Salesforce queue. for 50 requests is usually takes my PHP script 86.77 seconds. Could it be Apache? PHP? I have also tested just accepting the 100 request SOAP response and just accepting and sending the ACK the queue clears out, so I know it's on my side of things. I show no errors in the apache log, the script runs fine. Thanks for any insight into this, --Phill

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  • How to select one object from a NSArray?

    - by 0SX
    First of all Merry Christmas to everyone!!! Currently I have a NSArray that has parsed content in it. When I do a NSLog of the array it prints out 20 objects with the parsed content that I needed. Like so: 2010-12-24 20:27:32.170 TestProject[48914:298] SomeContent 2010-12-24 20:27:32.172 TestProject[48914:298] SomeContent1 2010-12-24 20:27:32.172 TestProject[48914:298] SomeContent2 2010-12-24 20:27:32.173 TestProject[48914:298] SomeContent3 2010-12-24 20:27:32.173 TestProject[48914:298] SomeContent4 2010-12-24 20:27:32.173 TestProject[48914:298] SomeContent5 2010-12-24 20:27:32.174 TestProject[48914:298] SomeContent6 2010-12-24 20:27:32.175 TestProject[48914:298] SomeContent7 2010-12-24 20:27:32.176 TestProject[48914:298] SomeContent8 2010-12-24 20:27:32.176 TestProject[48914:298] SomeContent9 2010-12-24 20:27:32.177 TestProject[48914:298] SomeContent10 2010-12-24 20:27:32.177 TestProject[48914:298] SomeContent11 2010-12-24 20:27:32.177 TestProject[48914:298] SomeContent12 2010-12-24 20:27:32.179 TestProject[48914:298] SomeContent13 2010-12-24 20:27:32.179 TestProject[48914:298] SomeContent14 2010-12-24 20:27:32.180 TestProject[48914:298] SomeContent15 2010-12-24 20:27:32.180 TestProject[48914:298] SomeContent16 2010-12-24 20:27:32.181 TestProject[48914:298] SomeContent17 2010-12-24 20:27:32.181 TestProject[48914:298] SomeContent18 2010-12-24 20:27:32.190 TestProject[48914:298] SomeContent19 However, I don't need every object at once. I need to be able to pick out one object at a time so I can put each object into a string of it's own. If anyone knows a easier way to do this then what I'm trying to please let me know. Anyways, I need to be able to choose just one object depending on what object I need. For example, let's say I only need object #5 and not all the array, how can this be done so I can put it into a string? I'm thinking I might have to use the index feature but I'm not sure how to set it up properly. Here is my NSArray that I'm working with: NSArray* myArray = [document selectElements: @"div.someContent"]; NSMutableArray* results = [NSMutableArray array]; for (Element* element in myArray){ NSString* snipet = [element contentsSource]; [results addObject: snipet]; NSLog(@"%@", snipet); } NSLog(@"%i",myArray.count); I've already spent several hours trying to achieve this but my knowledge with array's is limited even with me reading the documentation. :-( Any help is much appreciated. Thanks

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  • getting rid of filesort on WordPress MySQL query

    - by Hans
    An instance of WordPress that I manage goes down about once a day due to this monster MySQL query taking far too long: SELECT SQL_CALC_FOUND_ROWS distinct wp_posts.* FROM wp_posts LEFT JOIN wp_term_relationships ON (wp_posts.ID = wp_term_relationships.object_id) LEFT JOIN wp_term_taxonomy ON wp_term_taxonomy.term_taxonomy_id = wp_term_relationships.term_taxonomy_id LEFT JOIN wp_ec3_schedule ec3_sch ON ec3_sch.post_id=id WHERE 1=1 AND wp_posts.ID NOT IN ( SELECT tr.object_id FROM wp_term_relationships AS tr INNER JOIN wp_term_taxonomy AS tt ON tr.term_taxonomy_id = tt.term_taxonomy_id WHERE tt.taxonomy = 'category' AND tt.term_id IN ('1050') ) AND wp_posts.post_type = 'post' AND (wp_posts.post_status = 'publish') AND NOT EXISTS (SELECT * FROM wp_term_relationships JOIN wp_term_taxonomy ON wp_term_taxonomy.term_taxonomy_id = wp_term_relationships.term_taxonomy_id WHERE wp_term_relationships.object_id = wp_posts.ID AND wp_term_taxonomy.taxonomy = 'category' AND wp_term_taxonomy.term_id IN (533,3567) ) AND ec3_sch.post_id IS NULL GROUP BY wp_posts.ID ORDER BY wp_posts.post_date DESC LIMIT 0, 10; What do I have to do to get rid of the very slow filesort? I would think that the multicolumn type_status_date index would be fast enough. The EXPLAIN EXTENDED output is below. +----+--------------------+-----------------------+--------+-----------------------------------+------------------+---------+---------------------------------------------------------------------------------+------+----------------------------------------------+ | id | select_type | table | type | possible_keys | key | key_len | ref | rows | Extra | +----+--------------------+-----------------------+--------+-----------------------------------+------------------+---------+---------------------------------------------------------------------------------+------+----------------------------------------------+ | 1 | PRIMARY | wp_posts | ref | type_status_date | type_status_date | 124 | const,const | 7034 | Using where; Using temporary; Using filesort | | 1 | PRIMARY | wp_term_relationships | ref | PRIMARY | PRIMARY | 8 | bwog_wordpress_w.wp_posts.ID | 373 | Using index | | 1 | PRIMARY | wp_term_taxonomy | eq_ref | PRIMARY | PRIMARY | 8 | bwog_wordpress_w.wp_term_relationships.term_taxonomy_id | 1 | Using index | | 1 | PRIMARY | ec3_sch | ref | post_id_index | post_id_index | 9 | bwog_wordpress_w.wp_posts.ID | 1 | Using where; Using index | | 3 | DEPENDENT SUBQUERY | wp_term_taxonomy | range | PRIMARY,term_id_taxonomy,taxonomy | term_id_taxonomy | 106 | NULL | 2 | Using where | | 3 | DEPENDENT SUBQUERY | wp_term_relationships | eq_ref | PRIMARY,term_taxonomy_id | PRIMARY | 16 | bwog_wordpress_w.wp_posts.ID,bwog_wordpress_w.wp_term_taxonomy.term_taxonomy_id | 1 | Using index | | 2 | DEPENDENT SUBQUERY | tt | const | PRIMARY,term_id_taxonomy,taxonomy | term_id_taxonomy | 106 | const,const | 1 | | | 2 | DEPENDENT SUBQUERY | tr | eq_ref | PRIMARY,term_taxonomy_id | PRIMARY | 16 | func,const | 1 | Using index | +----+--------------------+-----------------------+--------+-----------------------------------+------------------+---------+---------------------------------------------------------------------------------+------+----------------------------------------------+ 8 rows in set, 2 warnings (0.05 sec) And CREATE TABLE: CREATE TABLE `wp_posts` ( `ID` bigint(20) unsigned NOT NULL auto_increment, `post_author` bigint(20) unsigned NOT NULL default '0', `post_date` datetime NOT NULL default '0000-00-00 00:00:00', `post_date_gmt` datetime NOT NULL default '0000-00-00 00:00:00', `post_content` longtext NOT NULL, `post_title` text NOT NULL, `post_excerpt` text NOT NULL, `post_status` varchar(20) NOT NULL default 'publish', `comment_status` varchar(20) NOT NULL default 'open', `ping_status` varchar(20) NOT NULL default 'open', `post_password` varchar(20) NOT NULL default '', `post_name` varchar(200) NOT NULL default '', `to_ping` text NOT NULL, `pinged` text NOT NULL, `post_modified` datetime NOT NULL default '0000-00-00 00:00:00', `post_modified_gmt` datetime NOT NULL default '0000-00-00 00:00:00', `post_content_filtered` text NOT NULL, `post_parent` bigint(20) unsigned NOT NULL default '0', `guid` varchar(255) NOT NULL default '', `menu_order` int(11) NOT NULL default '0', `post_type` varchar(20) NOT NULL default 'post', `post_mime_type` varchar(100) NOT NULL default '', `comment_count` bigint(20) NOT NULL default '0', `robotsmeta` varchar(64) default NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`ID`), KEY `post_name` (`post_name`), KEY `type_status_date` (`post_type`,`post_status`,`post_date`,`ID`), KEY `post_parent` (`post_parent`), KEY `post_date` (`post_date`), FULLTEXT KEY `post_related` (`post_title`,`post_content`) )

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  • Insert a doctype into an XML document (Java/ SAX)

    - by Thom Nichols
    Imagine you have an XML document and imagine you have the DTD but the document itself doesn't actually specify a DOCTYPE ... How would you insert the DOCTYPE declaration, preferably by specifying it on the parser (similar to how you can set the schema for a document that will be parsed) or by inserting the necessary SAX events via an XMLFilter or the like? I've found many references to EntityResolver, but that is what's invoked once a DOCTYPE is found during parsing and it's used to point to a local DTD file. EntityResolver2 appears to have what I'm looking for but I haven't found any examples of usage. This is the closest I've come thus far: (code is Groovy, but close enough that you should be able to understand it...) import org.xml.sax.* import org.xml.sax.ext.* import org.xml.sax.helpers.* class XmlFilter extends XMLFilterImpl { public XmlFilter( XMLReader reader ) { super(reader) } @Override public void startDocument() { super.startDocument() super.resolveEntity( null, 'file:///./entity.dtd') println "filter startDocument" } } class MyHandler extends DefaultHandler2 { public InputSource resolveEntity(String name, String publicId, String baseURI, String systemId) { println "entity: $name, $publicId, $baseURI, $systemId" return new InputSource(new StringReader('<!ENTITY asdf "&#161;">')) } } def handler = new MyHandler() def parser = XMLReaderFactory.createXMLReader() parser.setFeature 'http://xml.org/sax/features/use-entity-resolver2', true def filter = new XmlFilter( parser ) filter.setContentHandler( handler ) filter.setEntityResolver( handler ) filter.parse( new InputSource(new StringReader('''<?xml version="1.0" ?> <test>one &asdf; two! &nbsp; &iexcl;&pound;&cent;</test>''')) ); I see resolveEntity called but still hit org.xml.sax.SAXParseException: The entity "asdf" was referenced, but not declared. at com.sun.org.apache.xerces.internal.parsers.AbstractSAXParser.parse(AbstractSAXParser.java:1231) at org.xml.sax.helpers.XMLFilterImpl.parse(XMLFilterImpl.java:333) I guess this is because there's no way to add SAX events that the parser knows about, I can only add events via a filter that's upstream from the parser which are passed along to the ContentHandler. So the document has to be valid going into the XMLReader. Any way around this? I know I can modify the raw stream to add a doctype or possibly do a transform to set a DTD... Any other options?

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  • Connection Error using NHibernate 3.0 with Oracle

    - by Olu Lawrence
    I'm new to NHibernate. My first attempt is to configure and establish connection to Oracle 11.1g using ODP. For this test, I use a test fixture, but I get the following error: Inner exception: "Object reference not set to an instance of an object." Outer exception: Could not create the driver from NHibernate.Driver.OracleDataClientDriver. The test script is shown below: using IBCService.Models; using NHibernate.Cfg; using NHibernate.Tool.hbm2ddl; using NUnit.Framework; namespace IBCService.Tests { [TestFixture] public class GenerateSchema_Fixture { [Test] public void Can_generate_schema() { var cfg = new Configuration(); cfg.Configure(); cfg.AddAssembly(typeof(Product).Assembly); var fac = new SchemaExport(cfg); fac.Execute(false, true, false); } } } The exception occurs at the last line: fac.Execute(false, true, false); The NHibernate config is shown: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <!-- This config use Oracle Data Provider (ODP.NET) --> <hibernate-configuration xmlns="urn:nhibernate-configuration-2.2" > <session-factory name="IBCService.Tests"> <property name="connection.driver_class"> NHibernate.Driver.OracleDataClientDriver </property> <property name="connection.connection_string"> User ID=TEST;Password=test;Data Source=//RAND23:1521/RAND.PREVALENT.COM </property> <property name="connection.provider"> NHibernate.Connection.DriverConnectionProvider </property> <property name="show_sql">false</property> <property name="dialect">NHibernate.Dialect.Oracle10gDialect</property> <property name="query.substitutions"> true 1, false 0, yes 'Y', no 'N' </property> <property name="proxyfactory.factory_class"> NHibernate.ByteCode.LinFu.ProxyFactoryFactory, NHibernate.ByteCode.LinFu </property> </session-factory> </hibernate-configuration> Now, if I change the NHibernate.Driver.OracleDataClientDriver to NHibernate.Driver.OracleClientDriver (Microsoft provider for Oracle), the test succeed. Once switched back to Oracle provider, whichever version, the test fails with the error stated earlier. I've spent 3 days already trying to figure out what is not in order without success. I hope someone out there could provide useful info on what I am doing wrong.

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  • Reliable way of generating unique hardware ID

    - by mr.b
    Question: what's the best way to accomplish following. I have to come up with unique ID for each networked client, such that: it (ID) should persist once client software is installed on target computer, and should continue to persist if software is re-installed on same computer and same OS installment, it should not change if hardware configuration is modified in most ways (except changing the motherboard) When hard drive with client software installed is cloned to another computer with identical hardware configuration (or, as similar as possible), client software should be aware of that change. A little bit of explanation and some back-story: This question is basically age old question that also touches topic of software copy-protection, as some of mechanisms used in that area are mentioned here. I should be clear at this point that I'm not looking for a copy-protection scheme. Please, read on. :) I'm working on a client-server software that is supposed to work in local network. One of problems I have to solve is to identify each unique client in network (not so much of a problem), so that I can apply certain attributes to every specific client, retain and enforce those attributes during deployment lifetime of a specific client. While I was looking for a solution, I was aware of following: Windows activation system uses some kind of heavy fingerprinting mechanism, that is extremely sensitive to hardware modifications, Disk imaging software copies along all Volume IDs (tied to each partition when formatted), and custom, uniquely generated IDs during installation process, during first run, or in any other way, that is strictly software in its nature, and stored in registry or on hard drive, so it's very easy to confuse two Obvious choice for this kind of problem would be to find out BIOS identifiers (not 100% sure if this is unique through identical motherboard models, though), as that's the only thing I can rely on, that isn't duplicated, transferred by cloning, and that can't be changed (at least not by using some user-space program). Everything else fails as either being not reliable (MAC cloning, anyone?), or too demanding (in terms that it's too sensitive to configuration changes). Am I missing something obvious here? Sub-question that I'd like to ask is, am I doing it correctly, architecture-wise? Perhaps there is a better tool for task that I have to accomplish... Another approach I had in mind is something similar to handshake mechanism, where server maintains internal lookup table of connected client IDs (which can be even completely software-based and non-unique at any given moment), and tells client to come up with different ID during handshake, if duplicate ID is provided upon connection. That approach, unfortunately, doesn't play nicely with one of requirements to tie attributes to specific client during lifetime.

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  • How to fix "could not find a base address that matches schema http"... in WCF

    - by Craig Shearer
    I'm trying to deploy a WCF service to my server, hosted in IIS. Naturally it works on my machine :) But when I deploy it, I get the following error: This collection already contains an address with scheme http. There can be at most one address per scheme in this collection. Googling on this, I find that I have to put a serviceHostingEnvironment element into the web.config file: <serviceHostingEnvironment> <baseAddressPrefixFilters> <add prefix="http://mywebsiteurl"/> </baseAddressPrefixFilters> </serviceHostingEnvironment> But once I have done this, I get the following: Could not find a base address that matches scheme http for the endpoint with binding BasicHttpBinding. Registered base address schemes are [https]. It seems it doesn't know what the base address is, but how do I specify it? Here's the relevant section of my web.config file: <system.serviceModel> <serviceHostingEnvironment> <baseAddressPrefixFilters> <add prefix="http://mywebsiteurl"/> </baseAddressPrefixFilters> </serviceHostingEnvironment> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="WcfPortalBehavior"> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="true"/> <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="true"/> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> <bindings> <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="BasicHttpBinding_IWcfPortal" maxBufferSize="2147483647" maxReceivedMessageSize="2147483647" receiveTimeout="00:10:00" sendTimeout="00:10:00" openTimeout="00:10:00" closeTimeout="00:10:00"> <readerQuotas maxBytesPerRead="2147483647" maxArrayLength="2147483647" maxStringContentLength="2147483647"/> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> </bindings> <services> <service behaviorConfiguration="WcfPortalBehavior" name="Csla.Server.Hosts.Silverlight.WcfPortal"> <endpoint address="" binding="basicHttpBinding" contract="Csla.Server.Hosts.Silverlight.IWcfPortal" bindingConfiguration="BasicHttpBinding_IWcfPortal"> </endpoint> <endpoint address="mex" binding="mexHttpBinding" contract="IMetadataExchange"/> </service> </services> </system.serviceModel> Can anybody shed some light on what's going on and how to fix it? Thanks! Craig

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  • Ho to stop scrolling in a Gallery Widget?

    - by Alexi
    I loaded some images into a gallery. Now I'm able to scroll but once started scrolling the scrolling won't stop. I would like the gallery to just scroll to the next image and then stop until the user does the scroll gesture again. this is my code import android.widget.ImageView; import android.widget.Toast; import android.widget.AdapterView.OnItemClickListener; public class GalleryExample extends Activity { private Gallery gallery; @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); gallery = (Gallery) findViewById(R.id.examplegallery); gallery.setAdapter(new AddImgAdp(this)); gallery.setOnItemClickListener(new OnItemClickListener() { public void onItemClick(AdapterView parent, View v, int position, long id) { Toast.makeText(GalleryExample.this, "Position=" + position, Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); } }); } public class AddImgAdp extends BaseAdapter { int GalItemBg; private Context cont; private Integer[] Imgid = { R.drawable.a_1, R.drawable.a_2, R.drawable.a_3, R.drawable.a_4, R.drawable.a_5, R.drawable.a_6, R.drawable.a_7 }; public AddImgAdp(Context c) { cont = c; TypedArray typArray = obtainStyledAttributes(R.styleable.GalleryTheme); GalItemBg = typArray.getResourceId(R.styleable.GalleryTheme_android_galleryItemBackground, 0); typArray.recycle(); } public int getCount() { return Imgid.length; } public Object getItem(int position) { return position; } public long getItemId(int position) { return position; } public View getView(int position, View convertView, ViewGroup parent) { ImageView imgView = new ImageView(cont); imgView.setImageResource(Imgid[position]); i.setScaleType(ImageView.ScaleType.FIT_CENTER); imgView.setBackgroundResource(GalItemBg); return imgView; } } } and the xmlLayout file <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <LinearLayout android:id="@+id/LinearLayout01" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" > <Gallery xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:id="@+id/examplegallery" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" /> </LinearLayout>

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  • jQueryMobile: how to work with slider events?

    - by balexandre
    I'm testing the slider events in jQueryMobile and I must been missing something. page code is: <div data-role="fieldcontain"> <label for="slider">Input slider:</label> <input type="range" name="slider" id="slider" value="0" min="0" max="100" /> </div> and if I do: $("#slider").data("events"); I get blur, focus, keyup, remove What I want to do is to get the value once user release the slider handle and having a hook to the keyup event as $("#slider").bind("keyup", function() { alert('here'); } ); does absolutely nothing :( I must say that I wrongly assumed that jQueryMobile used jQueryUI controls as it was my first thought, but now working deep in the events I can see this is not the case, only in terms of CSS Design. What can I do? jQuery Mobile Slider source code can be found on Git if it helps anyone as well a test page can be found at JSBin As I understand, the #slider is the textbox with the value, so I would need to hook into the slider handle as the generated code for this slider is: <div data-role="fieldcontain" class="ui-field-contain ui-body ui-br"> <label for="slider" class="ui-input-text ui-slider" id="slider-label">Input slider:</label> <input data-type="range" max="100" min="0" value="0" id="slider" name="slider" class="ui-input-text ui-body-null ui-corner-all ui-shadow-inset ui-body-c ui-slider-input" /> <div role="application" class="ui-slider ui-btn-down-c ui-btn-corner-all"> <a class="ui-slider-handle ui-btn ui-btn-corner-all ui-shadow ui-btn-up-c" href="#" data-theme="c" role="slider" aria-valuemin="0" aria-valuemax="100" aria-valuenow="54" aria-valuetext="54" title="54" aria-labelledby="slider-label" style="left: 54%;"> <span class="ui-btn-inner ui-btn-corner-all"> <span class="ui-btn-text"></span> </span> </a> </div> </div> and checking the events in the handler anchor I get only the click event $("#slider").next().find("a").data("events");

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  • XCode linking error when targeting armv7.

    - by Tom
    I've already spent countless hours puzzling over this, utilizing Google searches and other Stack Overflow questions to no avail. I have an iPhone/iPad universal application, which seems to compile fine when the target is armv6. However, when the device is iPad, I get this warning: warning: building for SDK 'Device - iPhone OS 3.2' requires an armv7 architecture. Oddly enough, the app still runs great on iPad in spite of this warning. However, I do want to do things the "right way" what ever that means in this case. When I switch the target architecture to armv7, I get linking errors: "___restore_vfp_d8_d15_regs", referenced from: *redacted* "___save_vfp_d8_d15_regs", referenced from: *redacted* ld: symbol(s) not found collect2: ld returned 1 exit status The "redacted" portions of the errors are references to the static library to which I'm trying to link. Here's what I've tried from the many suggestions online. Each of these were suggested more than once without any explanation, which leads me to believe nobody quite understands this problem: "Never use the drop down menu in the upper left of the XCode window to choose the target. Instead, set this to Base SDK and then the Base SDK to iPhone OS 3.0 in the target configuration. Set the target device to your preferred target (iPad, iPhone OS 3.2 in my situation.)" This yields the error "Library not found for -lcrt1.3.1.o" "Make sure that GCC isn't linking against the wrong version of the standard library. (You'll have to make sure the LIBRARY_SEARCH_PATH doesn't have the wrong path in it.)" My LIBRARY_SEARCH_PATH is already empty, so this doesn't seem relevant. "Try compiling with GCC 4.0 rather than GCC 4.2." I get a syntax error inside a UIKit header file. The error is "Syntax error before 'AT_NAME' token." The line is "UIKIT_EXTERN @interface UILocalizedIndexedCollation : NSObject." Another project compiles just fine with the same target settings, which is really making me question my sanity. Could I be dealing with a corrupt XCode project? If anyone knows what's actually happening and has a reference or doesn't mind explaining it, I would be so very grateful. Cheers!

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  • TVirtualStringTree - resetting non-visual nodes and memory consumption

    - by Remy Lebeau - TeamB
    I have an app that loads records from a binary log file and displays them in a virtual TListView. There are potentially millions of records in a file, and the display can be filtered by the user, so I do not load all of the records in memory at one time, and the ListView item indexes are not a 1-to-1 relation with the file record offsets (List item 1 may be file record 100, for instance). I use the ListView's OnDataHint event to load records for just the items the ListView is actually interested in. As the user scrolls around, the range specified by OnDataHint changes, allowing me to free records that are not in the new range, and allocate new records as needed. This works fine, speed is tolerable, and the memory footprint is very low. I am currently evaluating TVirtualStringTree as a replacement for the TListView, mainly because I want to add the ability to expand/collapse records that span multiple lines (I can fudge it with the TListView by incrementing/decrementing the item count dynamically, but this is not as straight forward as using a real tree). For the most part, I have been able to port the TListView logic and have everything work as I need. I notice that TVirtualStringTree's virtual paradigm is vastly different, though. It does not have the same kind of OnDataHint functionality that TListView does (I can use the OnScroll event to fake it, which allows my memory buffer logic to continue working), and I can use the OnInitializeNode event to associate nodes with records that are allocated. However, once a tree node is initialized, it sees that it remains initialized for the lifetime of the tree. That is not good for me. As the user scrolls around and I remove records from memory, I need to reset those non-visual nodes without removing them from the tree completely, or losing their expand/collapse states. When the user scrolls them back into view, I can re-allocate the records and re-initialize the nodes. Basically, I want to make TVirtualStringTree act as much like TListView as possible, as far as its virtualization is concerned. I have seen that TVirtualStringTree has a ResetNode() method, but I encounter various errors whenever I try to use it. I must be using it wrong. I also thought of just storing a data pointer inside each node to my record buffers, and I allocate and free memory, update those pointers accordingly. The end effect does not work so well, either. Worse, my largest test log file has ~5 million records in it. If I initialize the TVirtualStringTree with that many nodes at one time (when the log display is unfiltered), the tree's internal overhead for its nodes takes up a whopping 260MB of memory (without any records being allocated yet). Whereas with the TListView, loading the same log file and all the memory logic behind it, I can get away with using just a few MBs. Any ideas?

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  • Trouble with OpenLayers Styles.

    - by Jenny
    So, tired of always seeing the bright orange default regular polygons, I'm trying to learn to style OpenLayers. I've had some success with: var layer_style = OpenLayers.Util.extend({},OpenLayers.Feature.Vector.style['default']); layer_style.fillColor = "#000000"; layer_style.strokeColor = "#000000"; polygonLayer = new OpenLayers.Layer.Vector("PolygonLayer"); polygonLayer.style = layer_style; But sine I am drawing my polygons with DrawFeature, my style only takes effect once I've finished drawing, and seeing it snap from bright orange to grey is sort of disconcerting. So, I learned about temporary styles, and tried: var layer_style = new OpenLayers.Style({"default": {fillColor: "#000000"}, "temporary": {fillColor: "#000000"}}) polygonLayer = new OpenLayers.Layer.Vector("PolygonLayer"); polygonLayer.style = layer_style; This got me a still orange square--until I stopped drawing, when it snapped into completely opaque black. I figured maybe I had to explicitly set the fillOpacity...no dice. Even when I changed both fill colors to be pink and blue, respectively, I still saw only orange and opaque black. I've tried messing with StyleMaps, since I read that if you only add one style to a style map, it uses the default one for everything, including the temporary style. var layer_style = OpenLayers.Util.extend({}, OpenLayers.Feature.Vector.style['default']); var style_map = new OpenLayers.StyleMap(layer_style); polygonLayer = new OpenLayers.Layer.Vector("PolygonLayer"); polygonLayer.style = style_map; That got me the black opaque square, too. (Even though that layer style works when not given to a map). Passing the map to the layer itself like so: polygonLayer = new OpenLayers.Layer.Vector("PolygonLayer", style_map); Didn't get me anything at all. Orange all the way, even after drawn. polygonLayer = new OpenLayers.Layer.Vector("PolygonLayer", {styleMap: style_map}); Is a lot more succesful: Orange while drawing, translucent black with black outline when drawn. Just like when I didn't use a map. Problem is, still no temporary... So, I tried initializing my map this way: var style_map = new OpenLayers.StyleMap({"default": layer_style, "temporary": layer_style}); No opaque square, but no dice for the temporary, either... Still orange snapping to black transparent. Even if I make a new Style (layer_style2), and set temporary to that, still no luck. And no luck with setting "select" style, either. What am I doing wrong? Temporary IS for styling things that are currently being sketched, correct? Is there some other way specific to the drawFeature Controller? Edit: setting extendDefault to be true doesn't seem to help, either... var style_map = new OpenLayers.StyleMap({"default": layer_style, "temporary": layer_style}, {"extendDefault": "true"});

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