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  • Why does my DataTemplate break the WPF designer?

    - by PRINCESS FLUFF
    Why does the DataTemplate line break the WPF designer in Visual Studio 2008? The program compiles and runs properly. The DataTemplate is applied as it should. However the entire DataTemplate block of code is underlined in red, and when I simply "build" the program without running, I get the error "Type reference cannot find public type named 'Character'" How come it can't find it in the designer yet the program applies the template properly? <UserControl x:Class="WPF_Tests.Tests.TwoCollecViews.TwoViews" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:DetailsPane="clr-namespace:WPF_Tests.Tests.DetailsPane" > <UserControl.Resources> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type DetailsPane:Character}"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=Name}"></TextBlock> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </UserControl.Resources> <Grid> <ListBox ItemsSource="{Binding Path=Characters}" /> </Grid> </UserControl> EDIT: I am being told that this may be a bug in Visual Studio 2008, as it worked correctly in 2010. You can download the code here: http://www.mediafire.com/?z1myytvwm4n - The Test/TwoCollec xaml file's designer will break with this code.

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  • How to detect back button or forward button navigation in a silverlight navigation application

    - by parapura rajkumar
    When a Page is navigated to in silverlight you can override this method. protected override void OnNavigatedTo(NavigationEventArgs e) { base.OnNavigatedTo(e); } The NavigationEventArgs has a NavigationMode enumeration which is defined as public enum NavigationMode { New = 0, Back = 1, Forward = 2, Refresh = 3, } But calling e.NavigationMode always throws a NotImplementedException Is there a way in silverlight to detect a page is being navigated to because the user hit the forward/back browser button. What I am trying to achieve is some kind of state that can be preserved when the user hits the back button. For example assume you have a customer page which is showing a list of customers in a datagrid. The user can select a customer and there is a detail view which shows all the orders for that customer. Now within an order item you can click a hyperlink link that takes you to the shipping history of the order which is a separate page. When the user hits the back button I want to go back to the customers page and automatically select the customer he was viewing. Is this possible at all ? I also tried out the fragment navigation feature NavigationService.Navigate(new Uri("#currentcustomerid=" + customer.Id.ToString(), UriKind.Relative)); when the customer selection changes but this adds too many items to the history when the user clicks various customers on the customer page. EDIT There is also an method you can override protected override void OnNavigatingFrom(NavigatingCancelEventArgs e) { } which is the same as handling the NavigationService.Navigating event as indicated by BugFinder's answer. In this method e.NavigationMode always returns New when when you hit the Back or Forward Button. The only time this method returns Back is when you explicitly call NavigationService.GoBack()

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  • [SOLVED]: Delegate OpenID to Google (NOT Google Apps)

    - by Rio
    OK, I searched this question on SO but no good answer. After spent some time I figured out how to do it. I'm going to answer this myself as a way to share it. Not sure if this is the correct way to use SO, but here it goes: Now it is possible delegate OpenID to your Google account (not Google Apps). No, this is not using the demo OpenID provider using App Engine. This is your REAL Google account! First you need to enable your Google Profiles. Try to view your profile and edit it, there should be an option to set your Profile URL. You have two choices there: either use your Gmail account name (without the @gmail.com part) as your profile id, or a random number assigned to you. It's up to you to decide which one to use. Either way, that id is your profile id below. Now add the following HTML code to your delegating page: <link rel="openid2.provider" href="https://www.google.com/accounts/o8/ud?source=profiles" > <link rel="openid2.local_id" href="http://www.google.com/profiles/[YOUR PROFILE ID]" > And it's done. Now try login SO with your custom url!

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  • Should this even be a has_many :through association?

    - by GoodGets
    A Post belongs_to a User, and a User has_many Posts. A Post also belongs_to a Topic, and a Topic has_many Posts. class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :posts end class Topic < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :posts end class Post < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user belongs_to :topic end Well, that's pretty simple and very easy to set up, but when I display a Topic, I not only want all of the Posts for that Topic, but also the user_name and the user_photo of the User that made that Post. However, those attributes are stored in the User model and not tied to the Topic. So how would I go about setting that up? Maybe it can already be called since the Post model has two foreign keys, one for the User and one for the Topic? Or, maybe this is some sort of "one-way" has_many through assiociation. Like the Post would be the join model, and a Topic would has_many :users, :through = :posts. But the reverse of this is not true. Like a User does NOT has_many :topics. So would this even need to be has_many :though association? I guess I'm just a little confused on what the controller would look like to call both the Post and the User of that Post for a give Topic. Edit: Seriously, thank you to all that weighed in. I chose tal's answer because I used his code for my controller; however, I could have just as easily chosen either j.'s or tim's instead. Thank you both as well. This was so damn simple to implement, and I think today marks the day that I'm beginning to fall in love with rails.

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  • RelativeLayout differences between 1.5 and 2.1

    - by Kilnr
    I've got a ListView with items composed of RelativeLayouts. This is the relevant XML from the list items: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <RelativeLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content"> <TextView android:id="@+id/xx" android:gravity="center_vertical" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_gravity="center_vertical" android:layout_centerInParent="true" android:layout_alignParentLeft="true"/> <TextView android:id="@+id/title" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_toRightOf="@id/xx" /> <TextView android:id="@+id/tag" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_toRightOf="@id/xx" android:layout_below="@id/title" /> <TextView android:id="@+id/subtitle" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_toRightOf="@id/tag" android:layout_below="@id/title" /> </RelativeLayout> On Android 2.1 (tested on a Nexus One), this shows the desired behavior: On Android 1.5 however (tested on a HTC Hero), it shows up like this: [edit] On 1.6 (emulator), it works as expected as well. The small grey line on the top left is what shows up in the first pic as "xx", so that should be vertically centered. As far as I can see, the XML dictates this, but for some reason, 1.5 ignores it. Why is this? I can't find anything about this difference, and I've been brute forcing any combination of layout_center, center, alignParent*, but to no avail... Can anyone shed some light on this? Thanks!

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  • pass objective c object and primitive type into a void *

    - by user674669
    I want to pass 2 variables: UIImage * img int i into another method that only takes a (void *) I tried making a C struct containing both img and i struct MyStruct { UIImage *img; int i; } but xcode gives me an error saying "ARC forbids Objective-C objects in structs or unions" The next thing I tried is to write an objective-c class MyStruct2 containing img and i, alloc-initing an instance of it and typecasting it as (__bridge void*) before passing it to the method. Seems little involved for my use case. Seems like there should be a better way. What's the simplest way to achieve this? Thank you. Edit based on comments: I have to use void * as it is required by the UIView API. I created a selector as mentioned by UIVIew API + (void)setAnimationDidStopSelector:(SEL)selector Please see documentation for setAnimationDidStopSelector at http://developer.apple.com/library/ios/#documentation/uikit/reference/UIView_Class/UIView/UIView.html . It says ... The selector should be of the form: - (void)animationDidStop:(NSString *)animationID finished:(NSNumber *)finished context:(void *)context I want to pass both img and i into the (void *)context argument.

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  • Rails: Custom template for email "deliver_" method?

    - by neezer
    I'm building an email system that stores my different emails in the database and calls the appropriate "deliver_" method via method_missing (since I can't explicitly declare methods since they're user-generated). My problem is that my rails app still tries to render the template for whatever the generated email is, though those templates don't exist. I want to force all emails to use the same template (views/test_email.html.haml), which will be setup to draw their formatting from my database records. How can I accomplish this? I tried adding render :template => 'test_email' in the test_email method in emailer_controller with no luck. models/emailer.rb: class Emailer < ActionMailer::Base def method_missing(method, *args) # not been implemented yet logger.info "method missing was called!!" end end controller/emailer_controller.rb: class EmailerController < ApplicationController def test_email @email = Email.find(params[:id]) Emailer.send("deliver_#{@email.name}") end end views/emails/index.html.haml: %h1 Listing emails %table{ :cellspacing => 0 } %tr %th Name %th Subject - @emails.each do |email| %tr %td=h email.name %td=h email.subject %td= link_to 'Show', email %td= link_to 'Edit', edit_email_path(email) %td= link_to 'Send Test Message', :controller => 'emailer', :action => 'test_email', :params => { :id => email.id } %td= link_to 'Destroy', email, :confirm => 'Are you sure?', :method => :delete %p= link_to 'New email', new_email_path Error I'm getting with the above: Template is missing Missing template emailer/name_of_email_in_database.erb in view path app/views

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  • Troubles with PyDev and external libraries in OS X

    - by Davide Gualano
    I've successfully installed the latest version of PyDev in my Eclipse (3.5.1) under OS X 10.6.3, with python 2.6.1 I have troubles in making the libraries I have installed work. For example, I'm trying to use the cx_Oracle library, which is perfectly working if called from the python interpeter of from simple scripts made with some text editor. But I cant make it work inside Eclipse: I have this small piece of code: import cx_Oracle conn = cx_Oracle.connect(CONN_STRING) sql = "select field from mytable" cursor = conn.cursor() cursor.execute(sql) for row in cursor: field = row[0] print field If I execute it from Eclipse, I get the following error: import cx_Oracle File "build/bdist.macosx-10.6-universal/egg/cx_Oracle.py", line 7, in <module> File "build/bdist.macosx-10.6-universal/egg/cx_Oracle.py", line 6, in __bootstrap__ ImportError: dlopen(/Users/dave/.python-eggs/cx_Oracle-5.0.3-py2.6-macosx-10.6-universal.egg-tmp/cx_Oracle.so, 2): Library not loaded: /b/227/rdbms/lib/libclntsh.dylib.10.1 Referenced from: /Users/dave/.python-eggs/cx_Oracle-5.0.3-py2.6-macosx-10.6-universal.egg-tmp/cx_Oracle.so Reason: no suitable image found. Did find: /Users/dave/lib/libclntsh.dylib.10.1: mach-o, but wrong architecture Same snippet works perfectly from the python shell I have configured the interpeter in Eclipse in preferences - PyDev -- Interpreter - Python, using the Auto Config option and selecting all the libs found. What am I doing wrong here? Edit: launching file /Users/dave/.python-eggs/cx_Oracle-5.0.3-py2.6-macosx-10.6-universal.egg-tmp/cx_Oracle.so from the command line tells this: /Users/dave/.python-eggs/cx_Oracle-5.0.3-py2.6-macosx-10.6-universal.egg-tmp/cx_Oracle.so: Mach-O universal binary with 3 architectures /Users/dave/.python-eggs/cx_Oracle-5.0.3-py2.6-macosx-10.6-universal.egg-tmp/cx_Oracle.so (for architecture i386): Mach-O bundle i386 /Users/dave/.python-eggs/cx_Oracle-5.0.3-py2.6-macosx-10.6-universal.egg-tmp/cx_Oracle.so (for architecture ppc7400): Mach-O bundle ppc /Users/dave/.python-eggs/cx_Oracle-5.0.3-py2.6-macosx-10.6-universal.egg-tmp/cx_Oracle.so (for architecture x86_64): Mach-O 64-bit bundle x86_64

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  • How to use jQuery .live() with ajax

    - by kylemac
    Currently I am using John Resig's LiveQuery plugin/function - http://ejohn.org/blog/jquery-livesearch/ - to allow users to sort through a long unordered-list of list-items. The code is as follows: $('input#q').liveUpdate('ul#teams').focus(); The issue arises when I use ajaxified tabs to sort the lists. Essentially I use ajax to pull in different lists and the liveUpdate() function doesn't have access to the new li's. I assume I would need to bind this using the .live() function - http://api.jquery.com/live/. But I am unclear how to bind this to an ajax event, I've only used the "click" event. How would I bind the new liveUpdate() to the newly loaded list-items? EDIT: The ajax tabs is run through the wordpress ajax api so the code is fairly complex, but simplified it is something like this: $('div.item-list-tabs').click( function(event) { var target = $(event.target).parent(); var data = {action, scope, pagination}; // Passes action to WP that loads my tab data $.post( ajaxurl, data, function(response) { $(target).fadeOut( 100, function() { $(this).html(response); $(this).fadeIn(100); }); }); return false; }); This is simplified for the sake of this conversation, but basically once the $.post loads the response in place .liveUpdate() doesn't have access to it. I believe the .live() function is the answer to this problem, I'm just unclear on how to implement it with the $.post()

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  • Make sure <a href="local file"> is opened outside of browser

    - by Heinzi
    For an Intranet web application (document management), I want to show a list of files associated with a certain customer. The resulting HTML is like this: <a href="file:///server/share/dir/somefile.docx">somefile.docx</a> <a href="file:///server/share/dir/someotherfile.pdf">somefile.pdf</a> <a href="file:///server/share/dir/yetanotherfile.txt">yetanotherfile.txt</a> This works fine. Unfortunetly, when clicking on a text file (or image file), Internet Explorer (and I guess most other browsers as well) insist on showing it in the browser instead of opening the file with the associated application (e.g. Notepad). In our case, this is undesired behavior, since it does not allow the user to edit the file. Is there some workaround to this behavior (e.g. something like <a href="file:///..." open="external">)? I'm aware that this is a browser-specific thing, and an IE-only solution would be fine (it's an Intranet application after all).

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  • Using hg repository as web site

    - by Tex
    This is somewhat related to my security question here. Is it a bad idea to use an hg / mercurial repository for a live website? If so, why? Furthermore, we have dev, test and production installations of our website, like dev.example.com, test.example.com and www.example.com. If it's a bad idea to use a repository for a live/production website, would it be OK to use an hg repository for the dev and test sites? I'm also concerned about ease of deployment. We have technical and less technical co-workers who will be working with the site. The technical guys (software engineers) won't have any problem working with the command line or TortoiseHG. I'm more concerned about the less technical guys (web designers). They won't be comfortable working on the command line, and may even find TortoiseHG daunting. These guys mostly upload .css files and images to the server. I'd like for these files (at least the .css files) to be under version control, but I want this to be as transparent as possible for the non technical guys. What's the best way to achieve this? Edit: Our 'site' is actually a multi-site CMS setup with a main repository and several subrepositories. Mock-up of the repository structure: /root [main repository containing core files and subrepositories] /modules [modules subrepository] /sites/global [subrepository for global .css and .php files] /sites/site1 [site1 subrepository] ... /sites/siteN [siteN subrepository] Software engineers would work in the root, modules and sites/global repositories. Less technical guys (web designers) would work only in the site1 ... siteN subrepositories.

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  • Why can't I get a TRUE return in this prepared statement?

    - by Cortopasta
    I can't seem to get this to do anything but return false. My best guess is that the prepared statement isn't executing, but I have no idea why. private function check_credentials($plain_username, $md5_password) { global $dbcon; $ac = new ac(); $ac->dbconnect(); $userid = $dbcon->prepare('SELECT id FROM users WHERE username = :username AND password = :password LIMIT 1'); $userid->bindParam(':username', $plain_username); $userid->bindParam(':password', $md5_password); $userid->execute(); $id = $userid->fetch(); Return $id; } *EDIT:*I've even tried hard coding the username and password into the function itself to try and isolate the problem like this: private function check_credentials($plain_username, $md5_password) { global $dbcon; $plain_username = "jim"; $md5_username = "waffles"; $ac = new ac(); $ac->dbconnect(); $userid = $dbcon->prepare('SELECT id FROM users WHERE username = :username AND password = :password LIMIT 1'); $userid->bindParam(':username', $plain_username); $userid->bindParam(':password', $md5_password); $userid->execute(); print_r($dbcon->errorInfo()); $id = $userid->fetch(); Return $id; } Still nothing :-/

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  • Best practices for Java logging from multiple threads?

    - by Jason S
    I want to have a diagnostic log that is produced by several tasks managing data. These tasks may be in multiple threads. Each task needs to write an element (possibly with subelements) to the log; get in and get out quickly. If this were a single-task situation I'd use XMLStreamWriter as it seems like the best match for simplicity/functionality without having to hold a ballooning XML document in memory. But it's not a single-task situation, and I'm not sure how to best make sure this is "threadsafe", where "threadsafe" in this application means that each log element should be written to the log correctly and serially (one after the other and not interleaved in any way). Any suggestions? I have a vague intuition that the way to go is to use a queue of log elements (with each one able to be produced quickly: my application is busy doing real work that's performance-sensitive), and have a separate thread which handles the log elements and sends them to a file so the logging doesn't interrupt the producers. The logging doesn't necessarily have to be XML, but I do want it to be structured and machine-readable. edit: I put "threadsafe" in quotes. Log4j seems to be the obvious choice (new to me but old to the community), why reinvent the wheel...

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  • Should I go vor Arrays or Objects in PHP in a CouchDB/Ajax app?

    - by karlthorwald
    I find myself converting between array and object all the time in PHP application that uses couchDB and Ajax. Of course I am also converting objects to JSON and back (for sometimes couchdb but mostly Ajax), but this is not so much disturbing my workflow. At the present I have php objects that are returned by the CouchDB modules I use and on the other hand I have the old habbit to return arrays like array("error"="not found","data"=$dataObj) from my functions. This leads to a mixed occurence of real php objects and nested arrays and I cast with (object) or (array) if necessary. The worst thing is that I know more or less by heart what a function returns, but not what type (array or object), so I often run into type errors. My plan is now to always cast arrays to objects before returning from a function. Of course this implies a lot of refactoring. Is this the right way to go? What about the conversion overhead? Other ideas or tips? Edit: Kenaniah's answer suggests I should go the other way, this would mean I'd cast everything to arrays. And for all the Ajax / JSON stuff and also for CouchDB I would use $myarray = json_decode($json_data,$assoc = false) Even more work to change all the CouchDB and Ajax functions but in the end I have better code.

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  • How set accessory type when tabel view is enbled to editing?

    - by Madan Mohan
    Hi Guys, I am using the UITableView properties to edit it. theTableView.editing = YES; theTableView.allowsSelectionDuringEditing = YES; It is working fine, the row is selected and I am getting into the next controller but I need to display the the accessoryType in the row. I am using below line for that but even though it is not working. Is there any property or any thing missing to display the indiactor. cell.accessoryType = UITableViewCellAccessoryDisclosureIndicator; I am using the below code for table view. theTableView = [[UITableView alloc] initWithFrame:tableRect style:UITableViewStyleGrouped]; theTableView.editing = YES; theTableView.allowsSelectionDuringEditing = YES; theTableView.delegate = self; theTableView.dataSource = self; theTableView.scrollEnabled=YES; theTableView.separatorColor = [UIColor lightGrayColor]; theTableView.autoresizingMask=YES; theTableView.allowsSelection=YES; theTableView.sectionHeaderHeight=5; theTableView.sectionFooterHeight=5; [myView addSubview:theTableView]; Please help me. THank You, Madan Mohan

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  • NSTableView Drag and Drop not working

    - by macatomy
    Hi, I'm trying to set up very basic drag and drop for my NSTableView. The table view has a single column (with a custom cell). The column is bound to an NSArrayController, and the array controller's content array is bound to an NSArray on my controller object. The data displays fine in the table. I connected the dataSource and delegate outlets of the table view to my controller object, and then implemented these methods: - (BOOL)tableView:(NSTableView *)aTableView writeRowsWithIndexes:(NSIndexSet *)rowIndexes toPasteboard:(NSPasteboard *)pboard { NSLog(@"dragging"); return YES; } - (NSDragOperation)tableView:(NSTableView*)tv validateDrop:(id <NSDraggingInfo>)info proposedRow:(NSInteger)row proposedDropOperation:(NSTableViewDropOperation)op { return NSDragOperationEvery; } - (BOOL)tableView:(NSTableView *)aTableView acceptDrop:(id <NSDraggingInfo>)info row:(NSInteger)row dropOperation:(NSTableViewDropOperation)operation { return YES; } I also registered the drag types in -awakeFromNib: #define MyDragType @"MyDragType" - (void)awakeFromNib { [super awakeFromNib]; [_myTable registerForDraggedTypes:[NSArray arrayWithObjects:MyDragType, nil]]; } The problem is that the -tableView:writeRowsWithIndexes:toPasteboard: method is never called. I've looked at a bunch of examples and I can't figure out anything I'm doing wrong. Could the problem be that I'm using a custom cell? Is there something I'm supposed to override in the cell subclass to enable this functionality? EDIT: Confirmed. Switching the custom cell for a regular NSTextFieldCell made dragging work. Now, how do I make drag and drop work with my custom cell?

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  • Script working with mysql and php into a textarea and back

    - by Tribalcomm
    I am trying to write a custom script that will keep a list of strings in a textarea. Each line of the textarea will be a row from a table. The problem I have is how to work the script to allow for adding, updating, or deleting rows based on a submit. So, for instance, I currently have 3 rows in the database: john sue mark I want to be able to delete sue and add richard and it will delete the row with sue and insert a row for richard. My code so far is as follows: To query the db and list it in the textarea: $basearray = mysql_query("SELECT name FROM mytable ORDER BY name"); <textarea name="names" cols=6 rows=12>'); <?php foreach($basearray as $base){ echo $base->name."\n"; } ?> </textarea> After the submit, I have: <?php $namelist = $_REQUEST[names]; $newarray = explode("\n", $namelist); foreach($newarray as $name) { if (!in_array($name, $basearray)) { mysql_query(DELETE FROM mytable WHERE word='$name'"); } elseif (in_array($name, $basearray)) { ; } else { mysql_query("INSERT INTO mytable (name) VALUES ("$name")"); } } ?> Please tell me what I am doing wrong. I am not getting any functions to work when I edit the contents of the textarea. Thanks!

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  • How can I track down "Template process failed: undef error" in Perl's Template Toolkit?

    - by swisstony
    I've moved a Perl CGI app from one web host to another. Everything's running fine except for Template Tookit which is giving the following error: "Template process failed: undef error - This shouldn't happen at /usr/lib/perl5/5.8.8/CGI/Carp.pm line 314." The templates are working fine on the other web host. I've set the DEBUG_ALL flag when creating the template object, but it doesn't provide any additional info about errors just loads of debug output. I can't post the template source as there's lots of client specific stuff in it. I've written a simple test template and that works okay. Just wondering if anyone had seen this error before or has any ideas on the quickest way to find a fix for it. EDIT: Here's a snippet of the code that loads and processes the template. my $vars = {}; $vars->{page_url} = $page_url; $vars->{info} = $info; $vars->{is_valid} = 0; $vars->{invalid_input} = 0; $vars->{is_warnings} = 0; $vars->{is_invalid_price} = 0; $vars->{output_from_proc} = $proc_output; ... my $file = 'clientTemplate.html'; #create ref to hash use Template::Constants qw( :debug ); my $template = Template->new( { DEBUG => DEBUG_SERVICE | DEBUG_CONTEXT | DEBUG_PROVIDER | DEBUG_PLUGINS | DEBUG_FILTERS | DEBUG_PARSER | DEBUG_DIRS, EVAL_PERL => 1, INCLUDE_PATH => [ '/home/perlstuff/templates', ], } ); $template->process( $file, $vars ) || die "Template process failed: ", $template->error(), "\n";

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  • Ninject InThreadScope Binding

    - by e36M3
    I have a Windows service that contains a file watcher that raises events when a file arrives. When an event is raised I will be using Ninject to create business layer objects that inside of them have a reference to an Entity Framework context which is also injected via Ninject. In my web applications I always used InRequestScope for the context, that way within one request all business layer objects work with the same Entity Framework context. In my current Windows service scenario, would it be sufficient to switch the Entity Framework context binding to a InThreadScope binding? In theory when an event handler in the service triggers it's executed under some thread, then if another file arrives simultaneously it will be executing under a different thread. Therefore both events will not be sharing an Entity Framework context, in essence just like two different http requests on the web. One thing that bothers me is the destruction of these thread scoped objects, when you look at the Ninject wiki: .InThreadScope() - One instance of the type will be created per thread. .InRequestScope() - One instance of the type will be created per web request, and will be destroyed when the request ends. Based on this I understand that InRequestScope objects will be destroyed (garbage collected?) when (or at some point after) the request ends. This says nothing however on how InThreadScope objects are destroyed. To get back to my example, when the file watcher event handler method is completed, the thread goes away (back to the thread pool?) what happens to the InThreadScope-d objects that were injected? EDIT: One thing is clear now, that when using InThreadScope() it will not destroy your object when the handler for the filewatcher exits. I was able to reproduce this by dropping many files in the folder and eventually I got the same thread id which resulted in the same exact Entity Framework context as before, so it's definitely not sufficient for my applications. In this case a file that came in 5 minutes later could be using a stale context that was assigned to the same thread before.

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  • Updating a Foreign Key constraint with ON DELETE CASCADE not updating?

    - by Alastair Pitts
    We've realised in our SQL Server 2005 DB that some Foreign Keys don't have the On Delete Cascade property set, which is giving us a couple of referential errors when we try and delete some records. Use the Management Studio I scripted the DROP and CREATESQL's, but it seems that the CREATE isn't working correctly. The DROP: USE [FootprintReports] GO IF EXISTS (SELECT * FROM sys.foreign_keys WHERE object_id = OBJECT_ID(N'[dbo].[FK__SUBSCRIPTIONS_Reports]') AND parent_object_id = OBJECT_ID(N'[dbo].[_SUBSCRIPTIONS]')) ALTER TABLE [dbo].[_SUBSCRIPTIONS] DROP CONSTRAINT [FK__SUBSCRIPTIONS_Reports] and the CREATE USE [FootprintReports] GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[_SUBSCRIPTIONS] WITH CHECK ADD CONSTRAINT [FK__SUBSCRIPTIONS_Reports] FOREIGN KEY([PARAMETER_ReportID]) REFERENCES [dbo].[Reports] ([ID]) ON DELETE CASCADE GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[_SUBSCRIPTIONS] CHECK CONSTRAINT [FK__SUBSCRIPTIONS_Reports] If I manually change the value of the On Delete in the GUI, after dropping and recreating, the On Delete isn't correctly updated. As a test, I set the Delete rule in the GUI to Set Null. It dropped correctly, and recreated without error. If I got back into the GUI, it is still showing the Set Null as the Delete Rule. Have I done something wrong? or is there another way to edit a constraint to add the ON DELETE CASCADE rule?

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  • Pushing to bare Git repository (remote) causes it to stop being bare

    - by NSD
    I have a local repository called TestRepo. I clone it with the --bare option, zip this clone up, and throw it on my server. Unzip it, and it's still bare. I then clone the bare remote repository locally over ssh with something like git clone ssh://[email protected]/~/TestRepo.git TestRepoCloned The local TestRepoCloned is not bare and has a remote called "origin." It appears to be tracking correctly from the looks of its config file [core] repositoryformatversion = 0 filemode = true bare = false logallrefupdates = true ignorecase = true [remote "origin"] fetch = +refs/heads/*:refs/remotes/origin/* url = ssh://[email protected]/~/TestRepo.git [branch "master"] remote = origin merge = refs/heads/master I edit an existing file. I commit the change to the current branch (master) via git commit -a -m "Edited a file." The commit succeeds and all is well. I decide to push this change to the remote repository via SSH with a git push The remote repository is now no longer bare, but has a complete working directory, and I get continuous error messages on all further attempts to push to it. Everything I've read seems to suggest that what I'm doing is correct, but it simply is not working. How am I supposed to push changes to a bare remote repo and actually keep it bare?

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  • How to target multiple versions of .NET Framework from MSBuild?

    - by McKAMEY
    I am improving the builds for an open source project which currently supports .NET Framework v2.0, v3.5, and now v4.0. Up until now, I've restricted myself to v2.0 to ensure compatibility, but with VS2010 I am interested in having real targeted builds. I'm looking for some guidance on how to edit the MSBuild csproj/sln to be able to cleanly produce builds for each target. I'm willing to have complexity in the csproj and in a batch file to control the build. My goal is to be able to have a command line script that could produce the builds without needing Visual Studio installed, but only the necessary .NET Framework(s). Ideally, I'd like to minimize dependencies on additional software. I notice that a lot of people use NAnt (e.g. Ninject builds many targets with NAnt) but I'm unsure if this is necessary or if they are just more familiar with it. I'm pretty sure this can be done but am having trouble finding a definitive guide on setting it up and best practices. Bonus: my next step after getting this set up will be to better support Mono Framework. Any help on doing this same thing for Mono would be much appreciated.

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  • java RMI connection to server

    - by user85116
    I have a very simple rmi client / server application. I don't use the "rmiregistry" application though, I use this to create the server: server = new RemoteServer(); registry = LocateRegistry.createRegistry(PORT); registry.bind("RemoteServer", server); The client part is: registry = LocateRegistry.getRegistry(IPADDRESS, PORT); remote = (IRemoteServer) registry.lookup("RemoteServer"); Here is the fascinating problem: The application works perfectly when both server and client are running in my (private) local network. As soon as I put the server on a public server, the application hangs for a minute, then gives me the following error: java.rmi.ServerException: RemoteException occurred in server thread; nested exception is: java.rmi.ConnectException: Connection refused to host: 192.168.x.y; nested exception is: java.net.ConnectException: Connection timed out: connect at sun.rmi.server.UnicastServerRef.dispatch(Unknown Source) at sun.rmi.transport.Transport$1.run(Unknown Source) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at sun.rmi.transport.Transport.serviceCall(Unknown Source) at sun.rmi.transport.tcp.TCPTransport.handleMessages(Unknown Source) at sun.rmi.transport.tcp.TCPTransport$ConnectionHandler.run0(Unknown Source ... (the rest is truncated) The key I think is that the client (running on my private network) cannot connect to myself (my address is 192.168.x.y where x.y is some other numbers, but the real error message shows my ip address listed there) If I kill the rmi server on the public internet, then I instantly get a "connection refused to host: a.b.c.d") message, so I know that something at the server end is at least working. Any suggestions? EDIT: just to make this a little more clear: 192.168.x.y is the client address, a.b.c.d is the server address. The stacktrace shows the client cannot connect to the client.

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  • Why does the Combo.SelectedValue get lost after some time

    - by tzup
    So I have this asp:DropDownList on a page. It renders like this (in IE7): <select name="ctl00$cphFilter$cbLista" onchange="javascript:setTimeout('__doPostBack(\'ctl00$cphFilter$cbLista\',\'\')', 0)" id="ctl00_cphFilter_cbLista" class="agsSelect"> <option selected="selected" value="4350">A</option> <option value="4352">B</option> <option value="4349">C</option> <option value="4348">D</option> And then I have a grid and a button on the same page. When the user clicks the button the selected item of the dropdown is read (well a datasource object reads it) and the grid does a databind after a trip to a DB where it gets some data based on that selected value. This works fine most of the time. However sometimes, the selection in the dropdownlist seems to get lost even though the rendered page says the A is the selected item. The datasource object is defined like this: <asp:ObjectDataSource ID="dsVM" runat="server" EnablePaging="False" SelectMethod="Select" SortParameterName="sort" TypeName="X.Business.Entities.LPVM.BE"> <SelectParameters> <asp:ControlParameter Name="listaId" Type="Int32" ControlID="cphFilter$cbLista" PropertyName="SelectedValue" /> </SelectParameters> </asp:ObjectDataSource> Any ideas why the grid would reload its data with a select parameter that is 0 instead of the selected value of the dropdownlist? EDIT Suppose the dropdownlist is bound, the user selected B and the grid is bound as well and shows the right data. Now, I wait 2 minutes and I click the Refresh button. Surprisingly, at this particular moment the dropdownlist.SelectedValue (which I already know it was 4352 before I clicked because that's how it looks in the rendered page) is actually an empty string. Where did the value go?

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  • Microsoft OLE DB Provider for SQL Server error '80040e14' Could not find stored procedure

    - by BBlake
    I am migrating a classic ASP web app to new servers. The database back end is migrating from SQL Server 2000 to SQL Server 2008, and the app is moving from Win2000 x86 to Win2003R2 x64. I am getting the above error on every single stored procedure call within the application. I have verified: Yes, the SQL user is set up, using correct username and password Yes, the SQL user has execute permissions on the stored procedures in the database Yes, I have updated the TypeLib references to the new UUID Yes, I have logged into the database via SSMS with the SQL user id and it can see and execute the stored procedures just fine in SSMS, but not from the web app. Yes, the SQL user has the database set as its default database. The most frustrating thing is it works fine on the DEV server, but not on the production server. I have gone through every IIS setting 5 or 6 times and the web app is set up precisely the same in both environments. The only difference is the database server name in the connection string (DEV vs prod) EDIT: I have also tried pointing the prod web box at the dev database server and get the same error so I'm fairly sure the issue isn't on the database side.

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