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  • Code coverage with phpunit; can't get to one place.

    - by HA17
    In the xdebug code coverage, it shows the line "return false;" (below "!$r") as not covered by my tests. But, the $sql is basically hard-coded. How do I get coverage on that? Do I overwrite "$table" somehow? Or kill the database server for this part of the test? I guess this is probably telling me I'm not writing my model very well, right? Because I can't test it well. How can I write this better? Since this one line is not covered, the whole method is not covered and the reports are off. I'm fairly new to phpunit. Thanks. public function retrieve_all() { $table = $this->tablename(); $sql = "SELECT t.* FROM `{$table}` as t"; $r = dbq ( $sql, 'read' ); if(!$r) { return false; } $ret = array (); while ( $rs = mysql_fetch_array ( $r, MYSQL_ASSOC ) ) { $ret[] = $rs; } return $ret; }

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  • Where should my "filtering" logic reside with Linq-2-SQL and ASP.NET-MVC in View or Controller?

    - by Nate Bross
    I have a main Table, with several "child" tables. TableA and TableAChild1 and TableAChild2. I have a view which shows the information in TableA, and then has two columns of all items in TableAChild1 and TableAChild2 respectivly, they are rendered with Partial views. Both child tables have a bit field for VisibleToAll, and depending on user role, I'd like to either display all related rows, or related rows where VisibleToAll = true. This code, feels like it should be in the controller, but I'm not sure how it would look, because as it stands, the controller (limmited version) looks like this: return View("TableADetailView", repos.GetTableA(id)); Would something like this be even work, and would it be bad what if my DataContext gets submitted, would that delete all the rows that have VisibleToAll == false? var tblA = repos.GetTableA(id); tblA.TableAChild1 = tblA.TableAChild1.Where(tmp => tmp.VisibleToAll == true); tblA.TableAChild2 = tblA.TableAChild2.Where(tmp => tmp.VisibleToAll == true); return View("TableADetailView", tblA); It would also be simple to add that logic to the RendarPartial call from the main view: <% Html.RenderPartial("TableAChild1", Model.TableAChild1.Where(tmp => tmp.VisibleToAll == true); %>

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  • AngularJS not validating email field in form

    - by idipous
    I have the html below where I have a form that I want to submit to the AngularJS Controller. <div class="newsletter color-1" id="subscribe" data-ng-controller="RegisterController"> <form name="registerForm"> <div class="col-md-6"> <input type="email" placeholder="[email protected]" data-ng-model="userEmail" required class="subscribe"> </div> <div class="col-md-2"> <button data-ng-click="register()" class="btn btn-primary pull-right btn-block">Subsbcribe</button> </div> </form> </div> And the controller is below app.controller('RegisterController', function ($scope,dataFactory) { $scope.users = dataFactory.getUsers(); $scope.register = function () { var userEmail = $scope.userEmail; dataFactory.insertUser(userEmail); $scope.userEmail = null; $scope.ThankYou = "Thank You!"; } }); The problem is that no validation is taking place when I click the button. It is always routed to the controller although I do not supply a correct email. So every time I click the button I get the {{ThankYou}} variable displayed. Maybe I do not understand something.

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  • Run Jmol applet using apache server

    - by user1144004
    I am a newbie in using apache and jmol. I am trying to run a jmol applet in python using apache server. Because of strict folder arrangement restrictions in jmol (html and model files should be present inside jmol folder), I had to move the default htdocs and cgi-bin folder inside jmol folder by editing the "httd.conf" file. Now the new location of htdocs folder is "Apache2.2/jmol/htdocs" and of cgi-bin folder is "Apache2.2/jmol/cgi-bin". Now I've put my "start.html" file in the htdocs folder which has the jmol applet tag. It takes "CA150.XYZ" file which is also placed in the same folder. On running this "start.html" file through apache server, nothing happens. It even doesn't give any error, it just shows a blank page. But if I try to run "start.html" without apache server, jmol applet do get executed and runs successfully. What am I doing wrong? Any idea? Here is my "start.html" file <head> <title>Simple example</title> <script src="../Jmol.js" type="text/javascript"></script> </head> <body> <form> <script type="text/javascript"> jmolInitialize("../"); jmolApplet(200,"load CA150.XYZ"); </script> </form> </body>

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  • Immutability and shared references - how to reconcile?

    - by davetron5000
    Consider this simplified application domain: Criminal Investigative database Person is anyone involved in an investigation Report is a bit of info that is part of an investigation A Report references a primary Person (the subject of an investigation) A Report has accomplices who are secondarily related (and could certainly be primary in other investigations or reports These classes have ids that are used to store them in a database, since their info can change over time (e.g. we might find new aliases for a person, or add persons of interest to a report) If these are stored in some sort of database and I wish to use immutable objects, there seems to be an issue regarding state and referencing. Supposing that I change some meta-data about a Person. Since my Person objects immutable, I might have some code like: class Person( val id:UUID, val aliases:List[String], val reports:List[Report]) { def addAlias(name:String) = new Person(id,name :: aliases,reports) } So that my Person with a new alias becomes a new object, also immutable. If a Report refers to that person, but the alias was changed elsewhere in the system, my Report now refers to the "old" person, i.e. the person without the new alias. Similarly, I might have: class Report(val id:UUID, val content:String) { /** Adding more info to our report */ def updateContent(newContent:String) = new Report(id,newContent) } Since these objects don't know who refers to them, it's not clear to me how to let all the "referrers" know that there is a new object available representing the most recent state. This could be done by having all objects "refresh" from a central data store and all operations that create new, updated, objects store to the central data store, but this feels like a cheesy reimplementation of the underlying language's referencing. i.e. it would be more clear to just make these "secondary storable objects" mutable. So, if I add an alias to a Person, all referrers see the new value without doing anything. How is this dealt with when we want to avoid mutability, or is this a case where immutability is not helpful?

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  • Can knowing C actually hurt the code you write in higher level languages?

    - by Jurily
    The question seems settled, beaten to death even. Smart people have said smart things on the subject. To be a really good programmer, you need to know C. Or do you? I was enlightened twice this week. The first one made me realize that my assumptions don't go further than my knowledge behind them, and given the complexity of software running on my machine, that's almost non-existent. But what really drove it home was this Slashdot comment: The end result is that I notice the many naive ways in which traditional C "bare metal" programmers assume that higher level languages are implemented. They make bad "optimization" decisions in projects they influence, because they have no idea how a compiler works or how different a good runtime system may be from the naive macro-assembler model they understand. Then it hit me: C is just one more abstraction, like all others. Even the CPU itself is only an abstraction! I've just never seen it break, because I don't have the tools to measure it. I'm confused. Has my mind been mutilated beyond recovery, like Dijkstra said about BASIC? Am I living in a constant state of premature optimization? Is there hope for me, now that I realized I know nothing about anything? Is there anything to know, even? And why is it so fascinating, that everything I've written in the last five years might have been fundamentally wrong? To sum it up: is there any value in knowing more than the API docs tell me? EDIT: Made CW. Of course this also means now you must post examples of the interpreter/runtime optimizing better than we do :)

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  • Grails one-to-many mapping with joinTable

    - by intargc
    I have two domain-classes. One is a "Partner" the other is a "Customer". A customer can be a part of a Partner and a Partner can have 1 or more Customers: class Customer { Integer id String name static hasOne = [partner:Partner] static mapping = { partner joinTable:[name:'PartnerMap',column:'partner_id',key:'customer_id'] } } class Partner { Integer id static hasMany = [customers:Customer] static mapping = { customers joinTable:[name:'PartnerMap',column:'customer_id',key:'partner_id'] } } However, whenever I try to see if a customer is a part of a partner, like this: def customers = Customer.list() customers.each { if (it.partner) { println "Partner!" } } I get the following error: org.springframework.dao.InvalidDataAccessResourceUsageException: could not execute query; SQL [select this_.customer_id as customer1_162_0_, this_.company as company162_0_, this_.display_name as display3_162_0_, this_.parent_customer_id as parent4_162_0_, this_.partner_id as partner5_162_0_, this_.server_id as server6_162_0_, this_.status as status162_0_, this_.vertical_market as vertical8_162_0_ from Customer this_]; nested exception is org.hibernate.exception.SQLGrammarException: could not execute query It looks as if Grails is thinking partner_id is a part of the Customer query, and it's not... It is in the PartnerMap table, which is supposed to find the customer_id, then get the Partner from the corresponding partner_id. Anyone have any clue what I'm doing wrong? Edit: I forgot to mention I'm doing this with legacy database tables. So I have a Partner, Customer and PartnerMap table. PartnerMap has simply a customer_id and partner_id field.

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  • looking for advise on importing excel into mysql with php

    - by Ole Media
    Alright, see if I can pick your brains from you all. I'm currently working on a project where all the information comes from different clients, the only thing in common is that the received data is done with excel. The excel spread sheet that they present is just a bunch of references and codes, and the problem than I'm facing is that I need the references and codes to be entered in certain format in order for the website to work. The perfect situation will be to go to each client and teach how I would need the data, but I can't do that because of the large number of clients, and more importantly I will be interrupting their work flow. Each client has its own codes and reference model and they are not willing to change their process The good news is that there is a standard pattern for the codes, but I'm talking close to 200 thousand codes with a bunch of combination. They way that we are currently solving the problem is that we have a person who checks each excel sheet received, runs a few macros, and manually fixes those codes in which the macro was not able to fix. The person that is doing this, is already burn out and frustrated and I would like to automatize this process with php. Suggestions?

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  • Configure nHibernate for multiple-project solution

    - by NoOne
    Hello, Im doing a project with C# winforms. This project is composed by: Client project: Windows Forms where user will do CRUD operations on the models; Server project; Common Project: This project will hold the models (in the image only have the model Item); ListSingleton: Remote Object that will do the operations on the models; I already have all the communication working, but now I need to work on the persistence of the data in a mysql database. I was trying to use nHibernate but I’m having some troubles. My main problem is how to organize my hibernate configuration. In which project do I keep the mapping? Common project? In which project do I keep the hibernate configuration file (App.config)? ListSingleton project? In which project do I do this: Configuration cfg = new Configuration(); cfg.AddXmlFile("Item.hbm.xml"); ISessionFactory factory = cfg.BuildSessionFactory(); ISession session = factory.OpenSession(); ITransaction transaction = session.BeginTransaction(); Item newItem = new Item("BLAA"); // Tell NHibernate that this object should be saved session.Save(newItem); // commit all of the changes to the DB and close the ISession transaction.Commit(); session.Close(); In the ListSingleton project? Altho I had reference to the Common Project in the ListSingleton I keep getting error in the addXml line… My mapping is correct because I tried with a one-project solution and it worked :X

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  • What are CDN Best Practices?

    - by Wild Thing
    Hi, I have recently started using the Rackspace Cloudfiles CDN (Limelight), about which I have some questions: I am using jQuery, jQuery UI and jQuery tools in addition to custom JS code. Also, my site is written in ASP.Net, which means there is some ASP.Net generated JS code. Right now what I have done is that I have combined all of the js (including the jquery code), except the ASP.Net generated JS into one file. I am hosting this on the Rackspace CDN. I am wondering if it would make more sense to just get the jQuery, jQuery UI files from the Google hosted CDN (which I suspect would work very well in serving these files, since they will be in many users' cache already)? This would mean one extra HTTP request, so I'm not sure if it'll help. Right now I have multiple containers for my assets. For example, in Rackspace I have 3 containers: JS, CSS and Images. The URL subdomain for all 3 is different. Will that lead to a performance penalty? Should I just use one container (and thus one domain for the CDN)? Is there a way of having the MS ASP.Net generated JS loaded from MS CDN? Would this have a performance hit as per the above question? Thanks in advance, WT

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  • Showing multiple models in a single ListView

    - by Veer
    I've three models (Contacts, Notes, Reminders). I want to search all these and produce the filtered result in a single listview and depending upon the selection I've to display the corresponding view(UserControl) to its right. I want the right way of implementing the design or atleast alternatives to this method that I've tried. Now I've tried it using a IntegratedViewModel having all the properties from all the three models. public class IntegratedViewModel { ContactModel _contactModel; NoteModel _noteModel; public IntegratedViewModel(ContactModel contactModel) { _contactModel = contactModel; } // similarly for other models also public string DisplayTitle // For displaying in ListView { get; //same as set set { If(_contactModel != null) return _contactModel.Name; If(_noteModel != null) return _noteModel.Title; } } // All other properties from the three models includin the Name/Title properties for displaying them in the corresponding views(UserControl) } Now I set the itemsSource as the List<IntegratedViewModel>. I've to now bind the visibility of the views to some properties in the MainViewModel. I tried setting bool properties like IsContactViewSelected, IsNoteViewSelected using the setter of SelectedEntity property which is bound to the ListView's SelectedItem. public SelectedEntity { //get set { oldvalue = _selectedEntity; _selectedEntity = value; // now i find the Type of model selected using oldvalue.ModelType // where ModelType is a property in the IntegratedViewModel // according to the type, i set one of the above bool properties to false // and do the same for _selectedEntity but set the property to true // so that the view corresponding to the selectedEntityType is visible // and others are collapsed } } Here is the problem: For eg: let us say, I selected an item of type ContactModel, the old selection being NoteModel. I set the property IsNoteModelSelected to false according to the oldvalue, it sets the property and then Raises the propertychanged event and does not go and check the remaining if condition where i check for _selectedEntity which is used to set the IsContactModelSelected to true.

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  • Obfuscating ids in Rails app

    - by fphilipe
    I'm trying to obfuscate all the ids that leave the server, i.e., ids appearing in URLs and in the HTML output. I've written a simple Base62 lib that has the methods encode and decode. Defining—or better—overwriting the id method of an ActiveRecord to return the encoded version of the id and adjusting the controller to load the resource with the decoded params[:id] gives me the desired result. The ids now are base62 encoded in the urls and the response displays the correct resource. Now I started to notice that subresources defined through has_many relationships aren't loading. e.g. I have a record called User that has_many Posts. Now User.find(1).posts is empty although there are posts with user_id = 1. My explanation is that ActiveRecord must be comparing the user_id of Post with the method id of User—which I've overwritten—instead of comparing with self[:id]. So basically this renders my approach useless. What I would like to have is something like defining obfuscates_id in the model and that the rest would be taken care of, i.e., doing all the encoding/decoding at the appropriate locations and preventing ids to be returned by the server. Is there any gem available or does somebody have a hint how to accomplish this? I bet I'm not the first trying this.

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  • iPhone SDK Programming - Working with a variable across 2 views

    - by SD
    I have what I hope is a fairly simple question about using the value from a variable across 2 views. I’m new to the iPhone SDK platform and the Model/View/Controller methodology. I’ve got background in VB.Net, some Php, but mostly SQL, so this is new ground for me. I’m building an app that has 3 views. For simplicity’s sake, I’ll call them View1, View2, View3. On View1 I have an NSString variable that I’ve declared in View1.h, and synthesized in View1.m. I’ll call it String1. View1.m uses a UITextField to ask the user for their name and then sets the value of String1 to that name (i.e. "Bill"). I would now like to use the value of String1 in View2. I'm not doing anything other than displaying the value ("Bill"), in a UILabel object in View2. Can someone tell me what the easiest way to accomplish that is? Many thanks in advance….

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  • Preloading data without messing up association when data is loaded the 2nd time.

    - by denniss
    This is how my model looks like User belongs_to :computer Computer has_many :user Users are created when people register for an account on the web site but computers are pre-loaded data that I create in seeds.rb/some .rake file. All is fine and good when the app is first launched and people start registering and get associated with the right computer_id. However, suppose I want to add another computer to the list Computer.destroy_all Computer.create({:name => "Akane"}) Computer.create({:name => "Yoda"}) Computer.create({:name => "Mojito"}) #newly added running the rakefile the second time around will mess up the associations because computer_id in the User table refer to the old id in Computer table. Since I have run the script above, the id keeps incrementing without any regard to the association that user has to it. Question: Is there a better way for me to pre-load data without screwing up my association? I want to be able to add new Computer without having to destroy the user's table. Destroying the computer table is fine with me and rebuilding it again but the old association that the existing users have must stay intact.

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  • Connecting a django application to a drupal database?

    - by Hans
    I have a 3 - 4000 nodes in a drupal 6 installation on mysql and want to access these data through my django application. I have used manage.py inspectdb to get a skeleton of a model structure. I guess that there are good/historical reasons for drupal's database schemes, but find that there are some hard to understand structure and that there are some challenges in applying django models on the database. Some experiences this far are: node and node revision are intertwined and I solved this by using a OneToOneField (don't need the versions). This meens that the node's body gets accessible through node.vid.body, but it works. Foreign keys need to define the proper db_column to sort out the primary keys. Terms need to use an intermediary table with ManyToManyField.through. Drupal stores both the original and the thumbnailed/resized versions of any image as files in the files table. Does anyone have experiences in accessing drupal data in django? Are there better solution to for example the node <- node revision relationship? Drupal stores time/dates as unix-style timestamps in integerfields. Any recommendations? How about time zones?

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  • Are there any less costlier alternatives to Amazon's Relational Database Services (RDS)?

    - by swapnonil
    Hi All, I have the following requirement. I have with me a database containing the contact and address details of at least 2000 members of my school alumni organization. We want to store all that information in a relation model so that This data can be created and edited on demand. This data is always backed up and should be simple to restore in case the master copy becomes unusable. All sensitive personal information residing in this database is guaranteed to be available only to authorized users. This database won't be online in the first 6 months. It will become online only after a website is built on top of it. I am not a DBA and I don't want to spend time doing things like backups. I thought Amazon's RDS with it's automatic backup facility was the perfect solution for our needs. The only problem is that being a voluntary organization we cannot spare the monthly $100 to $150 fees this service demands. So my question is, are there any less costlier alternatives to Amazon's RDS?

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  • Ruby on Rails - pass variable to nested form

    - by Krule
    I am trying to build a multilingual site using Rails, but I can't figure out how to pass variable to nested form. Right now I am creating nested form like this. @languages.each do @article.article_locale.build(:language_id => language.id) end But i would like to pass value of language to it so i can distinguish fields. Something like this. @languages.each do |language| @language = language @article.article_locale.build(:language_id => language.id) end However, I always end up with language of the last loop iteration. Any way to pass this variable? -- edit -- In the end, since I've got no answer I have solved this problem so it, at least, works as it should. Following code is my partial solution. In model: def self.languages Language.all end def self.language_name language = [] self.languages.each_with_index do |lang, i| language[i] = lang.longname end return language end In Controller: def new @article = Article.new Article.languages.each do |language| @article.article_locale.build(:language_id => language.id) end end In HAML View: -count = 0 -f.fields_for :article_locale do |al| %h3= Article.language_name[count] -count+=1 -field_set_tag do %p =al.label :name, t(:name) =al.text_field :name %p =al.label :description, t(:description) =al.text_area :description =al.hidden_field :language_id It's not the most elegant solution I suppose, but it works. I would really love if I could get rid of counter in view for instance.

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  • How do you make use of the provider independency in the Entity Framework?

    - by Anders Svensson
    I'm trying to learn more about data access and the Entity Framework. My goal is to have a "provider independent" data access layer (to be able to switch easily e.g. from SQL Server to MySQL or vice versa), and since the EF is supposed to be provider independent it seems like a good way to go. But how do you use this provider independence? I mean, I was expecting to be able to sort of "program to an interface", and then just be able to switch database provider. But as far as I can tell I'm only getting a concrete type to program against, an "Entities" class, e.g. in my case it is: UserDBEntities _context = new UserDBEntities(); What I would have expected to be able to switch provider easily was to have an interface e.g. like IEntities _context = new UserDBEntities(); Sort of like I can do with datasets... But maybe that isn't how it works at all with EF? Or do you just switch provider in the connectionstring, and the model stays the same?? Please remember that I'm a complete newbie at this EF, and rather inexperienced with databases in general, so I would really appreciate if you could be as clear as possible :-)

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  • DotNetOpenAuth getting return_To url as the provider

    - by Jeff
    I have a provider that I'm upgrading from version 2 to version 3. basically a user comes to one of our sites and we say "if you don't have an openID sign up with this one" They click that and are sent to our in house provider what signs them up for an account and has to verify their email address. In the link I send via Email I included the return to url . This way when they click the link to verify their email (sometimes up to a week later) they are sent to our page that knows to send them back to the returnTo to login. I could not find a good way to do this in version 2 so I used a hack. Sadly this hack broke in version 2 so I'm completely stumped as to how to find the login page url that is the return_To Note: I need the full URL not just the domain. old hack: if (ProviderEndpoint.PendingAuthenticationRequest != null) { req = ProviderEndpoint.PendingAuthenticationRequest.ToString(); int startpos = req.LastIndexOf("CheckIdRequest.ReturnTo = '"); startpos += "CheckIdRequest.ReturnTo = '".Length; int endpos = req.LastIndexOf("token=") - startpos-1; if (endpos > 0) { req = req.Substring(startpos, endpos); } else { log.Fatal("Missing token in url" + ProviderEndpoint.PendingAuthenticationRequest.ToString()); return "~/"; } req = req.Replace("&internalLogin=True", ""); req = req.Replace("?internalLogin=True&", "?"); req = req.Replace("?internalLogin=True", ""); }

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  • Spork doesnt reload code

    - by there-is-no-spoon
    I am using following gems and ruby-1.9.3-p194: rails 3.2.3 rspec-rails 2.9.0 spork 1.0.0rc2 guard-spork 0.6.1 Full list of used gems is available in this Gemfile.lock or Gemfile. And I am using this configuration files: Guardfile .rspec spec_helper.rb factories.rb If I modify any model (or custom validator in app/validators etc) reloading code doesnt works. I mean when I run specs (hit Enter on guard console) Spork contain "old code" and I got obsolete error messages. But when I manually restart Guard and Spork (CTRC-C CTRL-d guard) everything works fine. But it is getting tired after few times. Questions: Can somebody look at my config files please and fix error which block updating code. Or maybe this is an issue of newest Rails version? PS This problem repeats and repeats over some projects (and on some NOT). But I haven't figured out yet why this is happens. PS2 Perhaps this problem is something to do with ActiveAdmin? When I change file in app/admin code is reloaded.

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  • Migrating MachineKey from iis6 on old server to iis7 on new server

    - by MaseBase
    I am migrating our hosting environment to a totally new data center with new boxes and hardware and software... the whole deal. Our website cookies are encrypted using the machineKey, so when I make a request to my domain and point it to the new web server (by overriding the local hosts file), I get an error because the cookie cannot be decrypted, since the Machine Key is different. I'd like to avoid any problems a frequent user might have when they arrive at the new server for the first time. To the best of my knowledge, at this point I think I need to set the same MachineKey from our current servers on our new servers. This way when past visitors with a cookie arrive at our website served by the new server, the cookie will be decrypted properly with the MachineKey it was encrypted with and then log them in properly. My question is where do I find my MachineKey value (in IIS 6 win2k3 server) so I can use that value to set it statically on my new servers? I've pulled up my machine.config file, but it doesn't specify the key, it only specifies a configSection where the key can be defined. It's not in my web.config for the app or elsewhere. I did find this great article on some MachineKey and Web Garden woes (which could explain some other bugs I've been experiencing with regard to the machineKey). Update I am back to this issue and am still faced with a similar problem. I have the MachineKey auto-generated on the IIS6 server but I need to get that exact key so I can set it explicitly and not have it auto-generated anymore. Any help is appreciated...

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  • JSP includes and MVC pattern

    - by xingyu
    I am new to JSP/Servlets/MVC and am writing a JSP page (using Servlets and MVC pattern) that displays information about recipies, and want the ability for users to "comment" on it too. So for the Servlet, on doGet(), it grabs all the required info into a Model POJO and forwards the request on to a JSP View for rendering. That is working just fine. I'd like the "comment" part to be a separate JSP, so on the RecipeView.jsp I can use to separate these views out. So I've made that, but am now a little stuck. The form in the CommentOnRecipe.jsp posts to a CommentAction servlet that handles the recording of the comment just fine. So when I reload the Recipe page, I can see the comment I just made. I'd like to: Reload the page automatically after commenting (no AJAX for now) Block the user from making more than one comment on each Recipe over a 1 day timeframe (via a Cookie). So I store a cookie indicating the product ID whenever the user makes a comment, so we can check this later? How would it work in a MVC context? Show a message to the user that they have already commented on the Recipe when they visit one which they have commented on I'm confused about using beans/including JSPs etc on how to achieve this. I know in ASP.NET land, it would be a UseControl that I would place on a page, or in ASP.NET MVC, it would be a PartialView of some sort. I'm just confused with the way this works in a JSP/Servlets/MVC context.

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  • Displaying cookies as key=value for all domains?

    - by OverTheRainbow
    Hello, This question pertains to the use of the cookie-capable WebClient derived class presented in the How can I get the WebClient to use Cookies? question. I'd like to use a ListBox to... 1) display each cookie individually as "key=value" (the For Each loop displays all of them as one string), and 2) be able to display all cookies, regardless of the domain from which they came ("www.google.com", here): Imports System.IO Imports System.Net Public Class Form1 Private Sub Button1_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Button1.Click Dim webClient As New CookieAwareWebClient Const URL = "http://www.google.com" Dim response As String response = webClient.DownloadString(URL) RichTextBox1.Text = response 'How to display cookies as key/value in ListBox? 'PREF=ID=5e770c1a9f279d5f:TM=1274032511:LM=1274032511:S=1RDPaKJKpoMT9T54 For Each mycc In webClient.cc.GetCookies(New Uri(URL)) ListBox1.Items.Add(mycc.ToString) Next End Sub End Class Public Class CookieAwareWebClient Inherits WebClient Public cc As New CookieContainer() Private lastPage As String Protected Overrides Function GetWebRequest(ByVal address As System.Uri) As System.Net.WebRequest Dim R = MyBase.GetWebRequest(address) If TypeOf R Is HttpWebRequest Then With DirectCast(R, HttpWebRequest) .CookieContainer = cc If Not lastPage Is Nothing Then .Referer = lastPage End If End With End If lastPage = address.ToString() Return R End Function End Class Thank you.

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  • How to check if an entityset is populated

    - by TheQ
    How can i check if an entityset of a linq-object is populated or not? Example code below. My model have two methods, one joins data, and the other does not: public static Member GetMemberWithSettings(Guid memberId) { using (DataContext db = new DataContext()) { DataLoadOptions dataLoadOptions = new DataLoadOptions(); dataLoadOptions.LoadWith<Member>(x => x.Settings); db.LoadOptions = dataLoadOptions; var query = from x in db.Members where x.MemberId == memberId select x; return query.FirstOrDefault(); } } public static Member GetMember(Guid memberId) { using (DataContext db = new DataContext()) { var query = from x in db.Members where x.MemberId == memberId select x; return query.FirstOrDefault(); } } Then my control have the following code: Member member1 = Member.GetMemberWithSettings(memberId); Member member2 = Member.GetMember(memberId); Debug.WriteLine(member1.Settings.Count); Debug.WriteLine(member2.Settings.Count); The last line will generate a "Cannot access a disposed object" exception. I know that i can get rid of that exception just by not disposing the datacontext, but then the last line will generate a new query to the database, and i don't want that. What i would like is something like: Debug.WriteLine((member1.Settings.IsPopulated()) ? member1.Settings.Count : -1); Debug.WriteLine((member2.Settings.IsPopulated()) ? member2.Settings.Count : -1); Is it possible?

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  • How to create a reference tables for collection classes using fluent nhibernate

    - by Akk
    How can i create a 3 table schema from the following model classes. public class Product { public int Id {get; set;} public string Name {get; set;} public IList<Photo> Photos {get; set;} } public class Photo { public int Id {get; set;} public string Path {get; set;} } I want to create the following table structure in the database: Product ------- Id Name ProductPhotos ------------- ProductId (FK Products.Id) PhotoId (FK Photos.Id) Photos ------ Id Path How i can express the above Database Schema using Fluent NHibernate? I could only manage the following the Mapping but this does not get me the 3rd Photo ref table. public class ProductMap : ClassMap<Product> { public CityMap() { Id(x => x.Id); Map(x => x.Name); Table("Products"); HasMany(x => x.Photos).Table("ProductPhotos").KeyColumn("ProductId"); } }

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