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  • How to Integrate C++ compiler in Visual Studio 2008

    - by Kasun
    Hi Can someone help me with this issue? I currently working on my project for final year of my honors degree. And we are developing a application to evaluate programming assignments of student ( for 1st year student level) I just want to know how to integrate C++ compiler using C# code to compile C++ code. In our case we are loading a student C++ code into text area, then with a click on button we want to compile the code. And if there any compilation errors it will be displayed on text area nearby. (Interface is attached herewith.) And finally it able to execute the code if there aren't any compilation errors. And results will be displayed in console. We were able to do this with a C#(C# code will be loaded to text area intead of C++ code) code using inbuilt compiler. But still not able to do for C# code. Can anyone suggest a method to do this? It is possible to integrate external compiler to VS C# code? If possible how to achieve it? Very grateful if anyone will contributing to solve this matter? This is code for Build button which we proceed with C# code compiling CodeDomProvider codeProvider = CodeDomProvider.CreateProvider("csharp"); string Output = "Out.exe"; Button ButtonObject = (Button)sender; rtbresult.Text = ""; System.CodeDom.Compiler.CompilerParameters parameters = new CompilerParameters(); //Make sure we generate an EXE, not a DLL parameters.GenerateExecutable = true; parameters.OutputAssembly = Output; CompilerResults results = codeProvider.CompileAssemblyFromSource(parameters, rtbcode.Text); if (results.Errors.Count > 0) { rtbresult.ForeColor = Color.Red; foreach (CompilerError CompErr in results.Errors) { rtbresult.Text = rtbresult.Text + "Line number " + CompErr.Line + ", Error Number: " + CompErr.ErrorNumber + ", '" + CompErr.ErrorText + ";" + Environment.NewLine + Environment.NewLine; } } else { //Successful Compile rtbresult.ForeColor = Color.Blue; rtbresult.Text = "Success!"; //If we clicked run then launch our EXE if (ButtonObject.Text == "Run") Process.Start(Output); // Run button }

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  • Use HTTP PUT to create new cache (ehCache) running on the same Tomcat?

    - by socal_javaguy
    I am trying to send a HTTP PUT (in order to create a new cache and populate it with my generated JSON) to ehCache using my webservice which is on the same local tomcat instance. Am new to RESTful Web Services and am using JDK 1.6, Tomcat 7, ehCache, and JSON. I have my POJOs defined like this: Person POJO: import javax.xml.bind.annotation.XmlRootElement; @XmlRootElement public class Person { private String firstName; private String lastName; private List<House> houses; // Getters & Setters } House POJO: import javax.xml.bind.annotation.XmlRootElement; @XmlRootElement public class House { private String address; private String city; private String state; // Getters & Setters } Using a PersonUtil class, I hardcoded the POJOs as follows: public class PersonUtil { public static Person getPerson() { Person person = new Person(); person.setFirstName("John"); person.setLastName("Doe"); List<House> houses = new ArrayList<House>(); House house = new House(); house.setAddress("1234 Elm Street"); house.setCity("Anytown"); house.setState("Maine"); houses.add(house); person.setHouses(houses); return person; } } Am able to create a JSON response per a GET request: @Path("") public class MyWebService{ @GET @Produces(MediaType.APPLICATION_JSON) public Person getPerson() { return PersonUtil.getPerson(); } } When deploying the war to tomcat and pointing the browser to http://localhost:8080/personservice/ Generated JSON: { "firstName" : "John", "lastName" : "Doe", "houses": [ { "address" : "1234 Elmstreet", "city" : "Anytown", "state" : "Maine" } ] } So far, so good, however, I have a different app which is running on the same tomcat instance (and has support for REST): http://localhost:8080/ehcache/rest/ While tomcat is running, I can issue a PUT like this: echo "Hello World" | curl -S -T - http://localhost:8080/ehcache/rest/hello/1 When I "GET" it like this: curl http://localhost:8080/ehcache/rest/hello/1 Will yield: Hello World What I need to do is create a POST which will put my entire Person generated JSON and create a new cache: http://localhost:8080/ehcache/rest/person And when I do a "GET" on this previous URL, it should look like this: { "firstName" : "John", "lastName" : "Doe", "houses": [ { "address" : "1234 Elmstreet", "city" : "Anytown", "state" : "Maine" } ] } So, far, this is what my PUT looks like: @PUT @Path("/ehcache/rest/person") @Produces(MediaType.APPLICATION_JSON) @Consumes(MediaType.APPLICATION_JSON) public Response createCache() { ResponseBuilder response = Response.ok(PersonUtil.getPerson(), MediaType.APPLICATION_JSON); return response.build(); } Question(s): (1) Is this the correct way to write the PUT? (2) What should I write inside the createCache() method to have it PUT my generated JSON into: http://localhost:8080/ehcache/rest/person (3) What would the command line CURL comment look like to use the PUT? Thanks for taking the time to read this...

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  • How does your team work together in a remote setup?

    - by Carl Rosenberger
    Hi, we are a distributed team working on the object database db4o. The way we work: We try to program in pairs only. We use Skype and VNC or SharedView to connect and work together. In our online Tuesday meeting every week (usually about 1 hour) we talk about the tasks done last week we create new pairs for the next week with a random generator so knowledge and friendship distribute evenly we set the priority for any new tasks or bugs that have come in each team picks the tasks it likes to do from the highest prioritized ones. From Tuesday to Wednesday we estimate tasks. We have a unit of work we call "Ideal Developer Session" (IDS), maybe 2 or 3 hours of working together as a pair. It's not perfectly well defined (because we know estimation always is inaccurate) but from our past shared experience we have a common sense of what an IDS is. If we can't estimate a task because it feels too long for a week we break it down into estimatable smaller tasks. During a short meeting on Wednesday we commit to a workload we feel is well doable in a week. We commit to complete. If a team runs out of committed tasks during the week, it can pick new ones from the prioritized queue we have in Jira. When we started working this way, some of us found that remote pair programming takes a lot of energy because you are so focussed. If you pair program for more than 5 or 6 hours per day, you get drained. On the other hand working like this has turned out to be very efficient. The knowledge about our codebase is evenly distributed and we have really learnt lots from eachother. I would be very interested to hear about the experiences from other teams working in a similar way. Things like: How often do you meet? Have you tried different sprint lengths (one week, two week, longer) ? Which tools do you use? Which issue tracker do you use? What do you do about time zone differences? How does it work for you to integrate new people into the team? How many hours do you usually work per week? How does your management interact with the way you are working? Do you get put on a waterfall with hard deadlines? What's your unit of work? What is your normal velocity? (units of work done per week) Programming work should be fun and for us it usually is great fun. I would be happy about any new ideas how to make it even more fun and/or more efficient.

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  • Combining FileStream and MemoryStream to avoid disk accesses/paging while receiving gigabytes of data?

    - by w128
    I'm receiving a file as a stream of byte[] data packets (total size isn't known in advance) that I need to store somewhere before processing it immediately after it's been received (I can't do the processing on the fly). Total received file size can vary from as small as 10 KB to over 4 GB. One option for storing the received data is to use a MemoryStream, i.e. a sequence of MemoryStream.Write(bufferReceived, 0, count) calls to store the received packets. This is very simple, but obviously will result in out of memory exception for large files. An alternative option is to use a FileStream, i.e. FileStream.Write(bufferReceived, 0, count). This way, no out of memory exceptions will occur, but what I'm unsure about is bad performance due to disk writes (which I don't want to occur as long as plenty of memory is still available) - I'd like to avoid disk access as much as possible, but I don't know of a way to control this. I did some testing and most of the time, there seems to be little performance difference between say 10 000 consecutive calls of MemoryStream.Write() vs FileStream.Write(), but a lot seems to depend on buffer size and the total amount of data in question (i.e the number of writes). Obviously, MemoryStream size reallocation is also a factor. Does it make sense to use a combination of MemoryStream and FileStream, i.e. write to memory stream by default, but once the total amount of data received is over e.g. 500 MB, write it to FileStream; then, read in chunks from both streams for processing the received data (first process 500 MB from the MemoryStream, dispose it, then read from FileStream)? Another solution is to use a custom memory stream implementation that doesn't require continuous address space for internal array allocation (i.e. a linked list of memory streams); this way, at least on 64-bit environments, out of memory exceptions should no longer be an issue. Con: extra work, more room for mistakes. So how do FileStream vs MemoryStream read/writes behave in terms of disk access and memory caching, i.e. data size/performance balance. I would expect that as long as enough RAM is available, FileStream would internally read/write from memory (cache) anyway, and virtual memory would take care of the rest. But I don't know how often FileStream will explicitly access a disk when being written to. Any help would be appreciated.

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  • MATLAB query about for loop, reading in data and plotting

    - by mp7
    Hi there, I am a complete novice at using matlab and am trying to work out if there is a way of optimising my code. Essentially I have data from model outputs and I need to plot them using matlab. In addition I have reference data (with 95% confidence intervals) which I plot on the same graph to get a visual idea on how close the model outputs and reference data is. In terms of the model outputs I have several thousand files (number sequentially) which I open in a loop and plot. The problem/question I have is whether I can preprocess the data and then plot later - to save time. The issue I seem to be having when I try this is that I have a legend which either does not appear or is inaccurate. My code (apolgies if it not elegant): fn= xlsread(['tbobserved' '.xls']); time= fn(:,1); totalreference=fn(:,4); totalreferencelowerci=fn(:,6); totalreferenceupperci=fn(:,7); figure plot(time,totalrefrence,'-', time, totalreferencelowerci,'--', time, totalreferenceupperci,'--'); xlabel('Year'); ylabel('Reference incidence per 100,000 population'); title ('Total'); clickableLegend('Observed reference data', 'Totalreferencelowerci', 'Totalreferenceupperci','Location','BestOutside'); xlim([1910 1970]); hold on start_sim=10000; end_sim=10005; h = zeros (1,1000); for i=start_sim:end_sim %is there any way of doing this earlier to save time? a=int2str(i); incidenceFile =strcat('result_', 'Sim', '_', a, 'I_byCal_total.xls'); est_tot=importdata(incidenceFile, '\t', 1); cal_tot=est_tot.data; magnitude=1; t1=cal_tot(:,1)+1750; totalmodel=cal_tot(:,3)+cal_tot(:,5); h(a)=plot(t1,totalmodel); xlim([1910 1970]); ylim([0 500]); hold all clickableLegend(h(a),a,'Location','BestOutside') end Essentially I was hoping to have a way of reading in the data and then plot later - ie. optimise the code. I hope you might be able to help. Thanks. mp

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  • run shell command from java

    - by Aykut
    Hi, I am working on an application an have an issue about running shell command from java application. here is the code: public String execRuntime(String cmd) { Process proc = null; int inBuffer, errBuffer; int result = 0; StringBuffer outputReport = new StringBuffer(); StringBuffer errorBuffer = new StringBuffer(); try { proc = Runtime.getRuntime().exec(cmd); } catch (IOException e) { return ""; } try { response.status = 1; result = proc.waitFor(); } catch (InterruptedException e) { return ""; } if (proc != null && null != proc.getInputStream()) { InputStream is = proc.getInputStream(); InputStream es = proc.getErrorStream(); OutputStream os = proc.getOutputStream(); try { while ((inBuffer = is.read()) != -1) { outputReport.append((char) inBuffer); } while ((errBuffer = es.read()) != -1) { errorBuffer.append((char) errBuffer); } } catch (IOException e) { return ""; } try { is.close(); is = null; es.close(); es = null; os.close(); os = null; } catch (IOException e) { return ""; } proc.destroy(); proc = null; } if (errorBuffer.length() > 0) { logger .error("could not finish execution because of error(s)."); logger.error("*** Error : " + errorBuffer.toString()); return ""; } return outputReport.toString(); } but when i try to exec command like : /export/home/test/myapp -T "some argument" myapp reads "some argument" as two seperated arguments.but I want to read "some argument" as only a argument. when i directly run this command from terminal, it executed successfully. I tried '"some argument"' ,""some argument"" , "some\ argument" but did not work for me. how can i read this argument as one argument. Thnaks.

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  • JavaScript code inside UpdatePanel

    - by Ed Woodcock
    Ok: I've got an UpdatePanel on an aspx page that contains a single Placeholder. Inside this placeholder I'm appending one of a selection of usercontrols depending on certain external conditions (this is a configuration page). In each of these usercontrols there is a bindUcEvents() javascript function that binds the various jQuery and javascript events to buttons and validators inside the usercontrol. The issue I'm having is that the usercontrol's javascript is not being recognised. Normally, javascript inside an updatepanel is executed when the updatepanel posts back, however none of this code can be found by the page (I've tried running the function manually via firebug's console, but it tells me it cannot find the function). Does anyone have any suggestions? Cheers, Ed. EDIT: cut down (but functional) example: Markup: <script src="/js/jquery-1.3.2.min.js"></script> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <asp:ScriptManager ID="Script" runat="server" /> <asp:Button ID="Postback" runat="server" Text="Populate" OnClick="PopulatePlaceholder" /> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdateMe" runat="server"> <Triggers> <asp:AsyncPostBackTrigger ControlID="Postback" EventName="Click" /> </Triggers> <ContentTemplate> <asp:Literal ID="Code" runat="server" /> <asp:PlaceHolder ID="PlaceMe" runat="server" /> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> </div> </form> C#: protected void PopulatePlaceholder(object sender, EventArgs e) { Button button = new Button(); button.ID = "Push"; button.Text = "push"; button.OnClientClick = "javascript:return false;"; Code.Text = "<script type=\"text/javascript\"> function bindEvents() { $('#" + button.ClientID + "').click(function() { alert('hello'); }); } bindEvents(); </script>"; PlaceMe.Controls.Add(button); } You'll see that the button does not poput the alert message, even though the code is present on the page.

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  • Unable to decode hex values in javascript tooltip

    - by staudk27
    Hi all, I have quite the process that we go through in order to display some e-mail communications in our application. Trying to keep it as general as possible... -We make a request to a service via XML -Get the XML reply string, send the string to a method to encode any invalid characters as follows: public static String convertUTF8(String value) { char[] chars = value.toCharArray(); StringBuffer retVal = new StringBuffer(chars.length); for (int i = 0; i < chars.length; i++) { char c = chars[i]; int chVal = (int)c; if (chVal > Byte.MAX_VALUE) { retVal.append("&#x").append(Integer.toHexString(chVal)).append(";"); } else { retVal.append(c); } } return retVal.toString(); } We then send that result of a string to another method to remove any other invalid characters: public static String removeInvalidCharacters(String inString) { if (inString == null){ return null; } StringBuffer newString = new StringBuffer(); char ch; char c[] = inString.toCharArray(); for (int i = 0; i < c.length; i++) { ch = c[i]; // remove any characters outside the valid UTF-8 range as well as all control characters // except tabs and new lines if ((ch < 0x00FD && ch > 0x001F) || ch == '\t' || ch == '\n' || ch == '\r') { newString.append(ch); } } return newString.toString(); } This string is then "unmarshal'ed" via the SaxParser The object is then sent back to our Display action which generated the response to the calling jsp/javascript to create the page. The issue is some text can contain characters which can't be processed correctly. The following is eventually rendered on the JSP just fine: <PrvwCommTxt>This is a new test. Have a*&amp;#xc7;&amp;#xb4;)&amp;#xa1;.&amp;#xf1;&amp;#xc7;&amp;#xa1;.&amp;#xf1;*&amp;#xc7;&amp;#xb4;)...</PrvwCommTxt> Which shows up as "This is a new test. Have a*Ç´)¡.ñÇ¡." in the browser. -The following shows up in a tooltip while hovering over the above text: <CommDetails>This is a new test. Have a*Ç´)¡.ñÇ¡.ñ*Ç´)¡.ñ*´)(¡.ñÇ(¡.ñÇ* Wonderful Day!</CommDetails> This then shows up incorrectly when rendered in the tooltip javascript with all the HEX values and not being rendered correctly. Any suggestions on how to make the unknown characters show correctly in javascript?

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  • Java replacement for C macros

    - by thkala
    Recently I refactored the code of a 3rd party hash function from C++ to C. The process was relatively painless, with only a few changes of note. Now I want to write the same function in Java and I came upon a slight issue. In the C/C++ code there is a C preprocessor macro that takes a few integer variables names as arguments and performs a bunch of bitwise operations with their contents and a few constants. That macro is used in several different places, therefore its presence avoids a fair bit of code duplication. In Java, however, there is no equivalent for the C preprocessor. There is also no way to affect any basic type passed as an argument to a method - even autoboxing produces immutable objects. Coupled with the fact that Java methods return a single value, I can't seem to find a simple way to rewrite the macro. Avenues that I considered: Expand the macro by hand everywhere: It would work, but the code duplication could make things interesting in the long run. Write a method that returns an array: This would also work, but it would repeatedly result into code like this: long tmp[] = bitops(k, l, m, x, y, z); k = tmp[0]; l = tmp[1]; m = tmp[2]; x = tmp[3]; y = tmp[4]; z = tmp[5]; Write a method that takes an array as an argument: This would mean that all variable names would be reduced to array element references - it would be rather hard to keep track of which index corresponds to which variable. Create a separate class e.g. State with public fields of the appropriate type and use that as an argument to a method: This is my current solution. It allows the method to alter the variables, while still keeping their names. It has the disadvantage, however, that the State class will get more and more complex, as more macros and variables are added, in order to avoid copying values back and forth among different State objects. How would you rewrite such a C macro in Java? Is there a more appropriate way to deal with this, using the facilities provided by the standard Java 6 Development Kit (i.e. without 3rd party libraries or a separate preprocessor)?

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  • Are Objective-C initializers allowed to share the same name?

    - by NattKatt
    I'm running into an odd issue in Objective-C when I have two classes using initializers of the same name, but differently-typed arguments. For example, let's say I create classes A and B: A.h: #import <Cocoa/Cocoa.h> @interface A : NSObject { } - (id)initWithNum:(float)theNum; @end A.m: #import "A.h" @implementation A - (id)initWithNum:(float)theNum { self = [super init]; if (self != nil) { NSLog(@"A: %f", theNum); } return self; } @end B.h: #import <Cocoa/Cocoa.h> @interface B : NSObject { } - (id)initWithNum:(int)theNum; @end B.m: #import "B.h" @implementation B - (id)initWithNum:(int)theNum { self = [super init]; if (self != nil) { NSLog(@"B: %d", theNum); } return self; } @end main.m: #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> #import "A.h" #import "B.h" int main (int argc, const char * argv[]) { NSAutoreleasePool * pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; A *a = [[A alloc] initWithNum:20.0f]; B *b = [[B alloc] initWithNum:10]; [a release]; [b release]; [pool drain]; return 0; } When I run this, I get the following output: 2010-04-26 20:44:06.820 FnTest[14617:a0f] A: 20.000000 2010-04-26 20:44:06.823 FnTest[14617:a0f] B: 1 If I reverse the order of the imports so it imports B.h first, I get: 2010-04-26 20:45:03.034 FnTest[14635:a0f] A: 0.000000 2010-04-26 20:45:03.038 FnTest[14635:a0f] B: 10 For some reason, it seems like it's using the data type defined in whichever @interface gets included first for both classes. I did some stepping through the debugger and found that the isa pointer for both a and b objects ends up the same. I also found out that if I no longer make the alloc and init calls inline, both initializations seem to work properly, e.g.: A *a = [A alloc]; [a initWithNum:20.0f]; If I use this convention when I create both a and b, I get the right output and the isa pointers seem to be different for each object. Am I doing something wrong? I would have thought multiple classes could have the same initializer names, but perhaps that is not the case.

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  • Tab Bar and Nav Controller: Where did I go wrong in my Interface Builder wiring?

    - by editor
    Even if you don't know how I've shot myself in the foot, a story which I've tried to lay out below, if you think I've done a good job showing the parameters of my problem I'd appreciate an upvote so that I might be able to grab some attention for my question. I've been working on an iPhone application in XCode and Interface Builder of the Tab Bar project type. After getting a table view of topics (business sectors) working fine I realized that I would need to add a Navigation Control to allow the user to drill into a subtopics (subsectors) table. As a green Objective-C developer, that was confusing, but I managed to get it working by reading various documentation trying out a few different IB options. My current setup is a Tab Bar Controller with Tab 1 as a Navigation Controller and Tab 2 a plain view with a Table View placed into it. The wiring works: I can log when table rows are selected and I'm ready to push a new View Controller onto the stack so that I can display the subtopics Table View. My problem: For some reason the first tab's Table View is a delegate and dataSource of the second ta. It doesn't make sense to me and I can't figure out why that's the only setup that works. Here is the wiring: Navigation Controller (Sectors) is a delegate of Tab Bar Navigation Bar is a delegate of Navigation Controller (Sectors) View Contoller (Sectors) has a view of Table View Table View (in Navigation Controller (Sectors)) is a delegate of First View Controller (Companies) Table View (in Navigation Controller (Sectors)) is a dataSource outlet of First View Controller (Companies) First View Controller (Companies) First View Contoller (Sectors) has a view of Table View Table View (in First View Controller (Companies)) is not hooked up to a dataSource outlet and is not a delegate When I click the tab buttons and look at the Inspector I see that the first tab is correctly hooked up to my MainWindow.xib and the second tab has selected a nib called SecondView.xib. It's in the File's Owner of MainWindow.xib where I inherit UITableViewDataSource and UITableViewDelegate (and also UITabBarControllerDelegate) in the .h, and in the .m where I implement the delegate methods. Why does this setup only work when the Table View in my first tab (View Controller (Sectors)) is a delegate and dataSource of the second tab? I'm confused: why wouldn't it need to be hooked up to the Navigation Controller-enabled tab in which the Table View is seen (Navigation Controller (Sectors))? The Table View seen on the second tab has neither dataSource and is not a delegate. I'm having trouble getting a pushViewController to fire (self.navigationController is not nil but the new View Controller still doesn't load) and I suspect that I need to work out this IB wiring issue before I can troubleshoot why the Nav Controller won't push a new View Controller onto the stack. if(nil == self.navigationController) { NSLog(@"self.navigationController is nil."); } else { NSLog(@"self.navigationController is not nil."); SectorList *subsectorViewController = [[SectorList alloc] initWithNibName:@"SectorList" bundle:nil]; subsectorViewController.title = @"Subsectors"; [[self navigationController] pushViewController:subsectorViewController animated:YES]; [subsectorViewController release]; }

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  • Mac Safari randomly recreating cookie when I refresh my login screen. Very bizarre

    - by mcintyre321
    We have found an issue in our app where Safari on the Mac randomly recreates a login cookie from a logged off session. I have a fiddler archive with this behaviour here. Note that some stuff has been removed from this to make it easier to get, but nothing which sets a cookie or anything has been taken out - only repetitions of requests 3-8. I'll talk you through the running order Request 1: user logs out via call to /logout.aspx - Set-Cookie returned setting cookie expiry date to 1999 Requests 2-8: user refreshes login page sending calls to root or /res/en-US/s.js - no cookie is sent to server or received back, and access is denied. I have cut out a lot of requests of this nature from the log as they are boring Request 9: request for /res/en-US/s.js - Hv3 authentication cookie has mysteriously reappeared! Wat. There was NO set-cookie! WTFF! Request 10+ : now the cookie has reappeared, the site logs the user in AGAIN The cookie, when examined in Safari looks like <dict> <key>Created</key> <real>259603523.26834899</real> <key>Domain</key> <string>.mysite.dev</string> <key>Expires</key> <date>2010-03-24T16:05:22Z</date> <key>HttpOnly</key> <string>TRUE</string> <key>Name</key> <string>.Hv3</string> <key>Path</key> <string>/</string> </dict> One thing to note is that in Safari, the cookie domain is .mysite.dev not mysite.dev (which is the cookie domain specified in web.config) - however, given that access is denied in requests 2-8, it looks like the cookie has expired OK. If you look in the list of cookies in the browser during 2-8, the .Hv3 cookie is not there. Is this our bug or Safari's? What can I do to stop it happening?

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  • jQuery + Dialog Form Validation

    - by Panther24
    Hi, I have a jQuery Dialog form and on submit I'm trying to validate the fields. I'm using http://docs.jquery.com/Plugins/Validation to validate. In this I'm facing an issue, the validate function is not being called. I'm posting some snippet of my code $("#register-dialog-form").dialog({ autoOpen: false, height: 350, width: 450, modal: true, buttons: { 'Register': function() { $("#registerFrm").validate({ rules: { accountid: "required", name: { required: true, minlength: 5 }, username: { required: true, minlength: 5 }, password: { required: true, minlength: 5 } }, messages: { firstname: "Please enter your firstname", accountid: "Please enter the lastname", name: "Please enter a user friendly name", username: { required: "Please enter a username", minlength: jQuery.format("Enter at least {0} characters") }, password: { required: "Please provide a password", minlength: jQuery.format("Password must be at least {0} characters long") } } }); //****************** //TODO: Need to submit my form here //****************** $(this).dialog('close'); }, Cancel: function() { $(this).dialog('close'); } }, close: function() { //$('registerFrm').clearForm(); } }); Can someone please tell me what I'm doing wrong here. I've also tried to put the validation into $(document).ready(function() {}, but with no success. Here is the html code <div id="register-dialog-form" title="Register Account - Master" align="center" style="display: none"> <s:form name="registerFrm" id="registerFrm" action="registermaster" method="POST"> <table width="90%" border="0" class="ui-widget"> <tr> <td> <s:textfield label="Account Id" name="accountid" id="accountid" cssClass="text ui-widget-content ui-corner-all" /> </td> </tr> <tr> <td> <s:textfield label="Name" name="name" id="name" cssClass="text ui-widget-content ui-corner-all" /> </td> </tr> <tr> <td> <s:textfield label="Username" name="username" id="username" cssClass="text ui-widget-content ui-corner-all" /> </td> </tr> <tr> <td> <s:password label="Password" name="password" id="password" cssClass="text ui-widget-content ui-corner-all" /> </td> </tr> </table> </s:form> </div><!--End of RegisterAcc form-->

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  • Safely escaping and reading back a file path in ruby

    - by user336851
    I need to save a few informations about some files. Nothing too fancy so I thought I would go with a simple one line per item text file. Something like this : # write io.print "%i %s %s\n" % [File.mtime(fname), fname, Digest::SHA1.file(fname).hexdigest] # read io.each do |line| mtime, name, hash = line.scanf "%i %s %s" end Of course this doesn't work because a file name can contain spaces (breaking scanf) and line breaks (breaking IO#each). The line break problem can be avoided by dropping the use of each and going with a bunch of gets(' ') while not io.eof? mtime = Time.at(io.gets(" ").to_i) name = io.gets " " hash = io.gets "\n" end Dealing with spaces in the names is another matter. Now we need to do some escaping. note : I like space as a record delimiter but I'd have no issue changing it for one easier to use. In the case of filenames though, the only one that could help is ascii nul "\0" but a nul delimited file isn't really a text file anymore... I initially had a wall of text detailing the iterations of my struggle to make a correct escaping function and its reciprocal but it was just boring and not really useful. I'll just give you the final result: def write_name(io, val) io << val.gsub(/([\\ ])/, "\\\\\\1") # yes that' 6 backslashes ! end def read_name(io) name, continued = "", true while continued continued = false name += io.gets(' ').gsub(/\\(.)/) do |c| if c=="\\\\" "\\" elsif c=="\\ " continued=true " " else raise "unexpected backslash escape : %p (%s %i)" % [c, io.path, io.pos] end end end return name.chomp(' ') end I'm not happy at all with read_name. Way too long and akward, I feel it shouldn't be that hard. While trying to make this work I tried to come up with other ways : the bittorrent encoded / php serialize way : prefix the file name with the length of the name then just io.read(name_len.to_i). It works but it's a real pita to edit the file by hand. At this point we're halfway to a binary format. String#inspect : This one looks expressly made for that purpose ! Except it seems like the only way to get the value back is through eval. I hate the idea of eval-ing a string I didn't generate from trusted data. So. Opinions ? Isn't there some lib which can do all this ? Am I missing something obvious ? How would you do that ?

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  • KnockoutJS showing a sorted list by item category

    - by Darksbane
    I just started learning knockout this week and everything has gone well except for this one issue. I have a list of items that I sort multiple ways but one of the ways I want to sort needs to have a different display than the standard list. As an example lets say I have this code var BetterListModel = function () { var self = this; food = [ { "name":"Apple", "quantity":"3", "category":"Fruit", "cost":"$1", },{ "name":"Ice Cream", "quantity":"1", "category":"Dairy", "cost":"$6", },{ "name":"Pear", "quantity":"2", "category":"Fruit", "cost":"$2", },{ "name":"Beef", "quantity":"1", "category":"Meat", "cost":"$3", },{ "name":"Milk", "quantity":"5", "category":"Dairy", "cost":"$4", }]; self.allItems = ko.observableArray(food); // Initial items // Initial sort self.sortMe = ko.observable("name"); ko.utils.compareItems = function (l, r) { if (self.sortMe() =="cost"){ return l.cost > r.cost ? 1 : -1 } else if (self.sortMe() =="category"){ return l.category > r.category ? 1 : -1 } else if (self.sortMe() =="quantity"){ return l.quantity > r.quantity ? 1 : -1 }else { return l.name > r.name ? 1 : -1 } }; }; ko.applyBindings(new BetterListModel()); and the HTML <p>Your values:</p> <ul class="deckContents" data-bind="foreach:allItems().sort(ko.utils.compareItems)"> <li><div style="width:100%"><div class="left" style="width:30px" data-bind="text:quantity"></div><div class="left fixedWidth" data-bind="text:name"></div> <div class="left fixedWidth" data-bind="text:cost"></div> <div class="left fixedWidth" data-bind="text:category"></div><div style="clear:both"></div></div></li> </ul> <select data-bind="value:sortMe"> <option selected="selected" value="name">Name</option> <option value="cost">Cost</option> <option value="category">Category</option> <option value="quantity">Quantity</option> </select> </div> So I can sort these just fine by any field I might sort them by name and it will display something like this 3 Apple $1 Fruit 1 Beef $3 Meat 1 Ice Cream $6 Dairy 5 Milk $4 Dairy 2 Pear $2 Fruit Here is a fiddle of what I have so far http://jsfiddle.net/Darksbane/X7KvB/ This display is fine for all the sorts except the category sort. What I want is when I sort them by category to display it like this Fruit 3 Apple $1 Fruit 2 Pear $2 Fruit Meat 1 Beef $3 Meat Dairy 1 Ice Cream $6 Dairy 5 Milk $4 Dairy Does anyone have any idea how I might be able to display this so differently for that one sort?

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  • C++ Stack Overflow

    - by PhilMAN
    Here is some code: void main() { GameEngine ge("phil", "anotherguy"); string response; do { ge.playGame(); cout << endl << "Do you want to (r)eplay the same battle, (s)tart a new battle, or (q)uit? "; cin >> response; } while(response == "r" || response == "R" || response == "s" || response == "S" ); } GameEngine::GameEngine(string name1, string name2) { p1Name = name1; p2Name = name2; } void GameEngine::playGame() { cout << "PLAY GAME" << endl; Army p1, p2; Battlefield testField; RuleSet rs; int xSize = 13; // Number of rows int ySize = 13; // Number of columns loadData(p1, p2, testField, rs, xSize, ySize); ... } void GameEngine::loadData(Army& p1, Army& p2, Battlefield& testField, RuleSet& rs, int& xSize, int& ySize) { string terrain = BattlefieldUtils::pickTerrain(); string armySplit[14];//id index 1 string ruleSplit[19];//in index 7 string armyP1, armyP2, ruleSet; Skill p1Skills[8]; Skill p2Skills[8]; CreatureStack p1Stacks[20]; CreatureStack p2Stacks[20]; ... } CreatureStack(){quantity = 0; isLive = false; id = -1;}; Army(){}; Battlefield(){}; RuleSet(){}; I have posted every line of code that executes until the program crashes. This code ran fine for a long time, I added some stuff that does not even execute until way after the code I have posted here, and bam stack overflow that occurs at GameEngine::loadData() line: CreatureStack p2Stacks[20]; will not go away. What am I doing wrong here? Is that all the stack can handle? I increased the stack size in Visual Studio and got the error to go away, but that slowed things down considerably, so I would rather just get to the source of the issue and fix that.

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  • NSNotifications vs delegate for multiple instances of same protocol

    - by Brent Traut
    I could use some architectural advice. I've run into the following problem a few times now and I've never found a truly elegant way to solve it. The issue, described at the highest level possible:I have a parent class that would like to act as the delegate for multiple children (all using the same protocol), but when the children call methods on the parent, the parent no longer knows which child is making the call. I would like to use loose coupling (delegates/protocols or notifications) rather than direct calls. I don't need multiple handlers, so notifications seem like they might be overkill. To illustrate the problem, let me try a super-simplified example: I start with a parent view controller (and corresponding view). I create three child views and insert each of them into the parent view. I would like the parent view controller to be notified whenever the user touches one of the children. There are a few options to notify the parent: Define a protocol. The parent implements the protocol and sets itself as the delegate to each of the children. When the user touches a child view, its view controller calls its delegate (the parent). In this case, the parent is notified that a view is touched, but it doesn't know which one. Not good enough. Same as #1, but define the methods in the protocol to also pass some sort of identifier. When the child tells its delegate that it was touched, it also passes a pointer to itself. This way, the parent know exactly which view was touched. It just seems really strange for an object to pass a reference to itself. Use NSNotifications. The parent defines a separate method for each of the three children and then subscribes to the "viewWasTouched" notification for each of the three children as the notification sender. The children don't need to attach themselves to the user dictionary, but they do need to send the notification with a pointer to themselves as the scope. Same as #4, but rather than using separate methods, the parent could just use one with a switch case or other branching along with the notification's sender to determine which path to take. Create multiple man-in-the-middle classes that act as the delegates to the child views and then call methods on the parent either with a pointer to the child or with some other differentiating factor. This approach doesn't seem scalable. Are any of these approaches considered best practice? I can't say for sure, but it feels like I'm missing something more obvious/elegant.

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  • Programmatically triggering events in Javascript for IE using jQuery

    - by Dan Herbert
    When an Event is triggered by a user in IE, it is set to the window.event object. The only way to see what triggered the event is by accessing the window.event object (as far as I know) This causes a problem in ASP.NET validators if an event is triggered programmatically, like when triggering an event through jQuery. In this case, the window.event object stores the last user-triggered event. When the onchange event is fired programmatically for a text box that has an ASP.NET validator attached to it, the validation breaks because it is looking at the element that fired last event, which is not the element the validator is for. Does anyone know a way around this? It seems like a problem that is solvable, but from looking online, most people just find ways to ignore the problem instead of solving it. To explain what I'm doing specifically: I'm using a jQuery time picker plugin on a text box that also has 2 ASP.NET validators associated with it. When the time is changed, I'm using an update panel to post back to the server to do some things dynamically, so I need the onchange event to fire in order to trigger the postback for that text box. The jQuery time picker operates by creating a hidden unordered list that is made visible when the text box is clicked. When one of the list items is clicked, the "change" event is fired programmatically for the text box through jQuery's change() method. Because the trigger for the event was a list item, IE sees the list item as the source of the event, not the text box, like it should. I'm not too concerned with this ASP.NET validator working as soon as the text box is changed, I just need the "change" event to be processed so my postback event is called for the text box. The problem is that the validator throws an exception in IE which stops any event from being triggered. Firefox (and I assume other browsers) don't have this issue. Only IE due to the different event model. Has anyone encountered this and seen how to fix it? I've found this problem reported several other places, but they offer no solutions: jQuery's forum, with the jQuery UI Datepicker and an ASP.NET Validator ASP.NET forums, bug with ValidatorOnChange() function

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  • What is the proper way to change the UINavigationController transition effect

    - by Felipe Sabino
    I have seen lots of people asking on how to push/pop UINavigationControllers using other animations besides the default one, like flip or curl. The problem is that either the question/answer was relative old, which means the have some things like [UIView beginAnimations:] (example here) or they use two very different approaches. The first is to use UIView's transitionFromView:toView:duration:options:completion: selector before pushing the controller (with the animation flag set to NO), like the following: UIViewController *ctrl = [[UIViewController alloc] init]; [UIView transitionFromView:self.view toView:ctrl.view duration:1 options:UIViewAnimationOptionTransitionFlipFromTop completion:nil]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:ctrl animated:NO]; Another one is to use CoreAnimation explicitly with a CATransaction like the following: // remember you will have to have the QuartzCore framework added to your project for this approach and also add <QuartzCore/QuartzCore.h> to the class this code is used CATransition* transition = [CATransition animation]; transition.timingFunction = [CAMediaTimingFunction functionWithName:kCAMediaTimingFunctionEaseIn]; transition.duration = 1.0f; transition.type = @"flip"; transition.subtype = @"fromTop"; [self.navigationController.view.layer removeAllAnimations]; [self.navigationController.view.layer addAnimation:transition forKey:kCATransition]; UIViewController *ctrl = [[UIViewController alloc] init]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:ctrl animated:NO]; There are pros and cons for both approaches. The first approach gives me a much cleaner code but restricts me from using animations like "suckEffect", "cube" and others. The second approach feels wrong just by looking at it. It starts by using undocumented transitions types (i.e. not present in the Common transition types documentation from CATransition Class Reference) which might get your app rejected from App Store (I mean might as I could not found any reference of apps being rejected because it was using this transactions, which I would also appreciate any clarification on this matter), but it gives you much more flexibility on your animations, as I can use other animation types such as "cameraIris", "rippleEffect" and so on. Regarding all that, do I really need to appeal for QuartzCore and CoreAnimation whenever I need a fancier UINavigationController transition? Is there any other way to accomplish the same effect using only UIKit? If not, will the use of string values like "flip" and "cube" instead of the pre-defined constants (kCATransitionFade, kCATransitionMoveIn, etc...) be an issue regarding my app approval in the App Store? Also, are there other pros and cons regarding both approaches that could help me deciding whether to choose each one of them?

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  • Returning JSON in CFFunction and appending it to layer is causing an error

    - by Mel
    I'm using the qTip jQuery plugin to generate a dynamic tooltip. I'm getting an error in my JS, and I'm unsure if its source is the JSON or the JS. The tooltip calls the following function: (sorry about all this code, but it's necessary) <cffunction name="fGameDetails" access="remote" returnType="any" returnformat="JSON" output="false" hint="This grabs game details for the games.cfm page"> <!---Argument, which is the game ID---> <cfargument name="gameID" type="numeric" required="true" hint="CFC will look for GameID and retrieve its details"> <!---Local var---> <cfset var qGameDetails = ""> <!---Database query---> <cfquery name="qGameDetails" datasource="#REQUEST.datasource#"> SELECT titles.titleName AS tName, titles.titleBrief AS tBrief, games.gameID, games.titleID, games.releaseDate AS rDate, genres.genreName AS gName, platforms.platformAbbr AS pAbbr, platforms.platformName AS pName, creviews.cReviewScore AS rScore, ratings.ratingName AS rName FROM games Inner Join platforms ON platforms.platformID = games.platformID Inner Join titles ON titles.titleID = games.titleID Inner Join genres ON genres.genreID = games.genreID Inner Join creviews ON games.gameID = creviews.gameID Inner Join ratings ON ratings.ratingID = games.ratingID WHERE (games.gameID = #ARGUMENTS.gameID#); </cfquery> <cfreturn qGameDetails> </cffunction> This function returns the following JSON: { "COLUMNS": [ "TNAME", "TBRIEF", "GAMEID", "TITLEID", "RDATE", "GNAME", "PABBR", "PNAME", "RSCORE", "RNAME" ], "DATA": [ [ "Dark Void", "Ancient gods known as 'The Watchers,' once banished from our world by superhuman Adepts, have returned with a vengeance.", 154, 54, "January, 19 2010 00:00:00", "Action & Adventure", "PS3", "Playstation 3", 3.3, "14 Anos" ] ] } The problem I'm having is every time I try to append the JSON to the layer #catalog, I get a syntax error that says "missing parenthetical." This is the JavaScript I'm using: $(document).ready(function() { $('#catalog a[href]').each(function() { $(this).qtip( { content: { url: '/gamezilla/resources/components/viewgames.cfc?method=fGameDetails', data: { gameID: $(this).attr('href').match(/gameID=([0-9]+)$/)[1] }, method: 'get' }, api: { beforeContentUpdate: function(content) { var json = eval('(' + content + ')'); content = $('<div />').append( $('<h1 />', { html: json.TNAME })); return content; } }, style: { width: 300, height: 300, padding: 0, name: 'light', tip: { corner: 'leftMiddle', size: { x: 40, y : 40 } } }, position: { corner: { target: 'rightMiddle', tooltip: 'leftMiddle' } } }); }); }); Any ideas where I'm going wrong? I tried many things for several days and I can't find the issue. Many thanks!

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  • .NET Free memory usage (how to prevent overallocation / release memory to the OS)

    - by Ronan Thibaudau
    I'm currently working on a website that makes large use of cached data to avoid roundtrips. At startup we get a "large" graph (hundreds of thouthands of different kinds of objects). Those objects are retrieved over WCF and deserialized (we use protocol buffers for serialization) I'm using redgate's memory profiler to debug memory issues (the memory didn't seem to fit with how much memory we should need "after" we're done initializing and end up with this report Now what we can gather from this report is that: 1) Most of the memory .NET allocated is free (it may have been rightfully allocated during deserialisation, but now that it's free, i'd like for it to return to the OS) 2) Memory is fragmented (which is bad, as everytime i refresh the cash i need to redo the memory hungry deserialisation process and this, in turn creates large object that may throw an OutOfMemoryException due to fragmentation) 3) I have no clue why the space is fragmented, because when i look at the large object heap, there are only 30 instances, 15 object[] are directly attached to the GC and totally unrelated to me, 1 is a char array also attached directly to the GC Heap, the remaining 15 are mine but are not the cause of this as i get the same report if i comment them out in code. So my question is, what can i do to go further with this? I'm not really sure what to look for in debugging / tools as it seems my memory is fragmented, but not by me, and huge amounts of free spaces are allocated by .net , which i can't release. Also please make sure you understand the question well before answering, i'm not looking for a way to free memory within .net (GC.Collect), but to free memory that is already free in .net , to the system as well as to defragment said memory. Note that a slow solution is fine, if it's possible to manually defragment the large heap i'd be all for it as i can call it at the end of RefreshCache and it's ok if it takes 1 or 2 second to run. Thanks for your help! A few notes i forgot: 1) The project is a .net 2.0 website, i get the same results running it in a .net 4 pool, idem if i run it in a .net 4 pool and convert it to .net 4 and recompile. 2) These are results of a release build, so debug build can not be the issue. 3) And this is probably quite important, i do not get these issues at all in the webdev server, only in IIS, in the webdev i get memory consumption rather close to my actual consumption (well more, but not 5-10X more!)

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  • Perfect Forwarding to async lambda

    - by Alexander Kondratskiy
    I have a function template, where I want to do perfect forwarding into a lambda that I run on another thread. Here is a minimal test case which you can directly compile: #include <thread> #include <future> #include <utility> #include <iostream> #include <vector> /** * Function template that does perfect forwarding to a lambda inside an * async call (or at least tries to). I want both instantiations of the * function to work (one for lvalue references T&, and rvalue reference T&&). * However, I cannot get the code to compile when calling it with an lvalue. * See main() below. */ template <typename T> std::string accessValueAsync(T&& obj) { std::future<std::string> fut = std::async(std::launch::async, [](T&& vec) mutable { return vec[0]; }, std::forward<T>(obj)); return fut.get(); } int main(int argc, char const *argv[]) { std::vector<std::string> lvalue{"Testing"}; // calling with what I assume is an lvalue reference does NOT compile std::cout << accessValueAsync(lvalue) << std::endl; // calling with rvalue reference compiles std::cout << accessValueAsync(std::move(lvalue)) << std::endl; // I want both to compile. return 0; } For the non-compiling case, here is the last line of the error message which is intelligible: main.cpp|13 col 29| note: no known conversion for argument 1 from ‘std::vector<std::basic_string<char> >’ to ‘std::vector<std::basic_string<char> >&’ I have a feeling it may have something to do with how T&& is deduced, but I can't pinpoint the exact point of failure and fix it. Any suggestions? Thank you! EDIT: I am using gcc 4.7.0 just in case this could be a compiler issue (probably not)

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  • Problem with character encoding on email sent via PHP?

    - by cosgrove
    Hi everybody, Having some trouble sending properly formatted HTML e-mail from a PHP script. I am running PHP 5.3.0 and Apache 2.2.11 on Windows XP Professional. The output looks like this: Agent Summary for Support on Tuesday April 20 2010=20 Ext. Name Time Volume 137 Agent Name 01:27:25 1 138 =09 00:00:00 0 139 =09 00:00:00 0 You see the =20 and =09 in there? If you look at the HTML you also see = signs being turned into =3D. I figure this is a character encoding issue as I read the following at Wikipedia: ISO-8859-1 and Windows-1252 confusion It is very common to mislabel text data with the charset label ISO-8859-1, even though the data is really Windows-1252 encoded. In Windows-1252, codes between 0x80 and 0x9F are used for letters and punctuation, whereas they are control codes in ISO-8859-1. Many web browsers and e-mail clients will interpret ISO-8859-1 control codes as Windows-1252 characters in order to accommodate such mislabeling but it is not standard behaviour and care should be taken to avoid generating these characters in ISO-8859-1 labeled content. This looks like the problem but I don't know how to fix. My code looks like this: ob_start(); report_queue_summary($yesterday,$yesterday,$first_extension,$last_extension,$queue); $body_report = ob_get_contents(); ob_end_clean(); $body_footer = "This is an automatically generated e-mail."; $message = new Mail_mime(); $html = $body_header.$body_report.$body_footer; $message->setHTMLBody($html); $body = $message->get(); $extraheaders = array("From"=>"***redacted***","To"=>$recipient, "Subject"=>"Agent Summary for $yesterday [$queue]", "Content-type"=>"text/html; charset=iso-8859-1"); $headers = $message->headers($extraheaders); # setup e-mail; $host = "*********"; $port = "26"; $username = "*****"; $password = "*****"; # Send e-mail $smtp = Mail::factory('smtp', array ('host' => $host, 'port' => $port, 'auth' => true, 'username' => $username, 'password' => $password)); $mail = $smtp->send($recipient, $extraheaders, $body); if (PEAR::isError($mail)) { echo("" . $mail->getMessage() . ""); } else { echo("Message successfully sent!"); } Is the problem that I'm using output buffering?

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  • Finding open contiguous blocks of time for every day of a month, fast

    - by Chris
    I am working on a booking availability system for a group of several venues, and am having a hard time generating the availability of time blocks for days in a given month. This is happening server-side in PHP, but the concept itself is language agnostic -- I could be doing this in JS or anything else. Given a venue_id, month, and year (6/2012 for example), I have a list of all events occurring in that range at that venue, represented as unix timestamps start and end. This data comes from the database. I need to establish what, if any, contiguous block of time of a minimum length (different per venue) exist on each day. For example, on 6/1 I have an event between 2:00pm and 7:00pm. The minimum time is 5 hours, so there's a block open there from 9am - 2pm and another between 7pm and 12pm. This would continue for the 2nd, 3rd, etc... every day of June. Some (most) of the days have nothing happening at all, some have 1 - 3 events. The solution I came up with works, but it also takes waaaay too long to generate the data. Basically, I loop every day of the month and create an array of timestamps for each 15 minutes of that day. Then, I loop the time spans of events from that day by 15 minutes, marking any "taken" timeslot as false. Remaining, I have an array that contains timestamp of free time vs. taken time: //one day's array after processing through loops (not real timestamps) array( 12345678=>12345678, // <--- avail 12345878=>12345878, 12346078=>12346078, 12346278=>false, // <--- not avail 12346478=>false, 12346678=>false, 12346878=>false, 12347078=>12347078, // <--- avail 12347278=>12347278 ) Now I would need to loop THIS array to find continuous time blocks, then check to see if they are long enough (each venue has a minimum), and if so then establish the descriptive text for their start and end (i.e. 9am - 2pm). WHEW! By the time all this looping is done, the user has grown bored and wandered off to Youtube to watch videos of puppies; it takes ages to so examine 30 or so days. Is there a faster way to solve this issue? To summarize the problem, given time ranges t1 and t2 on day d, how can I determine the remaining time left in d that is longer than the minimum time block m. This data is assembled on demand via AJAX as the user moves between calendar months. Results are cached per-page-load, so if the user goes to July a second time, the data that was generated the first time would be reused. Any other details that would help, let me know. Edit Per request, the database structure (or the part that is relevant here) *events* id (bigint) title (varchar) *event_times* id (bigint) event_id (bigint) venue_id (bigint) start (bigint) end (bigint) *venues* id (bigint) name (varchar) min_block (int) min_start (varchar) max_start (varchar)

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  • SQL not yielding expected results

    - by AnonJr
    I have three tables related to this particular query: Lawson_Employees: LawsonID (pk), LastName, FirstName, AccCode (numeric) Lawson_DeptInfo: AccCode (pk), AccCode2 (don't ask, HR set up), DisplayName tblExpirationDates: EmpID (pk), ACLS (date), EP (date), CPR (date), CPR_Imported (date), PALS (date), Note The goal is to get the data I need to report on all those who have already expired in one or more certification, or are going to expire in the next 90 days. Some important notes: This is being run as part of a vbScript, so the 90-day date is being calculated when the script is run. I'm using 2010-08-31 as a placeholder since its the result at the time this question is being posted. All cards expire at the end of the month. (which is why the above date is for the end of August and not 90 days on the dot) A valid EP card supersedes ACLS certification, but only the latter is required of some employees. (wasn't going to worry about it until I got this question answered, but if I can get the help I'll take it) The CPR column contains the expiration date for the last class they took with us. (NULL if they didn't take any classes with us) The CPR_Imported column contains the expiration date for the last class they took somewhere else. (NULL if they didn't take it elsewhere, and bravo for following policy) The distinction between CPR classes is important for other reports. For purposes of this report, all we really care about is which one is the most current - or at least is currently current. If I have to, I'll ignore ACLS and PALS for the time being as it is non-compliance with CPR training that is the big issue at the moment. (not that the others won't be, but they weren't mentioned in the last meeting...) Here's the query I have so far, which is giving me good data: SELECT iEmp.LawsonID, iEmp.LastName, iEmp.FirstName, dept.AccCode2, dept.DisplayName, Exp.ACLS, Exp.EP, Exp.CPR, Exp.CPR_Imported, Exp.PALS, Exp.Note FROM (Lawson_Employees AS iEmp LEFT JOIN Lawson_DeptInfo AS dept ON dept.AccCode = iEmp.AccCode) LEFT JOIN tblExpirationDates AS Exp ON iEmp.LawsonID = Exp.EmpID WHERE iEmp.CurrentEmp = 1 AND ((Exp.ACLS <= #2010-08-31# AND Exp.ACLS IS NOT NULL) OR (Exp.CPR <= #2010-08-31# AND Exp.CPR_Imported <= #2010-08-31#) OR (Exp.PALS <= #2010-08-31# AND Exp.PALS IS NOT NULL)) ORDER BY dept.AccCode2, iEmp.LastName, iEmp.FirstName; After perusing the result set, I think I'm missing some expiration dates that should be in the result set. Am I missing something? This is the sucky part of being the only developer in the department... no one to ask for a little help.

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