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  • broken SQL 2008 SP1 Web Edition (can not login with SSMS)

    - by gerryLowry
    Scenario: My installation of SQL Server 2008 Web Edition SP1 was working properly. Since I've recently joined Microsoft's Website Spark*, I removed SQL2008 and installed SQL 2008 again using my Website Spark edition and license from the MSDN download site. Next, I updated SQL 2008 to SP1 (this is required because I'm running Windows 2008 Server R2 Web edition). When I launch SSMS (SQL Server Management Studio), "User name" is "myhost\Administrator" and is greyed out so it can not be changed. When I installed my Website Spark version, I did not include "myhost\Administrator" when I was configuring SQL 2008 service accounts. Instead I created an administrator account "myhost\mySQLaccount". ERROR MESSAGE: Connect to Server (X) Cannot connect to (local) Additional information: Login failed for user 'myhost'Admistrator' (Microsoft SQL Server, Error: 18456) I tried to use the SQL Server Configuration Manager to correct this problem but could not find any useful way to fix this issue. How to I fix this problem? Connect to Server ... Server type: Database Engine Server name: (local) Authentication: Windows Authentication Please advise. Thank you. Gerry * http://www.microsoft.com/web/websitespark/default.aspx

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  • Authenticating GTK app to run with root permissions

    - by Thomas Tempelmann
    I have a UI app (uses GTK) for Linux that requires to be run as root (it reads and writes /dev/disk*). Instead of requiring the user to open a root shell or use "sudo" manually every time when he launches my app, I wonder if the app can use some OS-provided API to ask the user to relaunch the app with root permissions. (Note: gtk app's can't use "setuid" mode, so that's not an option here.) The advantage here would be an easier workflow: The user could, from his default user account, double click my app from the desktop, and the app then would relaunch itself with root permission after been authenticated by the API/OS. I ask this because OS X offers exactly this: An app can ask the OS to launch an executable with root permissions - the OS (and not the app) then asks the user to input his credentials, verifies them and then launches the target as desired. I wonder if there's something similar for Linux (Ubuntu, e.g.) Update: The app is a remote operated disk repair tool for the unsavvy Linux user, and those Linux noobs won't have much understanding of using sudo or even changing their user's group memberships, especially if their disk just started acting up and they're freaking out. That's why I seek a solution that avoids technicalities like this.

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  • Bootstrapper (setup.exe) says ".NET 3.5 not found" but launching .msi directly installs application

    - by Marek
    Our installer generates a bootstrapper (setup.exe) and a MSI file - a pretty common scenario. One of the production machines reports a strange problem during install: If the user launches the bootstrapper (setup.exe), it reports that .NET 3.5 is not installed. This happens with account under administator group. No matter if they launch it as administrator or not, same behavior. the application installs fine when application.msi or OurInstallLauncher.exe (see below for explanation) is started directly no matter if run as administrator is applied. We have checked that .NET is installed on the machine (both 64bit and 32bit "versions" = under both C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework64 and C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework there is a folder named v3.5. This happens on a 64 bit Windows 7. I can not reproduce it on my development 64 bit Windows 7. On Windows XP and Vista, it has worked without any problem for a long time so far. Part of our build script that declares the GenerateBootStrapper task (nothing special): <ItemGroup> <BootstrapperFile Include="Microsoft.Windows.Installer.3.1"> <ProductName>Microsoft Windows Installer 3.1</ProductName> </BootstrapperFile> <BootstrapperFile Include="Microsoft.Net.Framework.3.5"> <ProductName>Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5</ProductName> </BootstrapperFile> </ItemGroup> <GenerateBootstrapper ApplicationFile=".\Files\OurInstallLauncher.exe" ApplicationName="App name" Culture="en" ComponentsLocation ="HomeSite" CopyComponents="True" Validate="True" BootstrapperItems="@(BootstrapperFile)" OutputPath="$(OutSubDir)" Path="$(SdkBootstrapperPath)" /> Note: OurInstallLauncher.exe is language selector that applies a transform to the msi based on user selection. This is not relevant to the question at all because the installer never gets as far as launching this exe! It displays that .NET 3.5 is missing right after starting setup.exe. Has anyone seen this behavior before?

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  • Prevent Navigation to CreateUserWizardStep in the Postback event of nextbutton

    - by Aparna
    I am working with CreateUserWizard tool for creating a registration page. This is the first time and I am encountering problem with the following: I defined two steps in WizardSteps in the page: <WizardSteps> <asp:WizardStep ID="CreateUserWizardStep0" runat="server" Title="Sign Up for your new Account !!"> <asp:TextBox ID="Email" runat="server"> In the first wizard step, the user provides email, and we need to check if this email meets certain criteria (if he exists in our internal database, country is US etc) and if he/she is eligible navigate to CreateUserWizardStep1. I have a StartNextButton in the Start Navigation template for the WizardStep0. <StartNavigationTemplate> <br /> <asp:Button ID="StartNextButton" runat="server" CommandName="MoveNext" OnClick="StartNextButton_Click" Text="Check My Eligibility" /> </StartNavigationTemplate> I do all the logic of checking eligibility in the post-back event OnClick="StartNextButton_Click . If he is not eligible, I should display the error message in the step0 textbox and prevent navigation to CreateUserWizardStep1. I tried the following: if(noteligible) { lblError1.Visible = true; lblError1.Text = this.hfUserAlreadyRegistered.Value.ToString(); this.CreateUserWizard1.ActiveStepIndex = this.CreateUserWizard1.WizardSteps.IndexOf(this.CreateUserWizardStep0); this.CreateUserWizard1.Controls.Remove(CreateUserWizardStep1); this.CreateUserWizard1.ActiveStepIndex = 0; break; } But this is not working. I am taken out of step0 and step1 is coming irrespective of this. How can I just remain in Step0 and display the error message when the user is not eligible and navigate to Step1 only when he is eligible to register ? Thank you very much.

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  • ASP.NET MVC 2 strange behavior

    - by Voice
    Hi Recently I installed VS 2010 Release (migrated from RC) and my MVC application is not working anymore. More concrete: I have a wizard with several steps for new customer account creation (Jquery form wizard, but it doesn't really matter). Each step contains a typed partial View for each part of account: Company, Customer, Licence, etc. When I submit the form I see really strange thing in ModelState. There are duplicate keys for Company: with "Company" prefix and without it. Something like this: [6] "Company.Phone" string [12] "Phone" string My model state for all these keys is not valid because Company is actually null and validation fails. When it was RC there were no such keys with "Company" prefix. So these keys in ModelState with prefix "Company" appeared after I installed VS Release. Here is my code: Main View <div id="registerSteps"> <div id="firstStep" class="step"> <fieldset> <legend><%=Html.Encode(Register.CustomerInfo) %></legend> <% Html.RenderPartial("CustomerInfo", ViewData["newCust"]); %> </fieldset> </div> <div id="secondStep" class="step"> <fieldset> <legend><%=Html.Encode(Register.CompanyInfo) %></legend> <% Html.RenderPartial("CompanyInfo", ViewData["newComp"]); %> </fieldset> </div> <div id="thirdStep" class="step"> <fieldset> <legend><%=Html.Encode(Register.LicenceInfo) %></legend> <% Html.RenderPartial("LicenceInfo", ViewData["newLic"]); %> </fieldset> </div> <div id="lastStep" class="step"> <fieldset> <legend><%=Html.Encode(Register.PrivacyStatement) %></legend> <% Html.RenderPartial("PrivacyStatementInfo"); %> </fieldset> </div> <div id="registerNavigation"> <input class="navigation_button" value="Back" type="reset"/> <input class="navigation_button" value="Next" type="submit"/> </div> </div> Two partial views (to show that they are actually identical): Company: <div id="dCompanyInfo"> <div> <div> <%=Html.LocalizableLabelFor(company => company.Name, Register.CompanyName) %> </div> <div> <%=Html.TextBoxFor(company => company.Name) %> <%=Html.ValidationMessageFor(company => company.Name) %> </div> </div> <div> <div> <%=Html.LocalizableLabelFor(company => company.Phone, Register.Phone) %> </div> <div> <%=Html.TextBoxFor(company => company.Phone) %> <%=Html.ValidationMessageFor(company => company.Phone) %> </div> </div> <div> <div> <%=Html.LocalizableLabelFor(company => company.Fax, Register.Fax) %> </div> <div> <%=Html.TextBoxFor(company => company.Fax) %> <%=Html.ValidationMessageFor(company => company.Fax) %> </div> </div> <div> <div> <%=Html.LocalizableLabelFor(company => company.Size_ID, Register.CompanySize) %> </div> <div> <%=Html.ValueListDropDown(company => company.Size_ID, (CodeRoad.AQua.DomainModel.ValueList)ViewData["CompSize"], (string)ViewData["Culture"]) %> <%=Html.ValidationMessageFor(company => company.Size_ID) %> </div> </div> <div> <div> <%=Html.LocalizableLabelFor(company => company.Industry_ID, Register.Industry) %> </div> <div> <%=Html.ValueListDropDown(company => company.Industry_ID, (CodeRoad.AQua.DomainModel.ValueList)ViewData["Industry"], (string)ViewData["Culture"]) %> <%=Html.ValidationMessageFor(company => company.Industry_ID) %> </div> </div> </div> And for Customer <div id="dCustomerInfo"> <div> <div> <%=Html.LocalizableLabelFor(customer => customer.Email, Register.Email) %> </div> <div> <%=Html.TextBoxFor(customer => customer.Email) %> <%=Html.ValidationMessageFor(customer => customer.Email) %> </div> </div> <div> <div> <%=Html.LocalizableLabelFor(customer => customer.Male, Register.Gender) %> </div> <div> <%=Html.ListBoolEditor(customer => customer.Male, Register.Male, Register.Female, Register.GenderOptionLabel) %> <%=Html.ValidationMessageFor(customer => customer.Male) %> </div> </div> <div> <div> <%=Html.LocalizableLabelFor(customer => customer.FirstName, Register.FirstName) %> </div> <div> <%=Html.TextBoxFor(customer => customer.FirstName) %> <%=Html.ValidationMessageFor(customer => customer.FirstName) %> </div> </div> <div> <div> <%=Html.LocalizableLabelFor(customer => customer.LastName, Register.LastName) %> </div> <div> <%=Html.TextBoxFor(customer => customer.LastName) %> <%=Html.ValidationMessageFor(customer => customer.LastName) %> </div> </div> <div> <div> <%=Html.LocalizableLabelFor(customer => customer.Role_ID, Register.Role) %> </div> <div> <%=Html.ValueListDropDown(customer => customer.Role_ID, (CodeRoad.AQua.DomainModel.ValueList)ViewData["OrgRole"], (string)ViewData["Culture"]) %> <%=Html.ValidationMessageFor(customer => customer.Role_ID) %> </div> </div> </div> There are some home made extension methods, but they worked pretty well in previous version (VS RC). Html which is generated is also ok, no "Company.Phone"-like stuff. So I wonder, where all these keys with "Company" came from and what can I do with that? I appreciate any solution.

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  • Urgent: Sort HashSet() function data in sequence

    - by vincent low
    i am new to java, the function i like to perform is something like: i will load a series of data from a file, into my hashSet() function. the problem is, i able to enter all the data in sequence, but i cant retrieve it out in sequence base on the account name in the file. any 1 can help to give a comment? below is my code: public Set retrieveHistory(){ Set dataGroup = new HashSet(); try{ File file = new File("C:\\Documents and Settings\\vincent\\My Documents\\NetBeansProjects\\vincenttesting\\src\\vincenttesting\\vincenthistory.txt"); BufferedReader br = new BufferedReader(new FileReader(file)); String data = br.readLine(); while(data != null){ System.out.println("This is all the record:"+data); Customer cust = new Customer(); //break the data based on the , String array[] = data.split(","); cust.setCustomerName(array[0]); cust.setpassword(array[1]); cust.setlocation(array[2]); cust.setday(array[3]); cust.setmonth(array[4]); cust.setyear(array[5]); cust.setAmount(Double.parseDouble(array[6])); cust.settransaction(Double.parseDouble(array[7])); dataGroup.add(cust); //then proced to read next customer. data = br.readLine(); } br.close(); }catch(Exception e){ System.out.println("error" +e); } return dataGroup; } public static void main(String[] args) { FileReadDataModel fr = new FileReadDataModel(); Set customerGroup = fr.retrieveHistory(); System.out.println(e); for(Object obj : customerGroup){ Customer cust = (Customer)obj; System.out.println("Cust name :" +cust.getCustomerName()); System.out.println("Cust amount :" +cust.getAmount()); }

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  • [Perl] Testing for EAGAIN / EWOULDBLOCK on a recv

    - by Robert S. Barnes
    I'm testing a socket to see if it's still open: my $dummy = ''; my $ret = recv($sock, $dummy, 1, MSG_DONTWAIT | MSG_PEEK); if (!defined $ret || (length($dummy) == 0 && $! != EAGAIN && $! != EWOULDBLOCK )) { logerr("Broken pipe? ".__LINE__." $!"); } else { # socket still connected, reuse logerr(__LINE__.": $!"); return $sock; } I'm passing this code a socket I know for certain is open and it's always going through the first branch and logging "Broken pipe? 149 Resource temporarily unavailable". I don't understand how this is happening since "Resource temporarily unavailable" is supposed to correspond to EAGAIN as far as I know. I'm sure there must be something simple I'm missing. And yes, I know this is not a full proof way to test and I account for that.

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  • Dojox Datagrid contains data, but shows up as empty

    - by Vivek
    I'd really appreciate any help on this. There is this Dojox Datagrid that I'm creating programatically and supplying JSON data. As of now, I'm creating this data within JavaScript itself. Please refer to the below code sample. var upgradeStageStructure =[{ cells:[ { field: "stage", name: "Stage", width: "50%", styles: 'text-align: left;' }, { field:"status", name: "Status", width: "50%", styles: 'text-align: left;' } ] }]; var upgradeStageData = [ {id:1, stage: "Preparation", status: "Complete"}, {id:2, stage: "Formatting", status: "Complete"}, {id:3, stage: "OS Installation", status: "Complete"}, {id:4, stage: "OS Post-Installation", status: "In Progress"}, {id:5, stage: "Application Installation", status: "Not Started"}, {id:6, stage: "Application Post-Installation", status: "Not Started"} ]; var stagestore = new dojo.data.ItemFileReadStore({data:{identifier:"id", items: upgradeStageData}}); var upgradeStatusGrid = new dojox.grid.DataGrid({ autoHeight: true, style: "width:400px;padding:0em;margin:0em;", store: stagestore, clientSort: false, rowSelector: '20px', structure: upgradeStageStructure, columnReordering: false, selectable: false, singleClickEdit: false, selectionMode: 'none', loadingMessage: 'Loading Upgrade Stages', noDataMessage:'There is no data', errorMessage: 'Failed to load Upgrade Status' }); dojo.byId('progressIndicator').innerHTML=''; dojo.byId('progressIndicator').appendChild(upgradeStatusGrid.domNode); upgradeStatusGrid.startup(); The problem is that I am not seeing anything within the grid upon display (no headers, no data). But I know for sure that the data in the grid does exist and the grid is properly initialized, because I called alert (grid.domNode.innerHTML);. The resultant HTML that is thrown up does show a table containing header rows and the above data. This link contains an image which illustrates what I'm seeing when I display the page. (Can't post images since my account is new here) As you may notice, there are 6 rows for 6 pieces of data I have created but the grid is a mess. Please help out if you think you know what could be going wrong. Thanks in advance, Viv

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  • Just messed up a server misusing chown, how to execute it correctly?

    - by Jack Webb-Heller
    Hi! I'm moving from an old shared host to a dedicated server at MediaTemple. The server is running Plesk CP, but, as far as I can tell, there's no way via the Interface to do what I want to do. On the old shared host, running cPanel, I creative a .zip archive of all the website's files. I downloaded this to my computer, then uploaded it with FTP to the new host account I'd set up. Finally, I logged in via SSH, navigated to the directory the zip was stored in (something like var/www/vhosts/mysite.com/httpdocs/ and ran the unzip command on the file sitearchive.zip. This extracted everything just the fine. The site appeared to work just fine. The problem: When I tried to edit a file through FTP, I got Error - 160: Permission Denied. When I Get Info for the file I'm trying to edit, it says the owner and group is swimwir1. I attemped to use chown at this point to change owner - and yes, as you may be able to tell, I'm a little inexperienced in SSH ;) luckily the server was new, since the command I ran - chown -R newuser / appeared to mess a load of stuff up. The reason I used / on the end rather than /var/www/vhosts/mysite.com/httpdocs/ was because I'd already cded into their, so I presumed the / was relative to where I was working. This may be the case, I have no idea, either way - Plesk was no longer accessible, although Apache and things continued to work. I realised my mistake, and deciding it wasn't worth the hassle of 1) being an amateur and 2) trying to fix it, I just reprovisioned the server to start afresh. So - what do I do to change the owner of these files correctly? Thanks for helping out a confused beginner! Jack

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  • How do I relate tables with different foreign key names in Kohana ORM?

    - by Matt H
    I'm building a Kohaha application to manage sip lines in asterisk. I'm wanting to use ORM but I'm wondering how do relate certain tables that are already well established. e.g. the table sip_lines looks like this. +--------------------+------------------+------+-----+-------------------+-----------------------------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +--------------------+------------------+------+-----+-------------------+-----------------------------+ | id | int(10) unsigned | NO | PRI | NULL | auto_increment | | sip_name | varchar(80) | NO | UNI | NULL | | | displayname | varchar(48) | NO | | NULL | | | line_num | varchar(10) | NO | MUL | NULL | | | model | varchar(12) | NO | MUL | NULL | | | mac | varchar(16) | NO | MUL | NULL | | | areacode | varchar(6) | NO | MUL | NULL | | | per_line_astpp_acc | tinyint(1) | NO | | 0 | | | play_warning | tinyint(1) | NO | | 0 | | | callout_disabled | tinyint(1) | NO | | 0 | | | notes | varchar(80) | NO | | NULL | | | last_update | timestamp | NO | | CURRENT_TIMESTAMP | on update CURRENT_TIMESTAMP | +--------------------+------------------+------+-----+-------------------+-----------------------------+ sip_buddies is this: +----------------+------------------------------+------+-----+-----------+----------------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +----------------+------------------------------+------+-----+-----------+----------------+ | id | int(11) | NO | PRI | NULL | auto_increment | | name | varchar(80) | NO | UNI | | | | host | varchar(31) | NO | | | | | | | lastms | int(11) | NO | | 0 *** snip *** +----------------+------------------------------+------+-----+-----------+----------------+ The two tables are actually related as sip_lines.sip_name = sip_buddies.name How do I relate them in Kohana ORM as this wouldn't be quite right would it? <?php defined('SYSPATH') or die('No direct script access.'); /* A model for all the account information */ class Sip_Line_Model extends ORM { protected $has_one = array("sip_buddies"); } ?> EDIT: Actually, it'd be fair to say that these tables are not properly related with foreign keys! doh. EDIT: Looks like Kohana ORM is not that flexible. ORM is probably not the way to go and works best for completely new projects where the data model can be altered. The reason being that the key names must follow a specific naming convention or else they won't relate in Kohana.

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  • Deserializing XML to Objects in C#

    - by Justin Bozonier
    So I have xml that looks like this: <todo-list> <id type="integer">#{id}</id> <name>#{name}</name> <description>#{description}</description> <project-id type="integer">#{project_id}</project-id> <milestone-id type="integer">#{milestone_id}</milestone-id> <position type="integer">#{position}</position> <!-- if user can see private lists --> <private type="boolean">#{private}</private> <!-- if the account supports time tracking --> <tracked type="boolean">#{tracked}</tracked> <!-- if todo-items are included in the response --> <todo-items type="array"> <todo-item> ... </todo-item> <todo-item> ... </todo-item> ... </todo-items> </todo-list> How would I go about using .NET's serialization library to deserialize this into C# objects? Currently I'm using reflection and I map between the xml and my objects using the naming conventions.

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  • iPhone Twitter Integration: Validating login.

    - by Mr. McPepperNuts
    The following code posts to twitter: NSString *compoundLoginString = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"http://%@:%@@twitter.com/statuses/update.xml",extractedUsername, extractedPassword]; NSMutableURLRequest *request = [NSMutableURLRequest requestWithURL: [NSURL URLWithString:compoundLoginString] cachePolicy:NSURLRequestUseProtocolCachePolicy timeoutInterval:20.0]; // The text to post NSString *msg = tweetText; [request setHTTPMethod:@"POST"]; [request setHTTPBody:[[NSString stringWithFormat:@"status=%@", msg] dataUsingEncoding:NSASCIIStringEncoding]]; NSURLResponse *response; NSError *error; if ([NSURLConnection sendSynchronousRequest:request returningResponse:&response error:&error] != nil){ [self postSuccessfulAlert]; }else{ [self postNotSuccessfulAlert]; } I am curious as to how I could check if the username and password is correct before proceeding to the above piece of code. I found the following code in a tutorial, but am unsure how I would implement or call this function. - (void)connection:(NSURLConnection *)connection didReceiveAuthenticationChallenge:(NSURLAuthenticationChallenge *)challenge { if ([challenge previousFailureCount] == 0) { NSURLCredential *newCredential; newCredential=[NSURLCredential credentialWithUser:[self username] password:[self password] persistence:NSURLCredentialPersistenceNone]; [[challenge sender] useCredential:newCredential forAuthenticationChallenge:challenge]; } else { [[challenge sender] cancelAuthenticationChallenge:challenge]; // inform the user that the user name and password // in the preferences are incorrect NSLog(@"Invalid Username or Password"); } } Any ideas? Please note, I have taken snippets of code from both of the following tutorials. http://iphonedevelopertips.com/networking/post-to-a-twitter-account-from-the-iphone.html and http://icodeblog.com/2009/07/09/integrating-twitter-into-your-applications/

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  • Integer Surrogate Key?

    - by CitadelCSAlum
    I need something real simple, that for some reason I am unable to accomplish to this point. I have also been unable to Google the answer surprisingly. I need to number the entries in different tables uniquely. I am aware of AUTO INCREMENT in MySQL and that it will be involved. My situation would be as follows If I had a table like Table EXAMPLE ID - INTEGER FIRST_NAME - VARCHAR(45) LAST_NAME - VARCHAR(45) PHONE - VARCHAR(45) CITY - VARCHAR(45) STATE - VARCHAR(45) ZIP - VARCHAR(45) This would be the setup for the table where ID is an integer that is auto-incremented every time an entry is inserted into the table. The thing I need is that I do not want to have to account for this field when inserting data into the database. From my understanding this would be a surrogate key, that I can tell the database to automatically increment and I do not have to include it in the INSERT STATEMENT so instead of INSERT INTO EXAMPLE VALUES (2,'JOHN','SMITH',333-333-3333,'NORTH POLE'.... I can leave out the first ID column and just write something like INSERT INTO EXAMPLE VALUES ('JOHN','SMITH'.....etc) Notice I Wouldnt have to define the ID column... I know this is a very common task to do, but for some reason I cant get to the bottom of it. I am using MySQL, just to clarify. Thanks alot

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  • Copy whole SQL Server database into JSON from Python

    - by Oli
    I facing an atypical conversion problem. About a decade ago I coded up a large site in ASP. Over the years this turned into ASP.NET but kept the same database. I've just re-done the site in Django and I've copied all the core data but before I cancel my account with the host, I need to make sure I've got a long-term backup of the data so if it turns out I'm missing something, I can copy it from a local copy. To complicate matters, I no longer have Windows. I moved to Ubuntu on all my machines some time back. I could ask the host to send me a backup but having no access to a machine with MSSQL, I wouldn't be able to use that if I needed to. So I'm looking for something that does: db = {} for table in database: db[table.name] = [row for row in table] And then I could serialize db off somewhere for later consumption... But how do I do the table iteration? Is there an easier way to do all of this? Can MSSQL do a cross-platform SQLDump (inc data)? For previous MSSQL I've used pymssql but I don't know how to iterate the tables and copy rows (ideally with column headers so I can tell what the data is). I'm not looking for much code but I need a poke in the right direction.

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  • syntax help required on templated static member function

    - by omatai
    I have a bunch of containers of object pointers that I want to iterate through in different contexts to produce diagnostics for them. I'm struggling with the syntax required to define the functions... which, on account of these objects filtering through diverse parts of my application, seem best encapsulated in a dedicated diagnostics class thus: // Code sketch only - detail fleshed out below... class ObjectListDiagnoser { public: static void GenerateDiagnostics( /* help required here! */ ); }; ... // Elsewhere in the system... ObjectListDiagnoser::GenerateDiagnostics( /* help required here! */ ); What I'd like to be able to do (in places across my application) is at least this: std::vector<MyObject *> objGroup1; std::list<MyObject *> objGroup2; ObjectListDiagnoser::GenerateDiagnostics( objGroup1.begin(), objGroup1.end() ); ObjectListDiagnoser::GenerateDiagnostics( objGroup2.begin(), objGroup2.end() ); ObjectListDiagnoser::GenerateDiagnostics( objGroup1.rbegin(), objGroup1.rend() ); I have tried to template my function in two ways, with no success: class ObjectListDiagnoser { public: // 1 - nope. template <class ObjIter> static void GenerateDiagnostics( ObjIter first, ObjIter last ); // 2. - nope. template <class Container, class ObjIter> static void GenerateDiagnostics( Container<MyObject *>::ObjIter first, Container<MyObject *>::ObjIter last ); }; Can someone provide the correct syntax for this? The container type will vary, and the direction of iteration will vary, but always for the same type of object.

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  • OpenCV shape matching

    - by MAckerman
    I'm new to OpenCV (am actually using Emgu CV C# wrapper) and am attempting to do some object detection. I'm attempting to determine if an object matches a predefined set of objects (that I will have to define). The background is well lit and does not move. My objects that I am starting with are bottles and cans. My current approach is: Do absDiff with a previously taken background image to separate the background. Then dilate 4x to make the lighter areas (in labels) shrink. Then I do a binary threshold to get a big blog, followed by finding contours in this image. I then take the largest contour and draw it, which becomes my shape to either save to the accepted set or compare with the accepted set. Currently I'm using cvMatchShapes, but the double return value seems to vary widely. I'm guessing it is because it doesn't take into account rotation. Is this approach a good one? It isn't working well for glass bottles since the edges are hard to find... I've read about haar classifiers, but thinking that might be overkill for my task.

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  • How to use sessions in PDO?

    - by Byakugan
    I am still redoing and getting rid of old mysql_* commands in my code. I tried to transfer my session login form old code and this is what I got so far: public function login($user, $password) { if (!empty($user) && !empty($password)) { $password = $web->doHash($user, $password); // in this function is (return sha1(strtoupper($user).':'.strtoupper($password)) $stmt = $db_login->prepare("SELECT * FROM account WHERE username=:user AND pass_hash=:password"); $stmt->bindValue(':user', $user, PDO::PARAM_STR); $stmt->bindValue(':password', $password, PDO::PARAM_STR); $stmt->execute(); $rows = $stmt->rowCount(); if ($rows > 0) { $results_login = $stmt->fetch(PDO::FETCH_ASSOC); $_SESSION['user_name'] = $results_login['username']; $_SESSION['user_id'] = $results_login['id']; return true; } else { return false; } } else { return false; } } After that I am using checks if user logged on site: public function isLogged() { return (!empty($_SESSION['user_id']) && !empty($_SESSION['user_name'])); } But it seems - this function returns always empty because $_SESSION does not exists in PDO? And of course logout is used in this form on my sites: public function logout() { unset($_SESSION['user_id']); unset($_SESSION['user_name']); } But I think PDO has different way of handling session? I did not find any so what is it can i somehow add $_SESSION in PDO withou changing code much? I am using variables $_SESSION['user_name'] and $_SESSION['user_id'] in all over my web project. Summary: 1) How to use sessions in PDO correctly? 2) What is difference between using $stmt->fetch(PDO::FETCH_ASSOC); and $stmt->fetchAll(); Thank you.

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  • (ASP.NET) Problem with a repeater nested in a repeater, how to know when it is a itemCommand?

    - by NoProblemBabe
    I have the following problem: Keeping in mind the following structure: <repeater> <updatepanel> <div> <link id="fatherLink" /> </div> <div> <repeater> <link id="childLink"/> </repeater> <div> </updatepanel> </repeater> right? I am using updatepanel, so, when i click in the fatherlink, i put a click method in the server side, so it populates it's child repeater. no problems in there, but I need that the childLink to perform a action on the server side, like take in account some data and then sending to a given page to do something else. When doing this I happen to notice that there are three situations: 1 - First server call, is not a postback it populates the father repeater (no problems here). 2 - Second server call, when the father link is clicked i populate the child repeater. Something like a "fatherLink_Click" function (no problems here). 3 - Third server call, when the child is clicked: i can't seem to know that it is the child's item command, so i can't stop it from databinding all over again, which kills my itemcommand event... (the problem). What can I do?

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  • Mysql issue with decimal

    - by azz0r
    Hello, I have two fields - amount (decimal (11, 2)) - gift_amount (decimal (11, 2)) When I do an update on either for a value equal to or below 999.99, it saves correctly. However, if I go over that, then it drops the value right back to down 1 - 10. Is this a known issue or am I going wrong using decimal? Heres some PHP code of what I'm doing just to make it clearer (although I'm 100% its not the PHP's fault. if ($total_balance >= $cost) { if ($this->user->balance->gift_amount > 0) { $total_to_be_paid = number_format($cost, 2) - number_format($this->user->balance->gift_amount, 2);//figure out how much is left after the gift total $this->user->balance->gift_amount -= number_format($cost, 2); //deduct from the gift balance $this->user->balance->gift_amount = (number_format($this->user->balance->gift_amount, 2) < 0) ? number_format(00.00, 2) : number_format($this->user->balance->gift_amount, 2); //if the gift balance went below 0, lets set it to 0 if ($total_to_be_paid > 0) { $this->user->balance->amount = number_format($this->user->balance->amount, 2) - number_format($total_to_be_paid, 2); } } else { $this->user->balance->amount = number_format($this->user->balance->amount, 2) - number_format($cost, 2); } if ($object = Model_ClipBought::create(array('clip_id' => $clip->id, 'user_id' => $this->user->id, 'currency_name' => $user_currency, 'cost' => $cost, 'downloads' => $clip->downloads, 'expires' => time() + ($clip->expires * 86400)))) { $this->user->balance->save(); $download = new Model_Download(ROOT_PATH."/public/files/Clip/$clip->file_url"); $download->execute(); } else { throw new exception('We could not finish the purchase, this has been reported, sorry for the inconvenience.'); } } else { throw new exception('You dont have enough money in your account todo this'); } exit; }

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  • share the same cookie between two website using PHP cURL extension

    - by powerboy
    I want to get the contents of some emails in my gmail account. I would like to use the PHP cURL extension to do this. I followed these steps in my first try: In the PHP code, output the contents of https://www.google.com/accounts/ServiceLoginAuth. In the browser, the user input username and password to login. In the PHP code, save cookies in a file named cookie.txt. In the PHP code, send request to https://mail.google.com/ along with cookies retrieved from cookie.txt and output the contents. The following code does not work: $login_url = 'https://www.google.com/accounts/ServiceLoginAuth'; $gmail_url = 'https://mail.google.com/'; $cookie_file = dirname(__FILE__) . '/cookie.txt'; $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER, false); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HEADER, false); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_FOLLOWLOCATION, true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_COOKIEJAR, $cookie_file); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $login_url); $output = curl_exec($ch); echo $output; curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $gmail_url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_COOKIEFILE, $cookie_file); $output = curl_exec($ch); echo $output; curl_close($ch);

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  • Compare two associative arrays and create a new array with the matched arrays, PHP

    - by user194630
    I have this two arrays: $arr1=array( array("id" => 8, "name" => "test1"), array("id" => 4, "name" => "test2"), array("id" => 3, "name" => "test3") ); $arr2=array( array("id" => 3), array("id" => 4) ); How can i "extract" arrays from $arr1, where id have same value in $arr2, into a new array and leave the extracted array also in a new array, without taking into account key orders? The output i am looking for should be: $arr3=array( array("id" => 8, "name" => "test1") ); $arr4=array( array("id" => 4, "name" => "test2"), array("id" => 3, "name" => "test3") ); Thanks

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  • Why can't the 'NonSerialized' attribute be used at the class level? How to prevent serialization of

    - by ck
    I have a data object that is deep-cloned using a binary serialization. This data object supports property changed events, for example, PriceChanged. Let's say I attached a handler to PriceChanged. When the code attempts to serialize PriceChanged, it throws an exception that the handler isn't marked as serializable. My alternatives: I can't easily remove all handlers from the event before serialization I don't want to mark the handler as serializable because I'd have to recursively mark all the handlers dependencies as well. I don't want to mark PriceChanged as NonSerialized - there are tens of events like this that could potentially have handlers. Ideally, I'd like .NET to just stop going down the object graph at that point and make that a 'leaf'. So why can't I just mark the handler class as 'NonSerialized'? -- I finally worked around this problem by making the handler implement ISerializable and doing nothing in the serialize constructor/ GetDataObject method. But, the handler still is serialized, just with all its dependencies set to null - so I had to account for that as well. Is there a better way to prevent serialization of an entire class?

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  • Ruby ICalendar Gem: How to get e-mail reminders working.

    - by Jenny
    I'm trying to work out how to use the icalendar ruby gem, found at: http://icalendar.rubyforge.org/ According to their tutorial, you do something like: cal.event.do # ...other event properties alarm do action "EMAIL" description "This is an event reminder" # email body (required) summary "Alarm notification" # email subject (required) attendees %w(mailto:[email protected] mailto:[email protected]) # one or more email recipients (required) add_attendee "mailto:[email protected]" remove_attendee "mailto:[email protected]" trigger "-PT15M" # 15 minutes before add_attach "ftp://host.com/novo-procs/felizano.exe", {"FMTTYPE" => "application/binary"} # email attachments (optional) end alarm do action "DISPLAY" # This line isn't necessary, it's the default summary "Alarm notification" trigger "-P1DT0H0M0S" # 1 day before end alarm do action "AUDIO" trigger "-PT15M" add_attach "Basso", {"VALUE" => ["URI"]} # only one attach allowed (optional) end So, I am doing something similar in my code. def schedule_event puts "Scheduling an event for " + self.title + " at " + self.start_time start = self.start_time endt = self.start_time title = self.title desc = self.description chan = self.channel.name # Create a calendar with an event (standard method) cal = Calendar.new cal.event do dtstart Program.convertToDate(start) dtend Program.convertToDate(endt) summary "Want to watch" + title + "on: " + chan + " at: " + start description desc klass "PRIVATE" alarm do action "EMAIL" description desc # email body (required) summary "Want to watch" + title + "on: " + chan + " at: " + start # email subject (required) attendees %w(mailto:[email protected]) # one or more email recipients (required) trigger "-PT25M" # 25 minutes before end end However, I never see any e-mail sent to my account... I have even tried hard coding the start times to be Time.now, and sending them out 0 minutes before, but no luck... Am I doing something glaringly wrong?

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  • How to combine twill and python into one code that could be run on "Google App Engine"?

    - by brilliant
    Hello everybody!!! I have installed twill on my computer (having previously installed Python 2.5) and have been using it recently. Python is installed on disk C on my computer: C:\Python25 And the twill folder (“twill-0.9”) is located here: E:\tmp\twill-0.9 Here is a code that I’ve been using in twill: go “some website’s sign-in page URL” formvalue 2 userid “my login” formvalue 2 pass “my password” submit go “URL of some other page from that website” save_html result.txt This code helps me to log in to one website, in which I have an account, record the HTML code of some other page of that website (that I can access only after logging in), and store it in a file named “result.txt” (of course, before using this code I firstly need to replace “my login” with my real login, “my password” with my real password, “some website’s sign-in page URL” and “URL of some other page from that website” with real URLs of that website, and number 2 with the number of the form on that website that is used as a sign-in form on that website’s log-in page) This code I store in “test.twill” file that is located in my “twill-0.9” folder: E:\tmp\twill-0.9\test.twill I run this file from my command prompt: python twill-sh test.twill Now, I also have installed “Google App Engine SDK” from “Google App Engine” and have also been using it for awhile. For example, I’ve been using this code: import hashlib m = hashlib.md5() m.update("Nobody inspects") m.update(" the spammish repetition ") print m.hexdigest() This code helps me transform the phrase “Nobody inspects the spammish repetition” into md5 digest. Now, how can I put these two pieces of code together into one python script that I could run on “Google App Engine”? Let’s say, I want my code to log in to a website from “Google App Engine”, go to another page on that website, record its HTML code (that’s what my twill code does) and than transform this HTML code into its md5 digest (that’s what my second code does). So, how can I combine those two codes into one python code? I guess, it should be done somehow by importing twill, but how can it be done? Can a python code - the one that is being run by “Google App Engine” - import twill from somewhere on the internet? Or, perhaps, twill is already installed on “Google App Engine”?

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  • Sinatra application running on Dreamhost suddenly not working

    - by jbrennan
    My Sinatra application was running fine on Dreamhost until a few days ago (I'm not sure precisely when it went bad). Now when I visit my app I get this error: can't activate rack (~> 1.1, runtime) for ["sinatra-1.1.2"], already activated rack-1.2.1 for [] I have no idea how to fix this. I've tried updating all my gems, then touching the app/tmp/restart.txt file, but still no fix. I hadn't touched any files of my app, nor my Dreamhost account. It just busted on its own (my guess is DH changed something on their server which caused the bust). When I originally deployed my app, I had to go through some hoops to get it working, and I seem to think I was using gems in a custom location, but I can't remember exactly where or how. I don't know my way around Rack/Passenger very well. Here's my config.ru: (mostly grafted from around the web, I don't fully understand it) ENV['RACK_ENV'] = 'development' if ENV['RACK_ENV'].empty? #### Make sure my own gem path is included first ENV['GEM_HOME'] = "#{ENV['HOME']}/.gems" ENV['GEM_PATH'] = "#{ENV['HOME']}/.gems:" require 'rubygems' Gem.clear_paths ## NB! key part require 'sinatra' set :env, :production disable :run require 'MY_APP_NAME.rb' run Sinatra::Application

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