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  • More efficient SQL than using "A UNION (B in A)"?

    - by machinatus
    Edit 1 (clarification): Thank you for the answers so far! The response is gratifying. I want to clarify the question a little because based on the answers I think I did not describe one aspect of the problem correctly (and I'm sure that's my fault as I was having a difficult time defining it even for myself). Here's the rub: The result set should contain ONLY the records with tstamp BETWEEN '2010-01-03' AND '2010-01-09', AND the one record where the tstamp IS NULL for each order_num in the first set (there will always be one with null tstamp for each order_num). The answers given so far appear to include all records for a certain order_num if there are any with tstamp BETWEEN '2010-01-03' AND '2010-01-09'. For example, if there were another record with order_num = 2 and tstamp = 2010-01-12 00:00:00 it should not be included in the result. Original question: Consider an orders table containing id (unique), order_num, tstamp (a timestamp), and item_id (the single item included in an order). tstamp is null, unless the order has been modified, in which case there is another record with identical order_num and tstamp then contains the timestamp of when the change occurred. Example... id order_num tstamp item_id __ _________ ___________________ _______ 0 1 100 1 2 101 2 2 2010-01-05 12:34:56 102 3 3 113 4 4 124 5 5 135 6 5 2010-01-07 01:23:45 136 7 5 2010-01-07 02:46:00 137 8 6 100 9 6 2010-01-13 08:33:55 105 What is the most efficient SQL statement to retrieve all of the orders (based on order_num) which have been modified one or more times during a certain date range? In other words, for each order we need all of the records with the same order_num (including the one with NULL tstamp), for each order_num WHERE at least one of the order_num's has tstamp NOT NULL AND tstamp BETWEEN '2010-01-03' AND '2010-01-09'. It's the "WHERE at least one of the order_num's has tstamp NOT NULL" that I'm having difficulty with. The result set should look like this: id order_num tstamp item_id __ _________ ___________________ _______ 1 2 101 2 2 2010-01-05 12:34:56 102 5 5 135 6 5 2010-01-07 01:23:45 136 7 5 2010-01-07 02:46:00 137 The SQL that I came up with is this, which is essentially "A UNION (B in A)", but it executes slowly and I hope there is a more efficient solution: SELECT history_orders.order_id, history_orders.tstamp, history_orders.item_id FROM (SELECT orders.order_id, orders.tstamp, orders.item_id FROM orders WHERE orders.tstamp BETWEEN '2010-01-03' AND '2010-01-09') AS history_orders UNION SELECT current_orders.order_id, current_orders.tstamp, current_orders.item_id FROM (SELECT orders.order_id, orders.tstamp, orders.item_id FROM orders WHERE orders.tstamp IS NULL) AS current_orders WHERE current_orders.order_id IN (SELECT orders.order_id FROM orders WHERE orders.tstamp BETWEEN '2010-01-03' AND '2010-01-09');

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  • jQuery - window focus, blur events not triggering - works in Firefox and Chrome

    - by brian newman
    In a nutshell; I wrote a simplistic chat application for a buddy and me to use. When the window running the application does not have the focus (minimized or behind other windows) and a message comes in, I want to change the windows title bar to serve as an alert. Exactly like Google's chat application does in GMail. Everything works flawlessly in Firefox and Chrome but not in IE7 (haven't tested 8). This is the code I am using to determine if the window has focus. Can this be written differently to also work in IE? Also, I'm open to any other approaches to accomplish the same thing. Many thanks in advance. $(window).bind("blur", function() { hasfocus = false; }); $(window).bind("focus", function() { hasfocus = true; });

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  • WPF MVVM Trigger Animation on MainWindow close

    - by Scott
    I'm using trying to implement MVVM in my app. I have a MainWindow.xaml and a MainWindowViewModel. I'm in the process of removing all of the code-behind code from the MainWindow.xaml but I'm stuck on one final piece. In my pre-MVVM setup I started an animation in the MainWindow.xaml.cs that would fade out the form before closing it. Since Closing is not a RoutedEvent, I had to use code-behind to get this to work. My VM has the following two properties that can be bound: ClosingWindow and CloseWindow. My goal was to bind a DataTrigger in my MainWindowStyle to the ClosingWindow property of the VM. When ClosingWindow was set to True, it would start an animation using the following XAML: <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding ClosingWindow}" Value="True"> <DataTrigger.EnterActions> <BeginStoryboard> <Storyboard> <DoubleAnimation Storyboard.TargetProperty="Opacity" From="1" To="0" Duration="0:0:2"/> </Storyboard> </BeginStoryboard> </DataTrigger.EnterActions> </DataTrigger> Somehow (insert magic here) I was going to set CloseWindow on the VM, via Binding, to True when the animation completed, which would then use an AttachedBehavior to Close the Window. The AttachedBehavior works perfectly when I just set CloseWindow directly using the following XAML: <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding CloseWindow}" Value="True"> <Setter Property="ab:WindowCloseBehavior.Close" Value="True"/> </DataTrigger> ...but I want to reproduce the form fade before the form actually closes. So there are two issues that I've run into: First, the animation doesn't work. I enter the trigger correctly (I've taken out the animation and put a Setter statement in there that changes the Title of the MainWindow to "Closing" and it changes correctly when ClosingWindow = True) but the DoubleAnimation never does anything. Second, there's no way to set the value of CloseWindow once the animation is complete. I looked at Marlon Grech's animation code but that won't work on DataTriggers. I can't publish a RoutedEvent because my VM doesn't descend from UIElement, and I've been Googling all day trying to come up with a clever, MVVM-friendly way to do this with no luck. So any ideas why that animation doesn't do anything? And more importantly, how would you solve the entire problem of animating a form fade on close from the VM? I don't doubt that my entire solution to this problem might be whacked so I'm open to just about anything.

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  • VSDBCMD returns "An unexpected failure occurred: Object reference not set to an instance of an objec

    - by Matt Wrock
    I have been succesfully using the command line database deployment tool VSDBCMD on my dev and test environments but the tool fails in our integration environmrnt. I am using the VS 2010 version of the tool. The servers have all of the prerequisites including: .net 4.0 sql server compact edition 3.5 sp1 (as well as the full edition of 2008) sql server 2008 server management objects sql server 2008 native client sql server system clr types msxml 6 all of the dependent DLLs included in: C:\Program Files\Microsoft SQL Server Compact Edition\v3.5\desktop*.dll C:\Program Files\Microsoft SQL Server Compact Edition\v3.5*.dll C:\Program Files (x86)\Microsoft Visual Studio 10.0\VSTSDB\Deploy**. The only reference to this error that I have been able to find has to do with a bug in the VS 2008 edition when the HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Software\Microsoft\VisualStudio\9.0 key is missing. In my case the 10.0 version of the key exists. Has anyone else encountered this?

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  • Silverlight DataStateBehavior, initial value not used

    - by JimmySavile
    Hi, I am trying to use the Silverlight DataStateBehavior, it works fine in most cases where I click a button which sets say a 'Selected' Property in the view model to either false or true. The DataStateBehavior then tells the VisualStateManager to go to the relevant state. Like this: <Button...> <i:Interaction.Behaviors> <id:DataStateBehavior Binding="{Binding Selected}" Value="True" TrueState="SelectedVisualState" FalseState="DeselectedVisualState"/> </i:Interaction.Behaviors> </Button> The above works fine. What I am trying to do though is to get it to set the correct state when the application loads, if I were to set the 'Selected' property on the view model to true by default I wouldn't see any changes in the UI until I clicked the button to change the viewmodel property. I know there are several classes involved with the DataState stuff including: BindingListener.cs ConverterHelper.cs DataStateBehavior.cs DataStateSwitchBehavior.cs DataTrigger.cs Any clues would be good, Thanks

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  • jQuery trigger uploadify click event not working in firefox FF

    - by drew
    I want to select an option on a drop down box and for this to trigger the uploadify available to jQuery which lets you upload a file. My solution works in IE7 but not FF. When you change the drop down it should show a window to browse for a file to upload. In FF nothing appears. In IE everything works. JS is enabled in FF, if I insert alert messages it gets to the point of triggering the click on the input button. 0 1 $(document).ready(function() { $('.fileupload1').uploadify({ 'uploader' : '../../../admin/uploadFileResources/uploadify.swf', 'script' : '../../../admin/uploadFileResources/upload.cfm', 'cancelImg' : '../../../admin/uploadFileResources/cancel.png', 'folder' : '../../../upload_BE/offers/htmlfiles/5953/images/', 'multi' : true }); $('.selectLogoTop').change(function(){ $('.fileupload1').trigger("click"); }); });

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  • Entity Framework without Transaction?

    - by Sue
    Is there a way to use EF without transaction? I have very simple single insert and don't want to roll-back when something goes wrong as there may be a trigger logging then raising error from the DB side which I have no control over. I just want to insert then catch any exceptions but don't want to roll-back.

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  • Hudson build on URL token

    - by Ritesh M Nayak
    I configured a hudson instance and have created jobs. While creating builds, I was able to see this option "Trigger the build by accessing this URL + SecretTOKEN" option. Now, I am unable to see that for any new jobs I create. Am I missing some setting or a configuration? The only change I made was running the servlet container from Root to a regular user.

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  • jQuery: How can I check if a block in my document is inside the viewport or outside of it?

    - by Jannis
    I am basically trying to trigger a function if the footer is inside the viewport. How can I check whether the footer is currently visible in the viewport? I assume I will have to put it into the $(window).scroll() event so that the listener becomes true once the footer becomes visible but what the function should be I just can't figure out. Any help would be much appreciated. Thanks for reading, Jannis

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  • WPF Applying a trigger on binding failure

    - by Aran Mulholland
    This question is a follow on from this one... I am binding to a heterogeneous collection of objects, not all objects have the same set of properties. I am doing this in a datagrid. I would like to gray out the cell if the binding fails. Is there a way to apply a trigger if a binding fails?

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  • A trigger on hibernate (maybe this is called interceptor)

    - by Ittai
    Hi, I have a module which uses Hibernate as an ORM solution with EHCache as second level cache. I have another seperate module which inserts and updates the database. What I need is to have the ability to trigger an event when a row is inserted or updated. Let's say I have a Customers table and it is mapped to a Customer entity. I want some procedure to notify me that a new Customer has been added. Regarding the second seperate module it uses Hibernate also but at least for the time being they are not connected (I'm pointing this out as if someone thinks that I must share the Hibernate session (or something of the sort) between them then this is something I will consider). Please note that I have limited experience with Hibernate. Thanks in advance

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  • to stop trigger in jquery

    - by Alexander Corotchi
    Hi everybody , I have an AJAX call, which is doing this call every 5 seconds and when the call "succeed " I have a trigger success: function (msg) { ... $('#test').trigger('click'); return false; }, ... But i need to do this trigger just once , the first time, not every 5 second ! Can somebody suggest me how to stop this trigger, or maybe to use another stuff to trigger this "click " Thanks!

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  • Will i need two database connection for the following created trigger in MySQL?

    - by Parth
    Will i need two database connection for the following created trigger in MySQL? "DELIMITER $$ DROP TRIGGER `update_data` $$ CREATE TRIGGER `update_data` AFTER UPDATE on `jos_menu` FOR EACH ROW BEGIN IF (NEW.menutype != OLD.menutype) THEN INSERT INTO jos_menuaudit set menuid=OLD.id, oldvalue = OLD.menutype, newvalue = NEW.menutype, field = 'menutype'; END IF; IF (NEW.name != OLD.name) THEN INSERT INTO jos_menuaudit set menuid=OLD.id, oldvalue = OLD.name, newvalue = NEW.name, field = 'name'; END IF; IF (NEW.alias != OLD.alias) THEN INSERT INTO jos_menuaudit set menuid=OLD.id, oldvalue = OLD.alias, newvalue = NEW.alias, field = 'alias'; END IF; END$$ DELIMITER ;" I am using PHP for coding.... EDITED To Execute the previous trigger, will i need to have two DB connection for it? likewise: mysql_select_db('pranav_test'); mysql_select_db('information_schema');

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  • Data tweaking code runs fine when executed directly - but never stops when used in trigger

    - by MBaas
    I have written some code to ensure that items on an order are all numbered (the "position number" or "item number" has been introduced only recently and we did not want to go and change all related code - as it is "asthetics only" and has no functional impact.) So, the idea is to go and check for an records that jave an itemno of NULL or 0 - and then compute one and assign it. When executing this code in a query window, it works fine. When putting it into an AFTER INSERT-trigger, it loops forever. So what is wrong here? /****** Objekt: Trigger [SetzePosNr] Skriptdatum: 02/28/2010 20:06:29 ******/ SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO CREATE TRIGGER [SetzePosNr] ON [dbo].[bestellpos] AFTER INSERT AS BEGIN DECLARE @idb int DECLARE @idp int DECLARE @pnr int SELECT @idp=id,@idb=id_bestellungen FROM bestellpos WHERE posnr IS NULL OR posnr=0 WHILE @idp IS NOT NULL BEGIN SELECT @pnr = 1+max(posnr) FROM bestellpos WHERE id_bestellungen = @idb print( 'idp=' + str(@idp) + ', idb=' + str(@idb) + ', posnr=' + str(@pnr)) UPDATE bestellpos SET posnr=@pnr WHERE id=@idp SELECT @idp=id,@idb=id_bestellungen FROM bestellpos WHERE posnr IS NULL OR posnr=0 END END

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  • Cross-database transactions from one SP

    - by Michael Bray
    I need to update multiple databases with a few simple SQL statement. The databases are configurared in SQL using 'Linked Servers', and the SQL versions are mixed (SQL 2008, SQL 2005, and SQL 2000). I intend to write a stored procedure in one of the databases, but I would like to do so using a transaction to make sure that each database gets updated consistently. Which of the following is the most accurate: Will a single BEGIN/COMMIT TRANSACTION work to guarantee that all statements across all databases are successful? Will I need multiple BEGIN TRANSACTIONS for each individual set of commands on a database? Are transactions even supported when updating remote databases? I would need to execute a remote SP with embedded transaction support. Note that I don't care about any kind of cross-database referential integrity; I'm just trying to update multiple databases at the same time from a single stored procedure if possible. Any other suggestions are welcome as well. Thanks!

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  • mysql and trigger usage question

    - by dhruvbird
    I have a situation in which I don't want inserts to take place (the transaction should rollback) if a certain condition is met. I could write this logic in the application code, but say for some reason, it has to be written in MySQL itself (say clients written in different languages will be inserting into this MySQL InnoDB table) [that's a separate discussion]. Table definition: CREATE TABLE table1(x int NOT NULL); The trigger looks something like this: CREATE TRIGGER t1 BEFORE INSERT ON table1 FOR EACH ROW IF (condition) THEN NEW.x = NULL; END IF; END; I am guessing it could also be written as(untested): CREATE TRIGGER t1 BEFORE INSERT ON table1 FOR EACH ROW IF (condition) THEN ROLLBACK; END IF; END; But, this doesn't work: CREATE TRIGGER t1 BEFORE INSERT ON table1 ROLLBACK; You are guaranteed that: Your DB will always be MySQL Table type will always be InnoDB That NOT NULL column will always stay the way it is Question: Do you see anything objectionable in the 1st method?

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