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  • How to encapsulate a third party complex object structure?

    - by tangens
    Motivation Currently I'm using the java parser japa to create an abstract syntax tree (AST) of a java file. With this AST I'm doing some code generation (e.g.: if there's an annotation on a method, create some other source files, ...) Problem When my code generation becomes more complex, I've to dive deeper into the structure of the AST (e.g. I have to use visitors to extract some type information of method parameters). But I'm not sure if I want to stay with japa or if I will change the parser library later. Because my code generator uses freemarker (which isn't good at automatic refactoring) I want the interface that it uses to access the AST information to be stable, even if I decide to change the java parser. Question What's the best way to encapsulate complex datastructures of third party libraries? I could create my own datatypes and copy the parts of the AST that I need into these. I could create lots of specialized access methods that work with the AST and create exactly the infos I need (e.g. the fully qualified return type of a method as one string, or the first template parameter of a class). I could create wrapper classes for the japa datastructures I currently need and embed the japa types inside, so that I can delegate requests to the japa types and transform the resulting japa types to my wrapper classes again. Which solution should I take? Are there other (better) solutions to this problem?

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  • Calling Python app/script from C#

    - by Maxim Z.
    I'm building an ASP.NET MVC (C#) site where I want to implement STV (Single Transferable Vote) voting. I've used OpenSTV for voting scenarios before, with great success, but I've never used it programmatically. The OpenSTV Google Code project offers a Python script that allows usage of OpenSTV from other applications: import sys sys.path.append("path to openstv package") from openstv.ballots import Ballots from openstv.ReportPlugins.TextReport import TextReport from openstv.plugins import getMethodPlugins (ballotFname, method, reportFname) = sys.argv[1:] methods = getMethodPlugins("byName") f = open(reportFname, "w") try: b = Ballots() b.loadUnknown(ballotFname) except Exception, msg: print >> f, ("Unable to read ballots from %s" % ballotFname) print >> f, msg sys.exit(-1) try: e = methods[method](b) e.runElection() except Exception, msg: print >> f, ("Unable to count votes using %s" % method) print >> f, msg sys.exit(-1) try: r = TextReport(e, outputFile=f) r.generateReport(); except Exception, msg: print >> f, "Unable to write report" print >> f, msg sys.exit(-1) f.close() Is there a way for me to make such a Python call from my C# ASP.NET MVC site? If so, how? Thanks in advance!

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  • Hide/Show Text Field based on Selected value - ROR

    - by Tau
    I am new to ROR. I am trying to show a "Others" text field only if the selected value is "others". I am trying to make hide/show function to be as general as possible, since I will need it in many controller. If anyone can help enlightening me, I will really appreciate it. BTW, I am using Rails 2.1.1 ruby 1.8.7 general_info.html.erb <div> <%= f.label :location_id, "Location:" %> <%= f.collection_select(:location_id, Event.locations, :id, :name, {:prompt => true}, {:onchange => remote_function( :url => {:action => "showHideDOMOther"}, :with => "'selectedText='+this.options[this.selectedIndex].text + '&other_div='+'loc_other'")}) %> </div> <div id="loc_other" style="display:none"> <%= f.label :location_others, "Others:" %> <%= f.text_field :location_others %> </div> info_controller.rb def showHideDomOther render :update do |page| page.showHideDOM("Others", params[:selectedText], params[:other_div]) end end ... application_helper.rb def showHideDOM(targetString, selectedText, targetDiv) if selectedText.casecmp targetString page.hide targetDiv else page.show targetDiv end end Seem to get the correct parameters value, but nothing seems to happen. This is what I see from the console when I changed the value of selection to "Others". Parameters: {"action"=>"showHideDOMOther", "authenticity_token"=>"e7da7ce4631480b482e29da9c0fde4c026a7a70d", "other_div"=>"loc_other", "controller"=>"events", "selectedText"=>"Others"} NoMethodError (undefined method search_generic_view_paths?' for #<EventsController:0xa41c720>): /vendor/plugins/active_scaffold/lib/extensions/generic_view_paths.rb:40:infind_template_extension_from_handler' C:/usr/lib/Ruby/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/actionpack-2.1.1/lib/action_view/template_finder.rb:138:in pick_template_extension' C:/usr/lib/Ruby/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/actionpack-2.1.1/lib/action_view/template_finder.rb:115:infile_exists?' : Rendering C:/usr/lib/Ruby/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/actionpack-2.1.1/lib/action_controller/templates/rescues/layout.erb (internal_server_error)

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  • Generating URLs when not using an integer as an id?

    - by Synthesezia
    So I'm building a blog engine which has /articles/then-the-article-permalink as it's URL structure. I need to have prev and next links which will jump to the next article by pub_date, my code looks like this: In my articles#show @article = Article.find_by_permalink(params[:id]) @prev_article = Article.find(:first, :conditions => [ "pub_date < ?", @article.pub_date]) @next_picture = Article.find(:first, :conditions => [ "pub_date > ?", @article.pub_date]) And in my show.html.erb <%= link_to "Next", article_path(@next_article) %> <%= link_to 'Prev', article_path(@prev_article) %> In my articles model I have this: def to_param self.permalink end The specific error message I get is: article_url failed to generate from {:action=>"show", :controller=>"articles", :id=>nil}, expected: {:action=>"show", :controller=>"articles"}, diff: {:id=>nil} Without the prev and next everything is working fine but I'm out of ideas as to why this isn't working. Anyone want to helo?

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  • Handling user interface in a multi-threaded application (or being forced to have a UI-only main thre

    - by Patrick
    In my application, I have a 'logging' window, which shows all the logging, warnings, errors of the application. Last year my application was still single-threaded so this worked [quite] good. Now I am introducing multithreading. I quickly noticed that it's not a good idea to update the logging window from different threads. Reading some articles on keeping the UI in the main thread, I made a communication buffer, in which the other threads are adding their logging messages, and from which the main thread takes the messages and shows them in the logging window (this is done in the message loop). Now, in a part of my application, the memory usage increases dramatically, because the separate threads are generating lots of logging messages, and the main thread cannot empty the communication buffer quickly enough. After the while the memory decreases again (if the other threads have finished their work and the main thread gradually empties the communication buffer). I solved this problem by having a maximum size on the communication buffer, but then I run into a problem in the following situation: the main thread has to perform a complex action the main thread takes some parts of the action and let's separate threads execute this while the seperate threads are executing their logic, the main thread processes the results from the other threads and continues with its work if the other threads are finished Problem is that in this situation, if the other threads perform logging, there is no UI-message loop, and so the communication buffer is filled, but not emptied. I see two solutions in solving this problem: require the main thread to do regular polling of the communication buffer only performing user interface logic in the main thread (no other logic) I think the second solution seems the best, but this may not that easy to introduce in a big application (in my case it performs mathematical simulations). Are there any other solutions or tips? Or is one of the two proposed the best, easiest, most-pragmatic solution? Thanks, Patrick

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  • delete vs execSQL commands android

    - by erik
    so i have a databas, SQLiteDatabase db I am writing a couple private methods in my manager class that will be called by a public method: public void updateData (MakeabilityModel newData){ SQLiteDatabase db = this.getWritableDatabase(); db.beginTransaction(); try { reWriteSVTable(db, list); db.setTransactionSuccessful(); } catch (Exception e){ //TODO through rollback message? e.printStackTrace(); } finally { db.endTransaction(); } } //Private Methods private void clearTable(SQLiteDatabase db, String table){ db.delete(table, null, null); } private void reWriteSVTable(SQLiteDatabase db, List<MakeabilityLens> lenses){ clearTable(db, singleVision); ContentValues cv; for(int i=0; i<lenses.size(); i++){ cv = new ContentValues(); cv.put(colScreenID, hsID); cv.put(colIconID, id); cv.put(colRank, hsTotal); db.insert(isLookUp, colID, cv); } } My question is this.. i want to be able to throw sql exceptions back to the public method so that if there is an exception, it will kill the transaction and rollback ALL data.. it appears that using delete() and insert() methods are cleaner than execSQL() but don't throw sqlExceptions. execSQL() on the other hand does? do i need to uses execSQL and how do i insure that hsould it throws an exception in any of the private methods that it will catch it and roll it back in the private method

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  • Identity.Name is disposed in a IIS7 Asp.NET MVC application Thread

    - by vIceBerg
    I have made the smallest demo project to illustrate my problem. You can download the sources Here Visual Studio 2008, .NET 3.5, IIS7, Windows 7 Ultimate 32 bits. The IIS Website is configured ONLY for Windows Authentication in an Integreated pipeline app pool (DefaultAppPool). Here's the problem. I have an Asp.NET MVC 2 application. In an action, I start a thread. The View returns. The thread is doing it's job... but it needs to access Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name BANG The worker process of IIS7 stops. I have a window that says: "Visual Studio Just-In-Time Debugger An unhandled exception ('System.Object.DisposedException') occured in w3wp.exe [5524]" I checked with the debugger and the Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity is valid, but the Name property is disposed. If I put a long wait in the action before it returns the view, then the Thread can do it's job and the Identity.Name is not disposed. So I think the Name gets disposed when the view is returned. For the sake of the discussion, here's the code that the thread runs (but you can also download the demo project. The link is on top of this post): private void Run() { const int SECTOWAIT = 3; //wait SECTOWAIT seconds long end = DateTime.Now.Ticks + (TimeSpan.TicksPerSecond * SECTOWAIT); while (DateTime.Now.Ticks <= end) continue; //Check the currentprincipal. BANG!!!!!!!!!!!!! var userName = Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name; } Here's the code that starts the thread public void Start() { Thread thread = new Thread(new ParameterizedThreadStart(ThreadProc)); thread.SetApartmentState(ApartmentState.MTA); thread.Name = "TestThread"; thread.Start(this); } static void ThreadProc(object o) { try { Builder builder = (Builder)o; builder.Run(); } catch (Exception ex) { throw; } } So... what am i doing wrong? Thanks

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  • How to accept an incoming call by clicking a button?

    - by upright
    HI, all! I'm trying to implement my own phone call handling UI. What I want to do is, if a call comes in, the incoming telephone number and a picture are displayed, and, if I press a button, the incoming call will be accepted/answered. The related codes are: @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); answerButton = (Button) findViewById(R.id.pickup); answerButton.setOnClickListener(new OnClickListener() { public void onClick(final View v) { Intent intent = new Intent("android.intent.action.ANSWER"); intent.setFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK); startActivity(intent); } }); Sadly, the code does not work. At first, an exception is thrown if I press my answer button: ActivityNotFoundException: No Activity found to handle Intent { act=android.intent.action.ANSWER Then I added an entry in the AndroidManifest.xml: I run the app again, there is no exception anymore. However, I doubt the incoming call is not really accepted. Because if the press the Android's screen answer button (green button), the incoming call is accepted and a green button is also displayed on the upper left corner of the emulator screen, while my app doesn't. I also read the Phone app's source code in android source. There is method such as acceptCall() in the Phone class. But these codes seem difficult for me to use, because there are many imports declaration in the code, such as : import com.android.internal.telephony.Call; import com.android.internal.telephony.CallStateException; import com.android.internal.telephony.CallerInfo; import com.android.internal.telephony.CallerInfoAsyncQuery; import com.android.internal.telephony.Connection; import com.android.internal.telephony.MmiCode; import com.android.internal.telephony.Phone; And, if I add these imports in my code, there will be too many errors, such as : "The import com.android.internal.telephony cannot be resolved" What is the right and simple way for my problem? Thanks in advance!

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  • Asp.Net MVC - Binding of parameter to model value!

    - by Pino
    This seems like the model binding is causing me issues. Essentially I have a model called ProductOption and for the purpose of this question it has 2 fields ID (Int) PK ProductID (Int) FK I have a standard route set-up context.MapRoute( "Product_default", "Product/{controller}/{action}/{id}", new { controller = "Product", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional } ); and if the user wants to add an option the URL is, /Product/Options/Add/1 in the above URL 1 is the ProductID, I have the following code to return a blank model the the view, [HttpGet] public ActionResult Add(int id) { return View("Manage", new ProductOptionModel() { ProductID = id }); } Now in my view I keep a hidden field <%= Html.HiddenFor(x=>x.ID) %> This is used to determine (on submit) if we are editing or adding a new option. However the Model binder in .net seems to replace .ID (Which was 0 when leaving the above get actionresult) with 1 (or the value of the id parameter in the URL) How can I stop or work around this? ViewModel public class ProductExtraModel { //Database public int ID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public int ProductID { get; set; } public ProductModel Product { get; set; } }

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  • Passing jquery JSON from Codeigniter controller to view

    - by dede
    I've been struggling to make it work, but cannot pass the inserted data from the controler to the view in CI using JSON. The input value from the form is successfully inserted into the database, but cannot make it appear in the view. This is my view file ajax_view.php: <script type="text/javascript" src="<?php echo base_url(); ?>js/jquery-1.4.2.min.js"></script> $(document).ready(function(){ $("#submit").click(function(){ var inp = $('#inp').val(); $.post("ajax/ajax_input", { 'send' : inp }, function(data){ alert(data.input_text); }, "json"); }); }); </script> </head> <body> <form id="form1" method="post" action=""> <label for="inp">Text</label> <input type="text" name="inp" id="inp" /> <label for="submit"></label> <input type="submit" name="submit" id="submit" value="Submit" /> And this is the ajax_input method of the ajax.php controller: <?php // Initializing controller ..... // ............................. //ajax method function ajax_input(){ $var_1 = trim($this->input->post('send')); $array = array('input_text' => $var_1); echo json_encode($array); $this->db->insert('ajax',$array); } Trying to debug it with Firebug, it gives me that data.input_text is empty. What am I doing wrong? EDIT: I'm using XAMPP on Win, so is it posible that json configuration is the problem?

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  • Creating a RESTful API - HELP!

    - by Martin Cox
    Hi Chaps Over the last few weeks I've been learning about iOS development, which has naturally led me into the world of APIs. Now, searching around on the Internet, I've come to the conclusion that using the REST architecture is very much recommended - due to it's supposed simplicity and ease of implementation. However, I'm really struggling with the implementation side of REST. I understand the concept; using HTTP methods as verbs to describe the action of a request and responding with suitable response codes, and so on. It's just, I don't understand how to code it. I don't get how I map a URI to an object. I understand that a GET request for domain.com/api/user/address?user_id=999 would return the address of user 999 - but I don't understand where or how that mapping from /user/address to some method that queries a database has taken place. Is this all coded in one php script? Would I just have a method that grabs the URI like so: $array = explode("/", ltrim(rtrim($_SERVER['REQUEST_URI'], "/"), "/")) And then cycle through that array, first I would have a request for a "user", so the PHP script would direct my request to the user object and then invoke the address method. Is that what actually happens? I've probably not explained my thought process very well there. The main thing I'm not getting is how that URI /user/address?id=999 somehow is broken down and executed - does it actually resolve to code? class user(id) { address() { //get user address } } I doubt I'm making sense now, so I'll call it a day trying to explain further. I hope someone out there can understand what I'm trying to say! Thanks Chaps, look forward to your responses. Martin p.s - I'm not a developer yet, I'm learning :)

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  • How to create nested ViewComponents in Monorail and NVelocity?

    - by rob_g
    I have been asked to update the menu on a website we maintain. The website uses Castle Windors Monorail and NVelocity as the template. The menu is currently rendered using custom made subclasses of ViewComponent, which render li elements. At the moment there is only one (horizontal) level, so the current mechanism is fine. I have been asked to add drop down menus to some of the existing menus. As this is the first time I have seen Monorail and NVelocity, I'm a little lost. What currently exists: <ul> #component(MenuComponent with "title=Home" "hover=autoselect" "link=/") #component(MenuComponent with "title=Videos" "hover=autoselect") #component(MenuComponent with "title=VPS" "hover=autoselect" "link=/vps") #component(MenuComponent with "title=Add-Ons" "hover=autoselect" "link=/addons") #component(MenuComponent with "title=Hosting" "hover=autoselect" "link=/hosting") #component(MenuComponent with "title=Support" "hover=autoselect" "link=/support") #component(MenuComponent with "title=News" "hover=autoselect" "link=/news") #component(MenuComponent with "title=Contact Us" "hover=autoselect" "link=/contact-us") </ul> Is it possible to have nested MenuComponents (or a new SubMenuComponent) something like: <ul> #component(MenuComponent with "title=Home" "hover=autoselect" "link=/") #component(MenuComponent with "title=Videos" "hover=autoselect") #blockcomponent(MenuComponent with "title=VPS" "hover=autoselect" "link=/vps") #component(SubMenuComponent with "title="Plans" "hover=autoselect" "link=/vps/plans") #component(SubMenuComponent with "title="Operating Systems" "hover=autoselect" "link=/vps/os") #component(SubMenuComponent with "title="Supported Applications" "hover=autoselect" "link=/vps/apps") #end #component(MenuComponent with "title=Add-Ons" "hover=autoselect" "link=/addons") #component(MenuComponent with "title=Hosting" "hover=autoselect" "link=/hosting") #component(MenuComponent with "title=Support" "hover=autoselect" "link=/support") #component(MenuComponent with "title=News" "hover=autoselect" "link=/news") #component(MenuComponent with "title=Contact Us" "hover=autoselect" "link=/contact-us") </ul> I need to draw the sub menu (ul and li elements) inside the overridden Render method on MenuComponent, so using nested ViewComponent derivatives may not work. I would like a method keep the basically declarative method for creating menus, if at all possible.

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  • Python 3, urllib ... Reset Connection Possible?

    - by Rhys
    In the larger scale of my program the goal of the below code is to filter out all dynamic html in a web-page source code code snippet: try: deepreq3 = urllib.request.Request(deepurl3) deepreq3.add_header("User-Agent","etc......") deepdata3 = urllib.request.urlopen(deepurl3).read().decode("utf8", 'ignore') The following code is looped 3 times in order to identify whether the target web-page is Dynamic (source code is changed at intervals) or not. If the page IS dynamic, the above code loops another 15 times and attempts to filter out the dynamic content. QUESTION: While this filtering method works 80% of the time, some pages will reload ALL 15 times and STILL contain dynamic code. HOWEVER. If I manually close down the Python Shell and re-execute my program, the dynamic html that my 'refresh-page method' could not shake off is no longer there ... it's been replaced with new dynamic html that my 'refresh-page method' cannot shake off. So I need to know, what is going on here? How is re-running my program causing the dynamic content of a page to change. AND, is there any way, any 'reset connection' command I can use to recreate this ... without manually restarting my app. Thanks for your response.

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  • Forcing Kernel::method_name to be called in Ruby

    - by Peter
    I want to add a foo method to Ruby's Kernel module, so I can write foo(obj) anywhere and have it do something to obj. Sometimes I want a class to override foo, so I do this: module Kernel private # important; this is what Ruby does for commands like 'puts', etc. def foo x if x.respond_to? :foo x.foo # use overwritten method. else # do something to x. end end end this is good, and works. but, what if I want to use the default Kernel::foo in some other object that overwrites foo? Since I've got an instance method foo, I've lost the original binding to Kernel::foo. class Bar def foo # override behaviour of Kernel::foo for Bar objects. foo(3) # calls Bar::foo, not the desired call of Kernel::foo. Kernel::foo(3) # can't call Kernel::foo because it's private. # question: how do I call Kernel::foo on 3? end end Is there any clean way to get around this? I'd rather not have two different names, and I definitely don't want to make Kernel::foo public.

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  • How can I set the tab on a webpage depending on which page you come from in ASP.Net MVC?

    - by uriDium
    I have a rather large entity. It has a parent relationship with many different child tables. Each of the child tables I have represented as a tab (luckily it makes sense and looks nice and makes things easier to navigate). If the users wants to add a new child row, they go the particular tab, and there they see a list of rows which is owned by the parent and they can do the usual CRUD. The CRUD takes them to a new controller and action and passes the ID of the parent to the action. (This is as far as I can tell what I was meant to do, any other ideas??) When they have finsihed they click save and it takes them back to the original page BUT I want it to automatically go to the right tab. How can I do this? I am using Jquery UI tabs, ASP.Net MVC 2.0. One idea I had was to just go back to the bookmark (the href part with the #, for e.g. /Parent/Details/4/#tabname). Apparently JQuery UI tabs can handle this. Or to set the tab name as part of the query string (/Parent/Details/4?tab=name) What is the best practise here?

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  • How do I start a service which is defined in a different package?

    - by Brad Hein
    I have two apps, one runs in namespace com.gtosoft.voyager and the other is com.gtosoft.dash. From com.gtosoft.dash I would like to start up the service which is defined in com.gtosoft.voyager... I think I need an intent, but what arg(s) would I pass to the intent before kicking it off with startService()? If they were in the same package I could just use Intent svc=new Intent (SettingsActivity.this,VoyagerService.class); startService(svc); Snippet of Manifest which defines the service <application android:icon="@drawable/voyagercarlogo" android:label="@string/app_name" android:debuggable="false"> <provider android:name="com.gtosoft.voyager.VoyagerCProvider" android:authorities="com.gtosoft.voyager"/> <service android:name=".VoyagerService"/> <activity android:name=".SettingsActivity" android:label="Voyager" android:configChanges="keyboardHidden|orientation"> <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.MAIN" /> <category android:name="android.intent.category.LAUNCHER" /> </intent-filter> </activity>

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  • Filp route value in asp.net mvc routes

    - by Herman
    Hi all, I am new to asp.net mvc, so please bear with me. We have the following route dictionary setup. routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{language}/{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { language = "en", controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } // Parameter defaults ); for any given page in our app, we to render a link to the a french version of the same page. For example, the page: http://www.example.com/en/home should have link on that page that points to http://www.example.com/fr/home Now I have the following UrlHelper extension method public static string FilpLanguage(this UrlHelper urlHelper) { var data = urlHelper.RequestContext.RouteData; if (System.Threading.Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentCulture == CultureInfo.GetCultureInfoByIetfLanguageTag("en-CA")) data.Values["language"] = "fr"; else data.Values["language"] = "en"; return urlHelper.RouteUrl(data.Values.Where(item => item.Value != null)); } However, calling FilpLanguage on www.example.com/en/home will return the following URL: www.example.com/en/home?current=[,] Am I missing something here? where did the current parameter come from? Thanks in advance.

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  • Why is BorderLayout calling setSize() and setBounds()?

    - by ags
    I'm trying to get my head around proper use of the different LayoutManagers to make my GUI design skills more efficient and effective. For me, that usually requires a detailed understanding of what is going on under the hood. I've found some good discussion of the interaction and consequences of a Container using BorderLayout containing a Container using FlowLayout. I understand it for the most part, but wanted to confirm my mental model and to do so I am looking at the code for BorderLayout. In the code snippet below taken from BorderLayout.layoutContainer(), note the calls to the child Component's setSize() method followed by setBounds(). Looking at the source for these methods of Component, setSize() actually calls setBounds() with the current values for Component.x and Component.y. Why is this done (and not entirely redudant?) Doesn't the setBounds() call completely overwrite the results of the setSize() call? if ((c=getChild(NORTH,ltr)) != null) { c.setSize(right - left, c.height); Dimension d = c.getPreferredSize(); c.setBounds(left, top, right - left, d.height); top += d.height + vgap; } I'm also tring to understand where/when the child Component's size is initially set (before the LayoutManager.layoutContainer() method is called). Finally, this post itself raises a "meta-question": in a situation like this, where the source is available elsewhere, is the accepteed protocol to include the entire method? Or some other way to make it easier for folks to participate in the thread? Thanks.

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  • Cross domain ajax POST ie7 with jquery

    - by DickieBoy
    been having trouble with this script, ive managed to get it working in ie8, works on chrome fine. initilize: function(){ $('#my_form').submit(function(){ if ($.browser.msie && window.XDomainRequest) { var data = $('#my_form').serialize(); xdr=new XDomainRequest(); function after_xhr_load() { response = $.parseJSON(xdr.responseText); if(response.number =="incorrect format"){ $('#errors').html('error'); } else { $('#errors').html('worked'); } } xdr.onload = after_xhr_load; xdr.open("POST",$('#my_form').attr('action')+".json"); xdr.send(data); } else { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: $('#my_form').attr('action')+".json", data: $('#my_form').serialize(), dataType: "json", complete: function(data) { if(data.statusText =="OK"){ $('#errors').html('error'); } if(data.statusText =="Created"){ response = $.parseJSON(data.responseText); $('#errors').html('Here is your code:' +response.code); } } }); } return false; }); } I understand that ie7 does not have the XDomainRequest() object. How can I replicate this in ie7. Thanks, in advance

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  • Updating an application OTA

    - by Bostjan
    I'm developing an application that will be available from a website (market probably as well). The problem I'm having at the moment is how to handle the updates to the app. I know how to check the version against the current one and I know if I need to update it. Question is...how? Is there a way I can download an APK from the website and start the install process? The user will have to confirm of course, but I just want to be able to start it for him. At the moment I'm doing this: private void doUpgrade() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub Builder builder = new AlertDialog.Builder(this); builder.setTitle(getString(R.string.upgrade)); builder.setIcon(R.drawable.help); builder.setMessage(getString(R.string.needUpgrade)); builder.setPositiveButton(getString(R.string.ok), new DialogInterface.OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(DialogInterface dialog, int which) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub Map<String, String> data = new HashMap<String, String>(); try { HttpResponse re = Registration.doPost("http://www.android-town.com/appRelease/AndroidTown.apk",data); int statusCode = re.getStatusLine().getStatusCode(); closeApp(); } catch (ClientProtocolException e) { e.printStackTrace(); Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), getString(R.string.noURLAccess), Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); closeApp(); } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), getString(R.string.noURLAccess), Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); closeApp(); } } }); builder.setNegativeButton(getString(R.string.cancel), new DialogInterface.OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(DialogInterface dialog, int which) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub dialog.cancel(); closeApp(); } }); builder.show(); } But it doesn't really do anything...should I open a webView with the URL? A new runnable thread? Any other way? Please help :) Cheers

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  • Passing javascript object to webservice via Jquery ajax

    - by kralco626
    I have a webservice that returns an object [WebMethod] public List<User> ContractorApprovals() I also have a webservice that accepcts an object [WebMethod] public bool SaveContractor(Object u) When I make my webservice calls via Jquery: function ServiceCall(method, parameters, onSucess, onFailure) { var parms = "{" + (($.isArray(parameters)) ? parameters.join(',') : parameters) + "}"; // to json $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "services/"+method, data: parms, contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function(msg) { if (typeof onSucess == 'function' || typeof onSucess == 'object') onSucess(msg.d); }, error: function(msg, err) { $("#dialog-error").dialog('open');} }); I can call the first one just fine. My onSucess function gets passed a javascript object exactly structured like my User object on the service. However, I am now having trouble getting the object back to the server. I'm accepting Object as a parameter on the server side so I can't inagine there is an issue there. So I'm thinking something is wrong with the parms on the client side but i'm not sure what... I am doing something to the effect ServiceCall("AuthorizationManagerWorkManagement.asmx/ContractorApprovals", "", function(data,args){$("#div").data('user',data[0])}, null) then ServiceCall("AuthorizationManagerWorkManagement.asmx/SaveContractor", $("#div").data('user'), //These also do not work: "{'u': ' + $("#div").data("user") + '}", NOR JSON.stringify({u: userObject}) function(data,args){(alert(data)}, null) I know the first service call works, I can get the data. The second one is causing the "onFailure" method to execute rather then "OnSuccess". Any ideas?

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  • how to put header authentication into a form using php?

    - by SkyWookie
    Hey guys, for the page I am doing needs a login authentication using Twitter (using tweetphp API). For test purposes I used this code below to do a successful login: if (!isset($_SERVER['PHP_AUTH_USER'])){ header('WWW-Authenticate: Basic realm="Enter your Twitter username and password:"'); header('HTTP/1.0 401 Unauthorized'); echo 'Please enter your Twitter username and password to view your followers.'; exit(); } $username = $_SERVER['PHP_AUTH_USER']; $password = $_SERVER['PHP_AUTH_PW']; The problem now is, I want to integrate it into a form, so far I have the following: <form action="logincheck.php" method="post" class="niceform" > <fieldset> <legend>Twitter Login:</legend> <dl> <dt><label for="email">Twitter Username:</label></dt> <dd><input type="text" name="username" id="username" size="32" maxlength="128" /></dd> </dl> <dl> <dt><label for="password">Password:</label></dt> <dd><input type="password" name="password" id="password" size="32" maxlength="32" /></dd> </dl> </fieldset> <fieldset class="action"> <input type="submit" name="submit" id="submit" value="Submit" /> I am sending it to logincheck.php, this is where I think I get stuck. I am not sure how to compare the form data with Twitter's login data. I was trying a similar if statement as I used in the first code (box that pops up before page loads), but I couldn't wrap my head around it. Thanks again guys!

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  • Nested Views-button aint clicking

    - by Deepika
    i have a view which has a datepicker and a button added to it. There is another view which adds the above view as subview. But the events like touchesBegan and button's action are not being clicked on the subview. Please help The code of the parent view is: iTagDatePicker *dt=[[iTagDatePicker alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0.0, 180.0, 320.0, 240.0)]; //dt.userInteractionEnabled=YES; //[dt becomeFirstResponder]; dt.backgroundColor=[UIColor clearColor]; [UIView beginAnimations:@"animation" context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:1.0]; CGPoint cntr; cntr.x=160.0; cntr.y=420.0; dt.center=cntr; [self.view addSubview:dt]; self.view.userInteractionEnabled=YES; CGPoint cntr1; cntr1.x=160.0; cntr1.y=158.0; dt.center=cntr1; [UIView commitAnimations]; [dt release]; and the code for the sub class is: - (id)initWithFrame:(CGRect)frame { if (self = [super initWithFrame:frame]) { dtPicker=[[UIDatePicker alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(frame.origin.x, frame.origin.y, 320.0, 216.0)]; dtPicker.datePickerMode=UIDatePickerModeDate; dtPicker.date=[NSDate date]; [self addSubview:dtPicker]; btn=[[UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeDetailDisclosure]retain]; btn.frame=CGRectMake(110.0, 400.0, 100.0, 20.0); [btn setTitle:@"Done" forState:UIControlStateNormal]; btn.userInteractionEnabled=YES; [btn becomeFirstResponder]; [btn addTarget:self action:@selector(SelectedVal:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchDown]; [self addSubview:btn]; } return self; } The button is not working

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  • Using Dispose on a Singleton to Cleanup Resources

    - by ImperialLion
    The question I have might be more to do with semantics than with the actual use of IDisposable. I am working on implementing a singleton class that is in charge of managing a database instance that is created during the execution of the application. When the application closes this database should be deleted. Right now I have this delete being handled by a Cleanup() method of the singleton that the application calls when it is closing. As I was writing the documentation for Cleanup() it struck me that I was describing what a Dispose() method should be used for i.e. cleaning up resources. I had originally not implemented IDisposable because it seemed out of place in my singleton, because I didn't want anything to dispose the singleton itself. There isn't currently, but in the future might be a reason that this Cleanup() might be called but the singleton should will need to still exist. I think I can include GC.SuppressFinalize(this); in the Dispose method to make this feasible. My question therefore is multi-parted: 1) Is implementing IDisposable on a singleton fundamentally a bad idea? 2) Am I just mixing semantics here by having a Cleanup() instead of a Dispose() and since I'm disposing resources I really should use a dispose? 3) Will implementing 'Dispose()' with GC.SuppressFinalize(this); make it so my singleton is not actually destroyed in the case I want it to live after a call to clean-up the database.

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  • For loop index out of range ArgumentOutOfRangeException when multithreading

    - by Lirik
    I'm getting some strange behavior... when I iterate over the dummyText List in the ThreadTest method I get an index out of range exception (ArgumentOutOfRangeException), but if I remove the threads and I just print out the text, then everything works fine. This is my main method: public static Object sync = new Object(); static void Main(string[] args) { ThreadTest(); Console.WriteLine("Press any key to continue."); Console.ReadKey(); } This method throws the exception: private static void ThreadTest() { Console.WriteLine("Running ThreadTest"); Console.WriteLine("Running ThreadTest"); List<String> dummyText = new List<string>() { "One", "Two", "Three", "Four", "Five", "Six", "Seven", "Eight", "Nine", "Ten"}; for (int i = 0; i < dummyText.Count; i++) { Thread t = new Thread(() => PrintThreadName(dummyText[i])); // <-- Index out of range?!? t.Name = ("Thread " + (i)); t.IsBackground = true; t.Start(); } } private static void PrintThreadName(String text) { Random rand = new Random(DateTime.Now.Millisecond); while (true) { lock (sync) { Console.WriteLine(Thread.CurrentThread.Name + " running " + text); Thread.Sleep(1000+rand.Next(0,2000)); } } } This does not throw the exception: private static void ThreadTest() { Console.WriteLine("Running ThreadTest"); List<String> dummyText = new List<string>() { "One", "Two", "Three", "Four", "Five", "Six", "Seven", "Eight", "Nine", "Ten"}; for (int i = 0; i < dummyText.Count; i++) { Console.WriteLine(dummyText[i]); // <-- No exception here } } Does anybody know why this is happening?

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