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• Automate Field Entry in outside site

  - by JClaspill

  I am attempting to automate the entry of data into form fields. The problem is that this data (user/pass) is not known by the user. I'm not expressly hiding it from them, but they also don't need to know it. This is used to automate logins on several of our outside partner websites, who do not want our agents knowing their passwords. Sadly, most of these sites do not have any APIs I can work with... so I have to get the user logged in. I tried using an iframe and javascript, but I ran into the issue of security permissions denying it access. And sadly, our clients do not have access to add our domain to their sites(they seem to be 3rd party). Requirements: - Display webpage - Automatically enter data into fields Would be nice: - Automate signin similar to form.submit() - Flash/AJAX support. These seem to give the VB app issues. Is there a way to do this via javascript/html, and if not, do you have any recommendations for C#/php/asp.net options? PS: I am not sure what this techinque is called, so google isn't helping me it seems. Please set me straight on the terminology of what I am actually trying to accomplish.

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• Is OpenID too complicated?

  - by John Leidegren

  I'm beginning to seriously doubt the OpenID community despite that fact that it works. I'm in the process of currently evaluating OpenID as an authentication service for 'this' site and while the promises are great, I just can't get it to work. And I'm really lost. I ask of the SO community to help me out here. Give me answers and show me examples so I can leverage this in the way it was meant to be. My scenario is very typical. I want to authenticate users through a specific Google Apps domain. If you have access to this Google Apps domain, then you have access to my web application. Where I get lost, is all the prerequisites and dependencies involved. What is XRD? What is Yadis? Why do I need XRD and Yadis? What do I need to do to deploy OpenID authentication on my website? Also, this is really important to me. When I login to SO, I use my Google Account. When I click the login button I'm presented with this confirmation page. Where I'm granting SO the right to use my Google Account credentials. Somehow, Google knows that it's "Stackoverflow.com" that's asking me if it's okay to login. And I wish to know what manner of control I have over this little text. I intend to deploy OpenID on several different domains but I would prefer if they would all work without having to be individually configured with special parameters, such as secret API keys and what not. However, I don't know for sure if this is a prerequisite of OpenID, that or the Federated Login API that Google provides.

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• How to use the Zend_Log instance that was created using the Zend_Application_Resource_Log in a model

  - by Alex

  Our Zend_Log is initialized by only adding the following lines to application.ini resources.log.stream.writerName = "Stream" resources.log.stream.writerParams.mode = "a" So Zend_Application_Resource_Log will create the instance for us. We are already able to access this instance in controllers via the following: public function getLog() { $bootstrap = $this->getInvokeArg('bootstrap'); //if (is_null($bootstrap)) return false; if (!$bootstrap->hasPluginResource('Log')) { return false; } $log = $bootstrap->getResource('Log'); return $log; } So far, so good. Now we want to use the same log instance in model classes, where we can not access the bootstrap. Our first idea was to register the very same Log instance in Zend_Registry to be able to use Zend_Registry::get('Zend_Log') everywhere we want: in our Bootstrap class: protected function _initLog() { if (!$this->hasPluginResource('Log')) { throw new Zend_Exception('Log not enabled'); } $log = $this->getResource('Log'); assert( $log != null); Zend_Registry::set('Zend_Log', $log); } Unfortunately this assertion fails == $log IS NULL --- but why?? It is clear that we could just initialize the Zend_Log manually during bootstrapping without using the automatism of Zend_Application_Resource_Log, so this kind of answers will not be accepted.

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• Thread-Safe lazy instantiating using MEF

  - by Xaqron

  // Member Variable private static readonly object _syncLock = new object(); // Now inside a static method foreach (var lazyObject in plugins) { if ((string)lazyObject.Metadata["key"] = "something") { lock (_syncLock) { // It seems the `IsValueCreated` is not up-to-date if (!lazyObject.IsValueCreated) lazyObject.value.DoSomething(); } return lazyObject.value; } } Here I need synchronized access per loop. There are many threads iterating this loop and based on the key they are looking for, a lazy instance is created and returned. lazyObject should not be created more that one time. Although Lazy class is for doing so and despite of the used lock, under high threading I have more than one instance created (I track this with a Interlocked.Increment on a volatile static int and log it somewhere). The problem is I don't have access to definition of Lazy and MEF defines how the Lazy class create objects. I should notice the CompositionContainer has a thread-safe option in constructor which is already used. My questions: 1) Why the lock doesn't work ? 2) Should I use an array of locks instead of one lock for performance improvement ?

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• How to ensure nginx serves a request from an external IP?

  - by Matt

  I have a strange situation, where my nginx setup stopped handling external requests. I'm pretty stuck. If I hit the domain without a subdomain, I properly get redirected, however, if I request the full url, that fails and doesn't log anything, anywhere. I am able to curl localhost on the server itself, however when I attempt to curl from an external machine, it fails with: curl: (7) couldn't connect to host I've also noticed that bots can get through, I've seen Google hit the log every now and then. My nginx.conf file: upstream mongrels { server 127.0.0.1:5000; } server { listen 80; server_name culini.com; rewrite ^/(.*) http://www.culini.com/$1 permanent; } # the server directive is nginx's virtual host directive. server { # port to listen on. Can also be set to an IP:PORT listen 80; # Set the max size for file uploads to 50Mb client_max_body_size 50M; # sets the domain[s] that this vhost server requests for server_name www.culini.com; # doc root root /var/www/culini/current/public; log_format app '$remote_addr - $remote_user [$time_local] ' '"$request" $status $body_bytes_sent "$http_referer" ' '"$http_user_agent" "$http_x_forwarded_for" [$upstream_addr $upstream_response_time $upstream_status]'; # vhost specific access log access_log /var/www/culini/current/log/nginx.access.log app; error_log /var/www/culini/current/log/nginx.error.log debug; location / { proxy_set_header X-Real-IP $remote_addr; proxy_set_header X-Forwarded-For $proxy_add_x_forwarded_for; proxy_set_header Host $http_host; proxy_redirect false; proxy_max_temp_file_size 0; proxy_intercept_errors on; proxy_ignore_client_abort on; if (-f $request_filename) { break; } if (!-f $request_filename) { proxy_pass http://mongrels; break; } } } Please, please, any help would be greatly appreciated.

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• How security of the systems might be improved using database procedures?

  - by Centurion

  The usage of Oracle PL/SQL procedures for controlling access to data often emphasized in PL/SQL books and other sources as being more secure approach. I'v seen several systems where all business logic related with data is performed through packages, procedures and functions, so application code becomes quite "dumb" and is only responsible for visualization part. I even heard some devs call such approaches and driving architects as database nazi :) because all logic code resides in database. I do know about DB procedure performance benefits, but now I'm interested in a "better security" when using thick client model. I assume such design mostly used when Oracle (and maybe MS SQL Server) databases are used. I do agree such approach improves security but only if there are not much users and every system user has a database account, so we might control and monitor data access through standard database user security. However, how such approach could increase the security for an average web system where thick clients are used: for example one database user with DML grants on all tables, and other users are handled using "users" and"user_rights" tables? We could use DB procedures, save usernames into context use that for filtering but vulnerability resides at the root - if the main database account is compromised than nothing will help. Of course in a real system we might consider at least several main users (for example frontend_db_user, backend_db_user).

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• Are programming languages and methods ineffective? (assembler and C knowledge needed)

  - by b-gen-jack-o-neill

  Hi, for a long time, I am thinking and studying output of C language compiler in asemlber form, as well as CPU architecture. I know this may be silly to you, but it seems to me that something is very ineffective. Please, don´t be angry if I am wrong, and there is some reason I do not see for all these principles. I will be very glad if you tell me why is it designed this way. I actually trully believe I am wrong, I know the genius minds of people which get PCs together knew a reason to do so. What exactly, do you ask? I´ll tell you right away, I use C as a example: 1, Stack local scope memory allocation: So, typical local memory allocation uses stack. Just copy esp to ebp and than allocate all the memory via ebp. OK, I would understand this if you explicitly need allocate RAM by default stack values, but if I do understand it correctly, modern OS use paging as a translation layer between application and physical RAM, when adress you desire is further translated before reaching actuall RAM byte. So why don´t just say 0x00000000 is int a,0x00000004 is int b and so? And access them just by mov 0x00000000,#10? Becouse you wont actually access memory blocks 0x00000000 and 0x00000004 but those your OS set the paging tables to. Actually, since memory allocation by ebp and esp use indirect adressing, "my" way would be even faster. 2, Variable allocation duplicitly: When you run aaplication, Loader load its code into RAM. When you create variable, or string, compiler generates code that pushes these values on the top o stack when created in main. So there is actuall instruction for do so, and that actuall number in memory. So, there are 2 entries of the same value in RAM. One in fomr of instruction, second in form of actuall bytes in the RAM. But why? Why not to just when declaring variable count at which memory block it would be, than when used, just insert this memory location?

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• Doesn't this defeat the whole purpose of having read-only properties?

  - by flockofcode

  I know how to use properties and I understand that they implicitly call underlying get and set accessors, depending on whether we are writing to or reading from a property. static void Main(string[] args) { A a = new A(); (a.b).i = 100; } class A { private B _b = new B(); public B b { get { return _b; } } } class B { public int i; } What code (a.b).i = 100; essentially does is that first property’s get accessor returns a reference to an object _b, and once we have this reference, we are able to access _b’s members and change their values. Thus, in our example, having read only property only prevents outside code from changing the value of a reference variable _b, but it doesn’t prevent outside code from accessing _b’s members. So it seems that property can only detect whether we are trying to read from or write to a variable ( in our case variable _b ) located on the stack, while it’s not able to detect whether we’re trying to also write to members of an object to which the variable on the stack ( assuming this variable is of reference type ) points to. a) But doesn’t that defeat the whole purpose of having read-only properties? Wouldn’t it be more effective if properties had the ability to also detect whether we’re trying to access members of an object returned by get accessor( assuming backing field is of a reference type )? thank you

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• Integration test for H1 text failing when it should be passing (Rspec and Capybara)

  - by rebec

  Below you can see my test for what happens when a user tries to access the page to edit a profile photo that they don't own. I've used the same test on the NEW action, where it worked fine, but it surprised me by failing when I copied it down to the EDIT action tests. I've used save_and_open_page to test what Capybara's seeing (as you can see below); the resulting page definitely has an h1 with the specified text in it. No spelling errors, and case is all the same as in the test. I've tried using both have_css and have_selector. Both fail. I'm still learning Ruby, Rails, Rspec and especially Capybara (was using webrat previously and recently switched over), and wonder if I'm misconceiving of something that's making me expect this to pass when it doesn't. Any thoughts? Thanks! describe "EDIT" do let(:user) { FactoryGirl.create(:user) } let(:different_user) { FactoryGirl.create(:user) } let(:admin_user) { FactoryGirl.create(:user, role: "admin") } let(:profile_photo1) { FactoryGirl.create(:profile_photo, user: user) } subject { page } context "when signed in as any member" do before { login different_user visit edit_user_profile_photo_path(:id => profile_photo1, :user_id => profile_photo1.user_id) save_and_open_page } # It should deny access with an Unauthorised/Forbidden message. it { should have_css('h1', text: "Unauthorised/Forbidden.") } end

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• Generating a zend form with dynamic data?

  - by meder

  I need to access my session and based on the session property I need to grab stuff from the database to use as options in my dropdown. $_SESSION is: [sess_name] => Array( [properties] => Array( 1=> Hotel A, 2=> Hotel B ), [selected] => 1 ) I need to grab Hotel A from selected, and then access all accounts under Hotel A from the database: id title hotel_id ------------------------------ 1 Hotel A Twitter Account 1 2 Hotel B Facebook Account 2 3 Hotel A Facebook Account 1 I need ids 1 and 3 because my hotel_id is 1 in the context of: $this->addElement( 'select', 'account', array( 'multioptions' => $NEED_IT_HERE )); Here's my query / session grabbing code: $cs = new Zend_Session_Namespace( SESS_NAME ); $model = new Model_DbTable_Social; $s = " SELECT social_accounts.* FROM social_accounts LEFT JOIN social_media_outlets ON social_media_outlets.id = social_accounts.property WHERE social_accounts.property=".(int)$cs->selectedclient; I have this code in my form page, but I need to move it into my model now.

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• Best practice when removing entity regarding mappedBy collections?

  - by Daniel Bleisteiner

  I'm still kind of undecided which is the best practice to handle em.remove(entity) with this entity being in several collections mapped using mappedBy in JPA. Consider an entity like a Property that references three other entities: a Descriptor, a BusinessObject and a Level entity. The mapping is defined using @ManyToOne in the Property entity and using @OneToMany(mappedBy...) in the other three objects. That inverse mapping is defined because there are some situations where I need to access those collections. Whenever I remove a Property using em.remove(prop) this element is not automatically removed from managed entities of the other three types. If I don't care about that and the following page load (webapp) doesn't reload those entities the Property is still found and some decisions might be taken that are no longer true. The inverse mappings may become quite large and though I don't want to use something like descriptor.getProperties().remove(prop) because it will load all those properties that might have been lazy loaded until then. So my currently preferred way is to refresh the entity if it is managed: if (em.contains(descriptor)) em.refresh(descriptor) - which unloads a possibly loaded collection and triggers a reload upon the next access. Is there another feasible way to handle all those mappedBy collections of already loaded entites?

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• Event-based interaction between two custom classes

  - by Antenka

  Hello everybody. I have such problem: I have 2 custom components, which have their own nesting hierarchy ... One is container for another. I have to "familiarize them" with each other. The way I'm trying to achieve that is using global events (one side is firing and the other one is catching): Application.application.addEventListener("Hello", function (data:Event):void{ // .. some actions }); //and Application.application.dispatchEvent(new Event(Hello)); Everything is pretty good, but there's one thingy .. when I'm trying to catch the event, I can't access the class, who is catching it. E.g.: Container fires the event. Child caughts it. Then should be created the connection between container and it's child. BUT, the only thing I could acheive is passing a reference to the Container in the DynamicEvent. Is there any chance that I could access the child at the event-handler function. Or maybe there's more elegant way to solve this problem ... Any help would be greately appreciated :)

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• [C]Dynamic allocation memory of structure, related to GTK

  - by MakeItWork

  Hello, I have following structure: typedef struct { GtkWidget* PoziomaLinijka; GtkWidget* PionowaLinijka; GtkWidget* Label1; GtkWidget* Label2; gint x,y; } StrukturaDrawing; And i need to allocate it on the heap because later I have functions which uses that structure and I don't want to use global variables. So I allocate it like this: StrukturaDrawing* Wsk; Wsk = (StrukturaDrawing*)malloc(sizeof(StrukturaDrawing)); if (!Wsk) { printf("Error\n"); } And it doesn't returning error and also works great with other functions, it works the way I wanted it to work so finally i wanted to free that memory and here is problem because in Debug Mode compilator bitches: First-chance exception at 0x102d12b4 in GTK.exe: 0xC0000005: Access violation reading location 0xfffffffc. Unhandled exception at 0x102d12b4 in GTK.exe: 0xC0000005: Access violation reading location 0xfffffffc. I connect callback to my function, like that: g_signal_connect(G_OBJECT(Okno), "destroy", G_CALLBACK(Wyjscie), Wsk); Function which is suppose to free memory and close program: void Wyjscie(GtkWindow* window, GdkEvent* event, StrukturaDrawing* data) { gtk_main_quit(); free(data); data = NULL; } Any help really appreciated.

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• Processor, OS : 32bit, 64 bit

  - by Sandbox

  I am new to programming and come from a non-CS background (no formal degree). I mostly program winforms using C#. I am confused about 32 bit and 64 bit.... I mean, have heard about 32 bit OS, 32 bit processor and based on which a program can have maximum memory. How it affects the speed of a program. There are lot more questions which keep coming to mind. I tried to go through some Computer Organization and Architecture books. But, either I am too dumb to understand what is written in there or the writers assume that the reader has some CS background. Can someone explain me these things in a plain simple English or point me to something which does that. EDIT: I have read things like In 32-bit mode, they can access up to 4GB memory; in 64-bit mode, they can access much much more....I want to know WHY to all such things. BOUNTY: Answers below are really good....esp one by Martin. But, I am looking at a thorough explanation, but in plain simple English.

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• File being used by another process. Reason, and solution?

  - by pstar

  The process cannot access the file 'abc.log' because it is being used by another process. Hi, I've seen this exception from my application occationaly but I am still trying to fix that, hope I will get some insight from stackoverflow. In my application I've have defined a WriteToLog function which will write to a log file. Also the mainForm of my application will launch a backgroundWorker do some job which also calls the WriteToLog. Maybe two threads access a file will cause a problem? But in my code I 've already do my best to write flush and close the text file (I think), and here is my code from WriteToLog: StreamWriter sw = null; string newText = ""; try { //populate the content for newText sw = File.AppendText(LOG_FILE); sw.Write(newText); sw.Flush(); sw.Close(); } catch (IOException ex) { MessageBox.Show("Failed to write to log!\n\t" + ex.Message, "Error", MessageBoxButtons.OK, MessageBoxIcon.Error); } finally { if (sw != null) { sw.Close(); } } I think as long as I flush and close the streamWriter, I should be able call the WriteToLog multi-times and in multi-threads isn't it? Or if I am wrong, could I simple make the file open shared, or there are other reason/solutions?

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• Hot to set class variable to be visible to its public static methods?

  - by RCola

  Why I can noy access my variable p in mull form iterate method? How to resolve a problem? Hot to set class variable to be visible to its public static methods? public class mull { public static void main(String[] args) throws InterruptedException { final JPanel p = createAndShowGUI(); Timer timer = new Timer(1000, new MyTimerActionListener()); timer.start(); try { Thread.sleep(10000); } catch (InterruptedException e) { } timer.stop(); public static void iterate(){ for (int i = 0; i < 55; i++){ // "p cannot be resolved" p.moveSquare(i*10, i*10); p.setParamsRing(i*5, i*7, 200, 200); // p.repaint(); } } } class MyPanel extends JPanel { .... } How to access variable set in another method (in this example main())? Why Eclipse forces me to use this ((MyPanel) p).setParamsRing(i*5, i*7, 200, 200); instead of this p.setParamsRing(i*5, i*7, 200, 200);?

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• Additional information in ASP.Net MVC View

  - by Max Malmgren

  I am attempting to implement a custom locale service in an MVC 2 webpage. I have an interface IResourceDictionary that provides a couple of methods for accessing resources by culture. This is because I want to avoid the static classes of .Net resources. The problem is accessing the chosen IResourceDictionary from the views. I have contemplated using the ViewDataDictionary given, creating a base controller from which all my controllers inherits that adds my IResourceDictionary to the ViewData before each action executes. Then I could call my resource dictionary this way: (ViewData["Resources"] as IResourceDictionary).GetEntry(params); Admittedly, this is extremely verbose and ugly, especially in inline code as we are encouraged to use in MVC. Right now I am leaning towards static class access ResourceDictionary.GetEntry(params); because it is slightly more elegant. I also thought about adding it to my typed model for each page, which seems more robust than adding it to the ViewData.. What is the preferred way to access my ResourceDictionary from the views? All my views will be using this dictionary.

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• Error while setting UserAcces permission for WebForms?

  - by ksg

  I've created a class named BaseClass.cs and I've written a function in its constructor. Here's how it looks public class BasePage:Page { public BasePage() { setUserPermission(); } private void setUserPermission() { String strPathAndQuery = HttpContext.Current.Request.Url.PathAndQuery; string strulr = strPathAndQuery.Replace("/SGERP/", "../"); Session["Url"] = strulr; GEN_FORMS clsForm = new GEN_FORMS(); clsForm.Form_Logical_Name = Session["Url"].ToString(); clsForm.User_ID = Convert.ToInt32(Session["User_ID"]); DataSet dsPermission = clsForm.RETREIVE_BUTTON_PERMISSIONS(); if (dsPermission.Tables.Count > 0) { if (dsPermission.Tables[1].Rows.Count > 0) { Can_Add = Convert.ToBoolean(dsPermission.Tables[1].Rows[0]["Can_Add"].ToString()); Can_Delete = Convert.ToBoolean(dsPermission.Tables[1].Rows[0]["Can_Delete"].ToString()); Can_Edit = Convert.ToBoolean(dsPermission.Tables[1].Rows[0]["Can_Edit"].ToString()); Can_Print = Convert.ToBoolean(dsPermission.Tables[1].Rows[0]["Can_Print"].ToString()); Can_View = Convert.ToBoolean(dsPermission.Tables[1].Rows[0]["Can_Print"].ToString()); } } } } I've inherited this class on my webform so that when the page loads, the setUserPermission function is executed. My webpage looks like this public partial class Setting_CompanyDetails : BasePage My problem is that I cannot access Session["Url"] in my BasePage. I'm getting the following error Session state can only be used when enableSessionState is set to true, either in a configuration file or in the Page directive. Please also make sure that System.Web.SessionStateModule or a custom session state module is included in the <configuration>\<system.web>\<httpModules> section in the application configuration. How can I solve this issue? Is this the right way to set UserPermission access?

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• Windows service: Listening on socket while running as LocalSystem

  - by Socob

  I'm writing a small server-like program in C for Windows (using MinGW/GCC, testing on Windows 7) which is eventually supposed to run as a service with the LocalSystem account. I am creating a socket, and using Windows Sockets bind(), listen() and accept() to listen for incoming connections. If I run the application from the command line (i.e. not as a service, but as a normal user), I have no problems connecting to it from external IPs. However, if I run the program as a service with the LocalSystem account, I can only connect to the service from my own PC, either with 127.0.0.1 or my local address, 192.168.1.80 (I'm behind a router in a small local network). Neither external IPs nor other PCs in the same local network, using my local address, can connect now, even though there were no problems without running as a service. Now, I've heard that networking is handled differently or even not accessible (?) when running as LocalSystem or LocalService or that services cannot access both the desktop and the network (note: my service is not interactive) at the same time due to security considerations. Essentially, I need to find out what's going wrong/how to listen for connections in a service. Is running as NetworkService the same as running as LocalSystem, but with network access? Surely there must be servers that can run as background services, so how do they do it?

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• Accessing "pseudo-globals" by their name as a string

  - by rob

  I am now in the process of removing most globals from my code by enclosing everything in a function, turning the globals into "pseudo globals," that are all accessible from anywhere inside that function block. (function(){ var g = 1; var func f1 = function () { alert (g); } var func f2= function () { f1(); } })(); (technically this is only for my "release version", where I append all my files together into a single file and surround them with the above....my dev version still has typically one global per js file) This all works great except for one thing...there is one important place where I need to access some of these "globals" by string name. Previously, I could have done this: var name = "g"; alert (window[name]); and it did the same as alert(g); Now -- from inside the block -- I would like to do the same, on my pseudo-globals. But I can't, since they are no longer members of any parent object ("window"), even though are in scope. Any way to access them by string? Thanks...

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• Is there a unique computer identifier that can be used reliably even in a virtual machine?

  - by SaUce

  I'm writing a small client program to be run on a terminal server. I'm looking for a way to make sure that it will only run on this server and in case it is removed from the server it will not function. I understand that there is no perfect way of securing it to make it impossible to ran on other platforms, but I want to make it hard enough to prevent 95% of people to try anything. The other 5% who can hack it is not my concern. I was looking at different Unique Identifiers like Processor ID, Windows Product ID, Computer GUID and other UIs. Because the terminal server is a virtual machine, I cannot locate anything that is completely unique to this machine. Any ideas on what I should look into to make this 95% secure. I do not have time or the need to make it as secure as possible because it will defeat the purpose of the application itself. I do not want to user MAC address. Even though it is unique to each machine it can be easily spoofed. As far as Microsoft Product ID, because our system team clones VM servers and we use corporate volume key, I found already two servers that I have access to that have same Product ID Number. I have no Idea how many others out there that have same Product ID By 95% and 5% I just simply wanted to illustrate how far i want to go with securing this software. I do not have precise statistics on how many people can do what. I believe I might need to change my approach and instead of trying to identify the machine, I will be better off by identifying the user and create group based permission for access to this software.

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• Why do I get 'Connection refused - connect(2)' for some models?

  - by Will

  I have a rails application running for the past 90 days that suddenly stopped working. Debugging the problem I found that I can read from the DB but not write to it. At least for certain models. There is one model that I can save whereas all others return Connection refused - connect(2) when I attempt to save them. They all used to work fine last month. I have no idea how to determine what the problem may be. Unfortunately I do not have access to the actual server remotely right now so I am limited in my debugging ability. I was able to get some non-tech people to run simple commands though that may help identify my problem. I will also be getting access tomorrow at some point. 1 Check from the console ./script/console >> a = Post.last.clone => #<Post id: nil, title: "test"... >> a.ex_id = 7 >> a.save Connection refused - connect(2) ... ... >> b = Story.last.console => #<Story id: nil, title: "test"... >> a.ex_id = 7 >> a.save => true I am not sure why this works for story and not post. This is consistent over many tests. 2 Check from mysql ./script/dbconsole -p mysql> INSERT INTO Posts (`title`,`body`, `ex_id`) SELECT `title`, `body`, 7 FROM Posts WHERE ID = 1; Query OK, 1 row affected (0.01 sec) Records: 1 Duplicates: 0 Warnings: 0 And as you can see I am able to write to the table with the same credientials that Rails uses? Does anyone know why I get connection refused in the console?

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• In Maven 2, Is it possible to specify a mirror for everything, but allow for failover to direct repo

  - by Justin Searls

  I understand that part of the appeal of setting up a Maven mirror, such as the following: <mirror> <id>nexus</id> <name>Maven Repository</name> <mirrorOf>*</mirrorOf> <url>http://server:8081/nexus/content/groups/public</url> </mirror> ... is that the documentation states, "You can force Maven to use a single repository by having it mirror all repository requests." However, is this also an indication that by having a * mirror set up each workstation [b]must[/b] be forced to go through the mirror? I ask because I would like each workstation to failover and connect directly to whatever public repositories it knows about in the event that Nexus can't resolve a dependency or plugin. (In a perfect world, each developer has the access necessary to add additional proxy repositories as needed. However, sometimes that access isn't available; sometimes the Nexus server goes down; sometimes it suffers a Java heap error.) Is this "mirror but go ahead and connect directly to public repos" failover configuration possible in Maven 2? Will it be in Maven 3?

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• Virtual functions - base class pointer

  - by user980411

  I understood why a base class pointer is made to point to a derived class object. But, I fail to understand why we need to assign to it, a base class object, when it is a base class object by itself. Can anyone please explain that? #include <iostream> using namespace std; class base { public: virtual void vfunc() { cout << "This is base's vfunc().\n"; } }; class derived1 : public base { public: void vfunc() { cout << "This is derived1's vfunc().\n"; } }; int main() { base *p, b; derived1 d1; // point to base p = &b; p->vfunc(); // access base's vfunc() // point to derived1 p = &d1; p->vfunc(); // access derived1's vfunc() return 0; }

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• Specific path to java class file when embedded into HTML; Help urgent

  - by Jeevanism

  This is a resonant post to one of my other query due to an error with Java applet embedded into CMS pages. well, I tell issue:- Problem:- I have a website using Concrete 5 CMS, in which I have a page that I have embedded a Java applet class. This applet should show the system information which this applet is working fine in simple single HTML pages. now whenever I access my plugin Test page which created in Concrete 5 CMS (this page I embedded this java applet), it shows a Java error. The error is says incompatible Magic Number. Observation:- After a lot of searching through various tech forums, I finally found that, the issue is happened because the browser cannot load Java class file. The class file path location is wrong. Here below I post the log of server access when I test in my local machine. 127.0.0.1 - - [20/Dec/2012:12:59:28 +0800] "GET /linuxhouse/index.php/techlab/java/testvm.class HTTP/1.1" 200 1896 "-" "Mozilla/4.0 (Linux 2.6.37.6-0.9-desktop) Java/1.6.0_29" 127.0.0.1 - - [20/Dec/2012:12:59:29 +0800] "GET /linuxhouse/index.php/techlab/java/testvm.class HTTP/1.1" 200 1896 "-" "Mozilla/4.0 (Linux 2.6.37.6-0.9-desktop) Java/1.6.0_29" <<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<< Clearly, the path to Java class file is wrong. But I have no idea how to specify exact path in an embedded code. Is this a CMS specific issue. I have disabled Pretty URL feature of CMS. But still I cannot find the solution. here the referred Page that shows the java error. http://www.linux-house.net/v3/techlab/plugin pls pls give some insight..URGENT SOS

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