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• ORA- 01157 / Cant connect to database

  - by Tom

  Hi everyone, this is a follow up from this question. Let me start by saying that i am NOT a DBA, so i'm really really lost with this. A few weeks ago, we lost contact with one of our SID'S. All the other services are working, but this one in particular is not. What we got was this message when trying to connect ORA-01033: ORACLE initialization or shutdown in progress An attempt to alter database open ended up in ORA-01157: cannot identify/lock data file 6 - see DBWR trace file ORA-01110: data file 6: '/u01/app/oracle/oradata/xxx/xxx_data.dbf' I tried to shutdown / restart the database, but got this message. Total System Global Area 566231040 bytes Fixed Size 1220604 bytes Variable Size 117440516 bytes Database Buffers 444596224 bytes Redo Buffers 2973696 bytes Database mounted. ORA-01157: cannot identify/lock data file 6 - see DBWR trace file ORA-01110: data file 6: '/u01/app/oracle/oradata/xxx/xxx_data.dbf' When all continued the same, I erased the dbf files (rm xxx_data.dbf xxx_index.dbf), and recreated them using touch xxx_data.dbf. I also tried to recreate the tablespaces using `CREATE TABLESPACE DATA DATAFILE XXX_DATA.DBF` and got Database not open As I said, i don't know how bad this is, or how far i'm from gaining access to my database (well, to this SID at least, the others are working). I would imagine that a last resource would be to throw everything away, and recreating it, but I don't know how to, and I was hoping there's a less destructive solution. Any help will be greatly appreciated . Thanks in advance.

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• Multiple SessionFactories in Windows Service with NHibernate

  - by Rob Taylor

  Hi all, I have a Webapp which connects to 2 DBs (one core, the other is a logging DB). I must now create a Windows service which will use the same business logic/Data access DLLs. However when I try to reference 2 session factories in the Service App and call the factory.GetCurrentSession() method, I get the error message "No session bound to current context". Does anyone have a suggestion about how this can be done? public class StaticSessionManager { public static readonly ISessionFactory SessionFactory; public static readonly ISessionFactory LoggingSessionFactory; static StaticSessionManager() { string fileName = System.Configuration.ConfigurationSettings.AppSettings["DefaultNHihbernateConfigFile"]; string executingPath = System.IO.Path.GetDirectoryName(System.Reflection.Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().GetName().CodeBase); fileName = executingPath + "\\" + fileName; SessionFactory = cfg.Configure(fileName).BuildSessionFactory(); cfg = new Configuration(); fileName = System.Configuration.ConfigurationSettings.AppSettings["LoggingNHihbernateConfigFile"]; fileName = executingPath + "\\" + fileName; LoggingSessionFactory = cfg.Configure(fileName).BuildSessionFactory(); } } The configuration file has the setting: <property name="current_session_context_class">call</property> The service sets up the factories: private ISession _session = null; private ISession _loggingSession = null; private ISessionFactory _sessionFactory = StaticSessionManager.SessionFactory; private ISessionFactory _loggingSessionFactory = StaticSessionManager.LoggingSessionFactory; ... _sessionFactory = StaticSessionManager.SessionFactory; _loggingSessionFactory = StaticSessionManager.LoggingSessionFactory; _session = _sessionFactory.OpenSession(); NHibernate.Context.CurrentSessionContext.Bind(_session); _loggingSession = _loggingSessionFactory.OpenSession(); NHibernate.Context.CurrentSessionContext.Bind(_loggingSession); So finally, I try to call the correct factory by: ISession session = StaticSessionManager.SessionFactory.GetCurrentSession(); Can anyone suggest a better way to handle this? Thanks in advance! Rob

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• C++ VB6 interfacing problem

  - by Roshan

  Hi, I'm tearing my hair out trying to solve this one, any insights will be much appreciated: I have a C++ exe which acquires data from some hardware in the main thread and processes it in another thread (thread 2). I use a c++ dll to supply some data processing functions which are called from thread 2. I have a requirement to make another set of data processing functions in VB6. I have thus created a VB6 dll, using the add-in vbAdvance to create a standard dll. When I call functions from within this VB6 dll from the main thread, everything works exactly as expected. When I call functions from this VB6 dll in thread 2, I get an access violation. I've traced the error to the CopyMemory command, it would seem that if this is used within the call from the main thread, it's fine but in a call from the process thread, it causes an exception. Why should this be so? As far as I understand, threads share the same address space. Here is the code from my VB dll Public Sub UserFunInterface(ByVal in1ptr As Long, ByVal out1ptr As Long, ByRef nsamples As Long) Dim myarray1() As Single Dim myarray2() As Single Dim i As Integer ReDim myarray1(0 To nsamples - 1) As Single ReDim myarray2(0 To nsamples - 1) As Single With tsa1din(0) ' defined as safearray1d in a global definitions module .cDims = 1 .cbElements = 4 .cElements = nsamples .pvData = in1ptr End With With tsa1dout .cDims = 1 .cbElements = 4 .cElements = nsamples .pvData = out1ptr End With CopyMemory ByVal VarPtrArray(myarray1), VarPtr(tsa1din(0)), 4 CopyMemory ByVal VarPtrArray(myarray2), VarPtr(tsa1dout), 4 For i = 0 To nsamples - 1 myarray2(i) = myarray1(i) * 2 Next i ZeroMemory ByVal VarPtrArray(myarray1), 4 ZeroMemory ByVal VarPtrArray(myarray2), 4 End Sub

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• Nested hyperlinks in XHTML 1.1 document

  - by Nazgulled

  Hi, I'm doing a simple widget for WordPress that fetches the most recent tweets from the RSS feed provided by Twitter. This widget parses any link posted on a tweet, it also parses mentions (ie: @username) and trending topics (ie: #nowplaying). For these 3 situations, it creates links pointing to some Twitter feature. For instance: "Hi @UserA, check out the song Foo from FooBar that I'm listening, it's awesome. #nowplaying" And it will parse into this: Hi <a href="http://twitter.com/UserA">@UserA</a>, check out the song Foo from FooBar that I'm listening, it's awesome. <a href="http://twitter.com/#search?q=nowplaying">#nowplaying</a> Now now I need to add a global link to the whole message, like this: <a href="http://twitter.com/UserA/statuses/1234567890"> Hi <a href="http://twitter.com/UserA">@UserA</a>, check out the song Foo from FooBar that I'm listening, it's awesome. <a href="http://twitter.com/#search?q=nowplaying">#nowplaying</a> </a> But this code does not validate and it doesn't work anyways (the browsers don't really seem to know what to do with it). Any suggestions how could I fix this?

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• Obfuscating ASP.Net dll breaks web application.

  - by uriDium

  I wouldn't usually bother to obfuscate a web application DLL but right now I have to share some server space with someone who might have a conflict of interest and might be tempted to steal the deal and decompile it. Not an ideal solution I know but hey. So I am using VS 2005, a web deployment project (which compiles into a single DLL) and Dotfuscator community edition. When I obfuscate the DLL the web application breaks and I get some message like Could not load type 'Browse' from assembly MyAssembly So I searched around and found that if I disable renaming then it should fix it. Which it does. But now when I look at the DLL using .Net reflector I can see everything again. So this seems kind of pointless. Is there a way to get this to work? Is there a better way to protect my DLL from someone I have to share a server with? UPDATE: I figured out my problem. All the classnames have changed but now all my <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="mycode.aspx.cs" Inherits="mycode" % is incorrect because mycode no longer exists. It is now aef or something. Is there any tool out there that will also change the names of the Codefile and Inherits tags?

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• WordPress plugin to output a certain category on content page tweak help

  - by talkingD0G

  I'm using WordPress plugin Category Page to display the most recent 5 posts from a certain category on a regular content page (not the blog page) of a website. Right now the plugin is limited to display the post title linked to the post page. This is a video blog type site and I need the plugin to display the post title (as it does now) with the video as well. Probably just telling the script to show the content would work but I don't know how to tweak it. This is the section of the script that is outputting the post title: function page2cat_content_catlist($content){ global $post; if ( stristr( $content, '[catlist' )) { $search = "@(?:<p>)*\s*\[catlist\s*=\s*(\w+|^\+)\]\s*(?:</p>)*@i"; if (preg_match_all($search, $content, $matches)) { if (is_array($matches)) { $title = get_option('p2c_catlist_title'); if($title != "") $output = "<h4>".$title."</h4>"; else $output = ""; $output .= "<ul class='p2c_catlist'>"; $limit = get_option('p2c_catlist_limit'); foreach ($matches[1] as $key =>$v0) { $catposts = get_posts('category='.$v0."&numberposts=".$limit); foreach($catposts as $single): $output .= "<li><a href='".get_permalink($single->ID)." '>".$single->post_title."</a></li>"; endforeach; $search = $matches[0][$key]; $replace= $output; $content= str_replace ($search, $replace, $content); } $output .= "</ul>"; } } } return $content; } If anyone has any advice or knows how to help thanks in advance!

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• jquery ajax post not working with .load in codeigniter

  - by bravo

  i wish to .load multiple views result with jquery ajax the original code (js) $(document).ready(function(){ $("#uid").change( function(){ var uid=$("#uid").val(); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "<?= site_url('sp_profile/ajax_userdetail') ?>", dataType: "json", data: "uid="+uid, cache:false, success: function(data){ $("#content").html(data); } }); return false; }); }); this return only one result in what if i want to load 3 results like in <div id="content"></div> <div id="content1"></div> <div id="content2"></div> content could be userid content2 could be user first name content3 could be user last name my js should using .load instead of html right? let me know if i'm wrong. success: function(data){ $("#content").load("<?= site_url('sp_profile/ajax_userdetail')?>"); $("#content2").load("<?= site_url('sp_profile/ajax_userdetail')?>"); $("#content3").load("<?= site_url('sp_profile/ajax_userdetail')?>"); } i stuck with this thing for whole day.. please anyone show me the right way to do the controller and js code.

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• Git-Based Source Control in the Enterprise: Suggested Tools and Practices?

  - by Bob Murphy

  I use git for personal projects and think it's great. It's fast, flexible, powerful, and works great for remote development. But now it's mandated at work and, frankly, we're having problems. Out of the box, git doesn't seem to work well for centralized development in a large (20+ developer) organization with developers of varying abilities and levels of git sophistication - especially compared with other source-control systems like Perforce or Subversion, which are aimed at that kind of environment. (Yes, I know, Linus never intended it for that.) But - for political reasons - we're stuck with git, even if it sucks for what we're trying to do with it. Here are some of the things we're seeing: The GUI tools aren't mature Using the command line tools, it's far to easy to screw up a merge and obliterate someone else's changes It doesn't offer per-user repository permissions beyond global read-only or read-write privileges If you have a permission to ANY part of a repository, you can do that same thing to EVERY part of the repository, so you can't do something like make a small-group tracking branch on the central server that other people can't mess with. Workflows other than "anything goes" or "benevolent dictator" are hard to encourage, let alone enforce It's not clear whether it's better to use a single big repository (which lets everybody mess with everything) or lots of per-component repositories (which make for headaches trying to synchronize versions). With multiple repositories, it's also not clear how to replicate all the sources someone else has by pulling from the central repository, or to do something like get everything as of 4:30 yesterday afternoon. However, I've heard that people are using git successfully in large development organizations. If you're in that situation - or if you generally have tools, tips and tricks for making it easier and more productive to use git in a large organization where some folks are not command line fans - I'd love to hear what you have to suggest. BTW, I've asked a version of this question already on LinkedIn, and got no real answers but lots of "gosh, I'd love to know that too!"

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• IE8 claims my page has an error, firefox doesn't, and I can't find any error. Help!

  - by Bears will eat you

  This is something of a follow-up question to my question here. You can find the HTML source in a text file here. When I load that page in IE8, I get the "Done, but with errors on page." message in my status bar. The detail view shows Expected identifier sms Line: 147 Code: 0 Char: 67 and I see absolutely no problems anywhere near there. In IE8, the page is still behaving erratically w/r/t the randomly losing focus as mentioned in my other question. When I load the same exact page in Firefox (using Firebug) the console shows no errors and the page works perfectly. Any thoughts on what's going on here? This is driving me nuts and making me want to give up on even trying to write an IE friendly page. Edit: Thanks for all the comments! This page is written as a JSP, so I edit in Eclipse. I found an Eclipse warning about the onblur event for the username field. I switched it from onblur="alert(document.activeElement + ' class:' + document.activeElement.class)" to onblur="alert(document.activeElement)" and that made the bizarre IE page error vanish. I had been trying to give more info (namely, its CSS class) about specifically which element is stealing focus - to my own detriment, apparently, since Javascript was interpreting the '.class' part in the Java(script) sense. And, no, the page doesn't validate. But the errors were mostly/all ones that just didn't make sense, such as Line 14, Column 41: Attribute "LANGUAGE" is not a valid attribute. Did you mean "language"? to which I say, WTF?! But I'm still stuck trying to figure out why, as I enter text in the username & password fields, focus randomly switches to a div (working on figuring out which div currently). Edit 2: It's the div between the two "global nav" comments, at the very top of the body. Still no idea why it's happening, though.

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• How to call a function from another class file

  - by Guy Parker

  I am very familiar with writing VB based applications but am new to Xcode (and Objective C). I have gone through numerous tutorials on the web and understand the basics and how to interact with Interface Builder etc. However, I am really struggling with some basic concepts of the C language and would be grateful for any help you can offer. Heres my problem… I have a simple iphone app which has a view controller (FirstViewController) and a subview (SecondViewController) with associated header and class files. In the FirstViewController.m have a function defined @implementation FirstViewController (void) writeToServer:(const uint8_t ) buf { [oStream write:buf maxLength:strlen((char)buf)]; } It doesn't really matter what the function is. I want to use this function in my SecondViewController, so in SecondViewController.m I import FirstViewController.h import "SecondViewController.h" import "FirstViewController.h" @implementation SecondViewController -(IBAction) SetButton: (id) sender { NSString *s = [@"Fill:" stringByAppendingString: FillLevelValue.text]; NSString *strToSend = [s stringByAppendingString: @":"]; const uint8_t *str = (uint8_t *) [strToSend cStringUsingEncoding:NSASCIIStringEncoding]; FillLevelValue.text = strToSend; [FirstViewController writeToServer:str]; } This last line is where my problem is. XCode tells me that FirstViewController may not respond to writeToServer. And when I try to run the application it crashes when this function is called. I guess I don't fully understand how to share functions and more importantly, the relationship between classes. In an ideal world I would create a global class to place my functions in and call them as required. Any advice gratefully received.

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• Static Property losing its value intermittently ?

  - by joedotnot

  Is there something fundamentally wrong with the following design, or can anyone see why would the static properties sometimes loose their values ? I have a class library project containing a class AppConfig; this class is consumed by a Webforms project. The skeleton of AppConfig class is as follows: Public Class AppConfig Implements IConfigurationSectionHandler Private Const C_KEY1 As String = "WebConfig.Key.1" Private Const C_KEY2 As String = "WebConfig.Key.2" Private Const C_KEY1_DEFAULT_VALUE as string = "Key1defaultVal" Private Const C_KEY2_DEFAULT_VALUE as string = "Key2defaultVal" Private Shared m_field1 As String Private Shared m_field2 As String Public Shared ReadOnly Property ConfigValue1() As String Get ConfigValue1= m_field1 End Get End Property Public Shared ReadOnly Property ConfigValue2() As String Get ConfigValue2 = m_field2 End Get End Property Public Shared Sub OnApplicationStart() m_field1 = ReadSetting(C_KEY1, C_KEY1_DEFAULT_VALUE) m_field2 = ReadSetting(C_KEY2, C_KEY1_DEFAULT_VALUE) End Sub Public Overloads Shared Function ReadSetting(ByVal key As String, ByVal defaultValue As String) As String Try Dim setting As String = System.Configuration.ConfigurationManager.AppSettings(key) If setting Is Nothing Then ReadSetting = defaultValue Else ReadSetting = setting End If Catch ReadSetting = defaultValue End Try End Function Public Function Create(ByVal parent As Object, ByVal configContext As Object, ByVal section As System.Xml.XmlNode) As Object Implements System.Configuration.IConfigurationSectionHandler.Create Dim objSettings As NameValueCollection Dim objHandler As NameValueSectionHandler objHandler = New NameValueSectionHandler objSettings = CType(objHandler.Create(parent, configContext, section), NameValueCollection) Return 1 End Function End Class The Static Properties get set once on application start, from the Application_Start event of the Global.asax Sub Application_Start(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As EventArgs) //Fires when the application is started AppConfig.OnApplicationStart() End Sub Thereafter, whenever we want to access a value in the Web.Config from anywhere, e.g. aspx page code-behind or another class or referenced class, we simply call the static property. For example, AppConfig.ConfigValue1() AppConfig.ConfigValue2() This is turn returns the value stored in the static backing fields m_field1, m_field2 Problem is sometimes these values are empty string, when clearly the Web.Config entry has values. Is there something fundamentally wrong with the above design, or is it reasonable to expect the static properties would keep their value for the life of the Application session?

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• Why Illegal cookies are send by Browser and received by web servers (rfc2109)?

  - by Artyom

  Hello, According to RFC 2109 cookie's value can be either HTTP token or quoted string, and token can't include non-ASCII characters. Cookie's RFC 2109: http://tools.ietf.org/html/rfc2109#page-3 HTTP's RFC 2068 token definition: http://tools.ietf.org/html/rfc2068#page-16 However I had found that Firefox browser (3.0.6) sends cookies with utf-8 string as-is and three web servers I tested (apache2, lighttpd, nginx) pass this string as-is to the application. For example, raw request from browser: $ nc -l -p 8080 GET /hello HTTP/1.1 Host: localhost:8080 User-Agent: Mozilla/5.0 (X11; U; Linux x86_64; en-US; rv:1.9.0.9) Gecko/2009050519 Firefox/2.0.0.13 (Debian-3.0.6-1) Accept: text/html,application/xhtml+xml,application/xml;q=0.9,*/*;q=0.8 Accept-Language: en-us,en;q=0.5 Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate Accept-Charset: windows-1255,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive: 300 Connection: keep-alive Cookie: wikipp=1234; wikipp_username=?????? Cache-Control: max-age=0 And raw response of apache, nginx and lighttpd HTTP_COOKIE CGI variable: wikipp=1234; wikipp_username=?????? What do I miss? Can somebody explain me?

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• How do I control the background color during the iPhone flip view animation transition?

  - by Rob S.

  I have some pretty standing flipping action going on: [UIView beginAnimations:@"swapScreens" context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationTransition:UIViewAnimationTransitionFlipFromLeft forView:self.view cache:YES]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:1.0]; [self.view exchangeSubviewAtIndex:0 withSubviewAtIndex:1]; [UIView commitAnimations]; To Apple's credit, this style of animation is amazingly easy to work with. Very cool, and I've been able to animate transitions, flips, fades etc. throughout the app very easily. Question: During the flip transition, the background visible 'behind' the two views during the flip is white and I'd like it to be black. I've: Set the background of the containing view (self.view above) - no dice. I really thought that would work. Set the background of each view to black - no dice. I didn't think this would work although you give different things a shot to understand better :) Google'd like crazy; keep landing on Safari-related listings. Thanks in advance!

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• .htaccess Redirect Loop, adding multiple .php extensions

  - by Ryan Smith

  I have sort of a small parent/teacher social network set up for my school. I use my .htaccess file to make the links to teacher profiles cleaner and to add a trailing slash to all urls. I get this problem when going to /teachers/teacher-name/ the link (sometimes) redirects to /teachers/teacher-name.php.php.php.php.php.php.php.php... Below is my .htaccess file. Sometimes if I clear my browser cache in Chrome it temporarily fixes it. I can't exactly wright .htaccess syntax, but I'm pretty familiar with it. Any suggestions are appreciated! RewriteEngine on RewriteBase / #remove php ext RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME}\.php -f RewriteRule ^([^/]+)/$ $1.php RewriteRule ^([^/]+)/([^/]+)/$ $1/$2.php #force trailing slash/ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteRule ^(.*)([^/])$ /$1$2/ [L,R=301] #other rewrites RewriteRule ^teachers/([^/\.]+)/$ /teachers/profile.php?u=$1 RewriteRule ^teachers/([^/\.]+)/posts/$ /teachers/posts.php?u=$1 RewriteRule ^teachers/([^/\.]+)/posts/([^/\.]+)/$ /teachers/post.php?u=$1&p=$2 RewriteRule ^gallery/([^/\.]+)/$ /gallery/album.php?n=$1 RewriteRule ^gallery/([^/\.]+)/slideshow/$ /gallery/slideshow.php?n=$1 RewriteRule ^gallery/([^/\.]+)/([^/\.]+)/([^/\.]+)/$ /gallery/photo.php?a=$1&p=$2&e=$3 EDIT:I have attached a screenshot of exactly what I'm talking about.

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• How to view shell commands used by eclipse "run configurations"

  - by gmale

  Given a "run configuration" in Eclipse, I want to print out the associated shell command that would be used to run it. For example: Right now, in Eclipse, if I click "play" it will run: mvn assembly:directory -Dmaven.test.skip=true I don't see that command, I just know that's what the IDE must run, at some point. However, some of the other run configurations are far more complex with long classpaths and virtual machine options and, frankly, sometimes I have no idea what the equivalent shell command would be (particularly when it comes to Flex). There must be some way to access the shell command that would be associated with a "Run Configuration" in Eclipse/Flex Builder. This information must be available, which leads me to believe someone has written a plugin to display it. Or maybe there's already an option built into Eclipse for accessing this. So is there a way to, essentially, convert an Eclipse run configuration into a shell command? (for context only: I'm asking because I'm writing a bash script that automates everything I do, during development--from populating the Database all the way to opening Firefox and clearing the cache before running the web app. So every command I run from the IDE needs to exist in the script. Some are tricky to figure out.)

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• Can this code cause a "500" internal server error ?

  - by Scott B

  A few of my customers are reporting that they are getting "500" Internal Server errors lately. I believe it might be caused by various plugins they are using but each time, the hosting company (multiple hosts) are saying that the htaccess file had to be replaced to fix the issue. I'm submitting the code below from my custom theme because its the only place where I trigger an htaccess write. And I want to be sure that there are no problems here that could cause an issue that might contribute to the 500 errors... if (file_exists(ABSPATH.'/wp-admin/includes/taxonomy.php')) { require_once(ABSPATH.'/wp-admin/includes/taxonomy.php'); if(get_option('permalink_structure') !== "/%postname%/" || get_option('mycustomtheme_permalinks') !=="/%postname%/") { $mycustomtheme_permalinks = get_option('mycustomtheme_permalinks'); require_once(ABSPATH . '/wp-admin/includes/misc.php'); require_once(ABSPATH . '/wp-admin/includes/file.php'); global $wp_rewrite; $wp_rewrite->set_permalink_structure($mycustomtheme_permalinks); $wp_rewrite->flush_rules(); } if(!get_cat_ID('topMenu')){wp_create_category('topMenu');} if(!get_cat_ID('hidden')){wp_create_category('hidden');} if(!get_cat_ID('noads')){wp_create_category('noads');} } if (!is_dir(ABSPATH.'wp-content/uploads')) { mkdir(ABSPATH.'wp-content/uploads'); }

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• jQuery AJAX with two domains

  - by Andrew Burns

  OK here is the situation: I have an externally hosted CMS which works great for 99% of our needs. However on the more advanced things I inject my own CSS+JS and do magic. The problem I am running into is loading a simple HTML page from jQuery.ajax() calls. It appears to work in the sense that no warnings or errors are thrown; however in my success handler (which IS ran), the response is blank! I have been scratching my head for the whole morning trying to figure this out and the only thing I can think of is that is has something to do with the cross domain issue (even though it appears to work). Injected JavaScript: $(document).ready(function() { doui(); }); function doui() { $.ajax({ url: 'http://apps.natronacounty-wy.gov/css/feecalc/ui.htm', cache: false, success: ajax_createUI, charset: "utf-8", error: function(e) { alert(e); } }); } function ajax_createUI(data, textStatus) { alert(data); $("#ajax-content").html(data); } My ajax_createUI() success handler is called and textStatus is "success"; however data is empty. This JS file resides @ http://apps.natronacounty-wy.gov/css/js/feecalc.js however the CMS website (which gets the JS injected into it) resides @ http://www.natronacounty-wy.gov/ Am I just being stupid or is it a bug that it looks like it should be working but isn't?

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• Setting up Inversion of Control (IoC) in ASP.NET MVC with Castle Windsor

  - by Lirik

  I'm going over Sanderson's Pro ASP.NET MVC Framework and in Chapter 4 he discusses Creating a Custom Controller Factory and it seems that the original method, AddComponentLifeStyle or AddComponentWithLifeStyle, used to register controllers is deprecated now: public class WindsorControllerFactory : DefaultControllerFactory { IWindsorContainer container; public WindsorControllerFactory() { container = new WindsorContainer(new XmlInterpreter(new ConfigResource("castle"))); // register all the controller types as transient var controllerTypes = from t in Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().GetTypes() where typeof(IController).IsAssignableFrom(t) select t; //[Obsolete("Use Register(Component.For<I>().ImplementedBy<T>().Named(key).Lifestyle.Is(lifestyle)) instead.")] //IWindsorContainer AddComponentLifeStyle<I, T>(string key, LifestyleType lifestyle) where T : class; foreach (Type t in controllerTypes) { container.Register(Component.For<IController>().ImplementedBy<???>().Named(t.FullName).LifeStyle.Is(LifestyleType.Transient)); } } // Constructs the controller instance needed to service each request protected override IController GetControllerInstance(Type controllerType) { return (IController)container.Resolve(controllerType); } } The new suggestion is to use Register(Component.For<I>().ImplementedBy<T>().Named(key).Lifestyle.Is(lifestyle)), but I can't figure out how to present the implementing controller type in the ImplementedBy<???>() method. I tried ImplementedBy<t>() and ImplementedBy<typeof(t)>(), but I can't find the appropriate way to pass int he implementing type. Any ideas?

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• Ext JS 4.2.1 loading controller - best practice

  - by Hown_

  I am currently developing a Ext JS application with many views/controlers/... I am wondering myself what the best practice is for loading the JS controllers/views/and so on... currently i have my application defined like this: // enable javascript cache for debugging, otherwise Chrome breakpoints are lost Ext.Loader.setConfig({ disableCaching: false }); Ext.require('Ext.util.History'); Ext.require('app.Sitemap'); Ext.require('app.Error'); Ext.define('app.Application', { name: 'app', extend: 'Ext.app.Application', views: [ // TODO: add views here 'app.view.Viewport', 'app.view.BaseMain', 'app.view.Main', 'app.view.ApplicationHeader', //administration 'app.view.administration.User' ... ], controllers: [ 'app.controller.Viewport', 'app.controller.Main', 'app.controller.ApplicationHeader', //administration 'app.controller.administration.User', ... ], stores: [ // stores in there.. ] }); somehow this forces the client to load all my views and controllers at startup and is calling all init methods of all controllers of course.. i need to load data everytime i chnage my view.. and now i cant load it in my controllers init function. I would have to do something like this i assume: init: function () { this.control({ '#administration_User': { afterrender: this.onAfterRender } }); }, Is there a better way to do this? Or just an other event? Though the main thing i am questioning myself is if it is the best practice to load all the javascript at startup. Wouldnt it be better to only load the controllers/views/... which the client does need right now? Or should i load all the JS at startup? If i do want to load the controllers dynamicly how could i do this? I assume a would have to remove them from my application arrays (views, controllers, stores) and create an instance if i do need it and mby set the view in the controllers init?! What's best practice??

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• Get Classic ASP variale from posted JSON

  - by Will

  I'm trying to post JSON via AJAX to a Classic ASP page, which retrieves the value, checks a database and returns JSON to the original page. I can post JSON via AJAX I can return JSON from ASP I can't retrieve the posted JSON into an ASP variable POST you use Request.Form, GET you use Request.Querystring......... what do I use for JSON? I have JSON libraries but they only show creating a string in the ASP script and then parsing that. I need to parse JSON from when being passed an external variable. Javascipt var thing = $(this).val(); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: '/ajax/check_username.asp', data: "{'userName':'" + thing + "'}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", cache: false, async: false, success: function() { alert('success'); }); ASP file (check_username.asp) Response.ContentType = "application/json" sEmail = request.form() -- THE PROBLEM Set oRS = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Recordset") SQL = "SELECT SYSUserID FROM WCE_UK.dbo.t_SYS_User WHERE Username='"&sEmail&"'" oRS.Open SQL, oConn if not oRS.EOF then sStatus = (new JSON).toJSON("username", true, false) else sStatus = (new JSON).toJSON("username", false, false) end if response.write sStatus

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• merging two small pieces of jquery codes

  - by Billa

  Following are two pieces of jquery code. First one prints a text message when clicked on a link, and the second slides down a div when click on a link. I want to merge second code into first one, so that when I click the link, it displays the message (as the first code does), and also slides down the #votebox (as done in second code, and show content in that. I will be very thankful for any help. $("a.vote_up").click(function(){ the_id = $(this).attr('id'); $("span#votes_count"+the_id).fadeOut("fast"); $.ajax({ type: "POST", data: "action=vote_up&id="+$(this).attr("id"), url: "votes.php", success: function(msg) { $("span#votes_up"+the_id).fadeOut(); $("span#votes_up"+the_id).html(msg); $("span#votes_up"+the_id).fadeIn(); //Here, I want to slide down the votebox and content div (from code below). } }); }); The following code slides down votebox div and displays content in it, I want to include that in the above code. $("a.vote_up").click(function(){ var id=$(this).attr("id"); var name=$(this).attr("name"); var dataString = 'id='+ id + '&name='+ name; //I want to include this votebox in above code. $("#votebox").slideDown("slow"); $("#flash").fadeIn("slow"); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "rating.php", data: dataString, cache: false, success: function(html){ $("#flash").fadeOut("slow"); //and want to use this div as well. $("#content").html(html); } }); }); Thanks for any help.

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• asp.net jquery how to use Plugin/Validation with web content

  - by Eyla

  I have a asp.net web content from that have a asp.net textbox and I want to use Plugin/Validation but it is not working with me here is my code: <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Master.Master" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeBehind="WebForm1.aspx.cs" Inherits="IMAM_APPLICATION.WebForm1" %> <%@ Register assembly="AjaxControlToolkit" namespace="AjaxControlToolkit" tagprefix="asp" %> <asp:Content ID="Content1" ContentPlaceHolderID="head" runat="server"> <script src="js/jquery-1.4.1.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="js/jquery.validate.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $.validator.addMethod("#<%=TextBox1.ClientID %>", function(value, element) { return this.optional(element) || /^(?=.*\d)(?=.*[a-z])(?=.*[A-Z]).{8,16}$/i.test(value); }, "Passwords are 8-16 characters with uppercase letters, lowercase letters and at least one number."); }); </script> </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="ContentPlaceHolder1" runat="server"> </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content3" ContentPlaceHolderID="ContentPlaceHolder2" runat="server"> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> </asp:Content>

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• How to "reduce" a hash?

  - by Julien Lebosquain

  Suppose I have any "long" hash, like a 16 bytes MD5 or a 20 bytes SHA1. I want to reduce this hash to fit on 4 bytes, for GetHashCode() purposes. First, I'm perfectly aware that I'll get more collisions. That's totally fine in my case, but I'd still prefer to get the less possible collisions. There are several solutions to my problem: I could take the 4 first bytes of the hash. I could take the 4 last bytes of the hash. I could take 4 random bytes of the hash. I could generate a hash of the hash, involving classic prime numbers multiplications. Are there other solutons I didn't think about? And more importantly, what method will give me the most unique hash code? I'm currently supposing they're almost equivalent. Microsoft choose that the public key token of an assembly is the last 8 bytes of the SHA1 hash of its public key, so I'll probably go for this solution but I'd like to know why.

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• [iText] Inserting Image onCloseDocument

  - by David

  I'm trying to insert an image in the footer of my document using iText's onCloseDocument event. I have the following code: public void onCloseDocument(PdfWriter writer, Document document) { PdfContentByte pdfByte = writer.getDirectContent(); try { // logo is a non-null global variable Image theImage = new Jpeg(logo); pdfByte.addImage(theImage, 400.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f, 400.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } The code throws no exceptions, but it also fails to insert the image. This identical code is used onOpenDocument to insert the same logo. The only difference between the two methods are the coordinates in pdfByte.addImage. However, I've tried quite a few different coordinations in onCloseDocument and none of them appear anywhere in my document. Is there any troubleshooting technique for detecting content which is displayed off-page in a PDF? If not, can anyone see the problem with my onCloseDocument method? Edit: As a followup, it seems that onDocumentClose puts its content on page document.length() + 1 (according to its API). However, I don't know how to change the page number back to document.length() and place my logo on the last page.

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• how to implement enhanced session handling in PHP

  - by praksant

  Hi, i'm working with sessions in PHP, and i have different applications on single domain. Problem is, that cookies are domain specific, and so session ids are sent to any page on single domain. (i don't know if there is a way to make cookies work in different way). So Session variables are visible in every page on this domain. I'm trying to implement custom session manager to overcome this behavior, but i'm not sure if i'm thinking about it right. I want to completely avoid PHP session system, and make a global object, which would store session data and on the end of script save it to database. On first access i would generate unique session_id and create a cookie On the end of script save session data with session_id, timestamps for start of session and last access, and data from $_SERVER, such as REMOTE_ADDR, REMOTE_PORT, HTTP_USER_AGENT. On every access chceck database for session_id sent in cookie from client, check IP, Port and user agent (for security) and read data into session variable (if not expired). If session_id expired, delete from database. That session variable would be implemented as singleton (i know i would get tight coupling with this class, but i don't know about better solution). I'm trying to get following benefits: Session variables invisible in another scripts on the same server and same domain Custom management of session expiration Way to see open sessions (something like list of online users) i'm not sure if i'm overlooking any disadvantages of this solution. Is there any better way? Thank you!!

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