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• TSQL Help (SQL Server 2005)

  - by Mick Walker

  I have been playing around with a quite complex SQL Statement for a few days, and have gotten most of it working correctly. I am having trouble with one last part, and was wondering if anyone could shed some light on the issue, as I have no idea why it isnt working: INSERT INTO ExistingClientsAccounts_IMPORT SELECT DISTINCT cca.AccountID, cca.SKBranch, cca.SKAccount, cca.SKName, cca.SKBase, cca.SyncStatus, cca.SKCCY, cca.ClientType, cca.GFCID, cca.GFPID, cca.SyncInput, cca.SyncUpdate, cca.LastUpdatedBy, cca.Deleted, cca.Branch_Account, cca.AccountTypeID FROM ClientsAccounts AS cca INNER JOIN (SELECT DISTINCT ClientAccount, SKAccount, SKDesc, SKBase, SKBranch, ClientType, SKStatus, GFCID, GFPID, Account_Open_Date, Account_Update FROM ClientsAccounts_IMPORT) AS ccai ON cca.Branch_Account = ccai.ClientAccount Table definitions follow: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[ExistingClientsAccounts_IMPORT]( [AccountID] [int] NOT NULL, [SKBranch] [varchar](2) NOT NULL, [SKAccount] [varchar](12) NOT NULL, [SKName] [varchar](255) NULL, [SKBase] [varchar](16) NULL, [SyncStatus] [varchar](50) NULL, [SKCCY] [varchar](5) NULL, [ClientType] [varchar](50) NULL, [GFCID] [varchar](10) NULL, [GFPID] [varchar](10) NULL, [SyncInput] [smalldatetime] NULL, [SyncUpdate] [smalldatetime] NULL, [LastUpdatedBy] [varchar](50) NOT NULL, [Deleted] [tinyint] NOT NULL, [Branch_Account] [varchar](16) NOT NULL, [AccountTypeID] [int] NOT NULL ) ON [PRIMARY] CREATE TABLE [dbo].[ClientsAccounts_IMPORT]( [NEWClientIndex] [bigint] NOT NULL, [ClientGroup] [varchar](255) NOT NULL, [ClientAccount] [varchar](255) NOT NULL, [SKAccount] [varchar](255) NOT NULL, [SKDesc] [varchar](255) NOT NULL, [SKBase] [varchar](10) NULL, [SKBranch] [varchar](2) NOT NULL, [ClientType] [varchar](255) NOT NULL, [SKStatus] [varchar](255) NOT NULL, [GFCID] [varchar](255) NULL, [GFPID] [varchar](255) NULL, [Account_Open_Date] [smalldatetime] NULL, [Account_Update] [smalldatetime] NULL, [SKType] [varchar](255) NOT NULL ) ON [PRIMARY] The error message I get is: Msg 8152, Level 16, State 14, Line 1 String or binary data would be truncated. The statement has been terminated.

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• Grails/Spring HttpServletRequest synchronization

  - by Jeff Storey

  I was writing a simple Grails app and I have a spot in a gsp where one of my java beans in modified. <g:each in="${myList}" status="i" var="myVar"> // if the user performs some view action, update one of the myVar elements </g:each> This works, but I don't think it's quite threadsafe. myList is an http request variable but in cases of pages that use ajax (or other client side manipulations), it is possible for two threads to be modifying the same request scope variable The Spring AbstractController class provides a setSynchronizeOnSession method. Does grails provide any equivalent functionality? If not, what's the best way to protect this non-threadsafe mutation? thanks, Jeff

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• copy rows before updating them to preserve archive in Postgres

  - by punkish

  I am experimenting with creating a table that keeps a version of every row. The idea is to be able to query for how the rows were at any point in time even if the query has JOINs. Consider a system where the primary resource is books, that is, books are queried for, and author info comes along for the ride CREATE TABLE authors ( author_id INTEGER NOT NULL, version INTEGER NOT NULL CHECK (version > 0), author_name TEXT, is_active BOOLEAN DEFAULT '1', modified_on TIMESTAMP DEFAULT CURRENT_TIMESTAMP, PRIMARY KEY (author_id, version) ) INSERT INTO authors (author_id, version, author_name) VALUES (1, 1, 'John'), (2, 1, 'Jack'), (3, 1, 'Ernest'); I would like to be able to update the above like so UPDATE authors SET author_name = 'Jack K' WHERE author_id = 1; and end up with 2, 1, Jack, t, 2012-03-29 21:35:00 2, 2, Jack K, t, 2012-03-29 21:37:40 which I can then query with SELECT author_name, modified_on FROM authors WHERE author_id = 2 AND modified_on < '2012-03-29 21:37:00' ORDER BY version DESC LIMIT 1; to get 2, 1, Jack, t, 2012-03-29 21:35:00 Something like the following doesn't really work CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION archive_authors() RETURNS TRIGGER AS $archive_author$ BEGIN IF (TG_OP = 'UPDATE') THEN -- The following fails because author_id,version PK already exists INSERT INTO authors (author_id, version, author_name) VALUES (OLD.author_id, OLD.version, OLD.author_name); UPDATE authors SET version = OLD.version + 1 WHERE author_id = OLD.author_id AND version = OLD.version; RETURN NEW; END IF; RETURN NULL; -- result is ignored since this is an AFTER trigger END; $archive_author$ LANGUAGE plpgsql; CREATE TRIGGER archive_author AFTER UPDATE OR DELETE ON authors FOR EACH ROW EXECUTE PROCEDURE archive_authors(); How can I achieve the above? Or, is there a better way to accomplish this? Ideally, I would prefer to not create a shadow table to store the archived rows.

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• Help with HTML hyperlink please

  - by liz

  Hello, Can someone help me with this problem: I have a table in a jsp page, with the text in one column being hyperlinks. Whenever anyone of these hyperlinks is clicked the whole table should refresh and repopulate based on the value of the hyperlink clicked. My problem is currently when the hyperlink is clicked the page refreshes with an empty table. I have the following line of HTML code for performing this in my jsp page: <TD><A href="http://localhost:8080/pmweb/gui.jsp" onclick="getResults(param)">hyperlinktext</A></TD>; Below is my getResults function in javascript in the same JSP page: <script type="text/javascript"> var httpRequest; function getResults(param) { var url = "http://localhost:8080/pmweb/api/GetResultsByParam?param=" + param; httpRequest = new XMLHttpRequest(); httpRequest.open("GET", url, true); httpRequest.onreadystatechange = function() {processRequest(); } ; httpRequest.send(null); } I have verified that the getResults function above is working fine itself. When I debugged it I noticed that this getResults function is not entered when the hyperlink is clicked. Anyone know how to get the hyperlink calling the javascript function properly? Thanks very much in advance!

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• PHP: What is an efficient way to parse a text file containing very long lines?

  - by Shaun

  I'm working on a parser in php which is designed to extract MySQL records out of a text file. A particular line might begin with a string corresponding to which table the records (rows) need to be inserted into, followed by the records themselves. The records are delimited by a backslash and the fields (columns) are separated by commas. For the sake of simplicity, let's assume that we have a table representing people in our database, with fields being First Name, Last Name, and Occupation. Thus, one line of the file might be as follows [People] = "\Han,Solo,Smuggler\Luke,Skywalker,Jedi..." Where the ellipses (...) could be additional people. One straightforward approach might be to use fgets() to extract a line from the file, and use preg_match() to extract the table name, records, and fields from that line. However, let's suppose that we have an awful lot of Star Wars characters to track. So many, in fact, that this line ends up being 200,000+ characters/bytes long. In such a case, taking the above approach to extract the database information seems a bit inefficient. You have to first read hundreds of thousands of characters into memory, then read back over those same characters to find regex matches. Is there a way, similar to the Java String next(String pattern) method of the Scanner class constructed using a file, that allows you to match patterns in-line while scanning through the file? The idea is that you don't have to scan through the same text twice (to read it from the file into a string, and then to match patterns) or store the text redundantly in memory (in both the file line string and the matched patterns). Would this even yield a significant increase in performance? It's hard to tell exactly what PHP or Java are doing behind the scenes.

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• Same query has nested loops when used with INSERT, but Hash Match without.

  - by AaronLS

  I have two tables, one has about 1500 records and the other has about 300000 child records. About a 1:200 ratio. I stage the parent table to a staging table, SomeParentTable_Staging, and then I stage all of it's child records, but I only want the ones that are related to the records I staged in the parent table. So I use the below query to perform this staging by joining with the parent tables staged data. --Stage child records INSERT INTO [dbo].[SomeChildTable_Staging] ([SomeChildTableId] ,[SomeParentTableId] ,SomeData1 ,SomeData2 ,SomeData3 ,SomeData4 ) SELECT [SomeChildTableId] ,D.[SomeParentTableId] ,SomeData1 ,SomeData2 ,SomeData3 ,SomeData4 FROM [dbo].[SomeChildTable] D INNER JOIN dbo.SomeParentTable_Staging I ON D.SomeParentTableID = I.SomeParentTableID; The execution plan indicates that the tables are being joined with a Nested Loop. When I run just the select portion of the query without the insert, the join is performed with Hash Match. So the select statement is the same, but in the context of an insert it uses the slower nested loop. I have added non-clustered index on the D.SomeParentTableID so that there is an index on both sides of the join. I.SomeParentTableID is a primary key with clustered index. Why does it use a nested loop for inserts that use a join? Is there a way to improve the performance of the join for the insert?

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• How to get physical memory in bash

  - by Neuquino

  I need to assign the RAM in bytes to a variable in bash, has anyone know how to do it? Thanks in advance

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• Mapping enum with fluent nhibernate

  - by Puneet

  I am following the http://wiki.fluentnhibernate.org/Getting%5Fstarted tutorial to create my first NHibernate project with Fluent NHibernate I have 2 tables 1) Account with fields Id AccountHolderName AccountTypeId 2) AccountType with fields Id AccountTypeName Right now the account types can be Savings or Current So the table AccountTypes stores 2 rows 1 - Savings 2 - Current For AccoutType table I have defined enum public enum AccountType { Savings=1, Current=2 } For Account table I define the entity class public class Account { public virtual int Id {get; private set;} public virtual string AccountHolderName {get; set;} public virtual string AccountType {get; set;} } The fluent nhibernate mappings are: public AgencyMap() { Id(o => o.Id); Map(o => o.AccountHolderName); Map(o => o.AccountType); } When I try to run the solution, it gives an exception - InnerException = {"(XmlDocument)(2,4): XML validation error: The element 'class' in namespace 'urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2' has incomplete content. List of possible elements expected: 'meta, subselect, cache, synchronize, comment, tuplizer, id, composite-id' in namespace 'ur... I guess that is because I have not speciofied any mapping for AccountType. The questions are: How can I use AccountType enum instead of a AccountType class? Maybe I am going on wrong track. Is there a better way to do this? Thanks!

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• Creating many new instances vs reusing them?

  - by Hugo Riley

  I have multiple business entities in VB.NET Windows Forms application. Right now they are instanced on application startup and used when needed. They hold descriptions of business entities and methods for storing and retrieving data. To cut the long story short, they are somewhat heavy objects to construct (they have some internal dictionaries and references to other objects) created and held in one big global variable called "BLogic". Should I refactor this so that each object is created when needed and released when out of scope? Then every event on UI will probably create a few of this objects. Should I strive to minimize creation of new objects or to minimize number of static and global objects? Generally I am trying to minimize the scope of every variable but should I treat this business logic objects specially?

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• Visual Studio Debugger Voodoo

  - by LoveMeSomeCode

  Ok, maybe this isn't so amazing considering I don't really understand how the debugger works in the first place, let alone Edit and Continue, which is totally amazing. But I was wondering if anyone knew what the debugger is doing with variable declarations in this scenario. I can be debugging through my code, move the line of execution ahead - past a variables initial declaration and assignment, and the code still runs ok. If it's a value type it will have it's default value, for a ref type, null. So if I create a function that uses a variable before it's declared it won't compile, but if I use the debugger to run it that way it will still run without error. Why is this? And is this related to the fact that you can't put a breakpoint on a declaration?

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• how to retrieve informatin from deleted row

  - by JM

  How can I retrie infromation from delete rows. I delete some rows from table in dataset, then I use method GetChanges(DataRowState.Deleted) to get deleted rows. I try delete rows in original table on server side, but it finished with this errors. System.Data.DeletedRowInaccessibleException: Deleted row information cannot be accessed through the row. What is correct way? Here is my code, any advice? Thank you everybody Dataset ds = //get dataset from client side //get changes DataTable delRows = ds.Tables[0].GetChanges(DataRowState.Deleted); //try delete rows in table in DB if (delRows != null) { string connStr = WebConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["Employees"].ConnectionString; conn = new SqlConnection(connStr); conn.Open(); for (int i = 0; i < delRows.Rows.Count; i++) { string cmdText = string.Format("DELETE Tab1 WHERE Surname=@Surname"); cmd = new SqlCommand() { Connection = conn, CommandText = cmdText }; //here is problem, I need get surnames from rows which was deleted var sqlParam = new SqlParameter(@"Surname", SqlDbType.VarChar) { Value = delRows.Rows[i][1].ToString() }; cmd.Parameters.Add(sqlParam); cmd.CommandText = cmdText; cmd.Connection = conn; cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); } }

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• Copying a subset of data to an empty database with the same schema

  - by user193655

  I would like to export part of a database full of data to an empty database. Both databases has the same schema. I want to maintain referential integrity. To simplify my cases it is like this: MainTable has the following fields: 1) MainID integer PK 2) Description varchar(50) 3) ForeignKey integer FK to MainID of SecondaryTable SecondaryTable has the following fields: 4) MainID integer PK (referenced by (3)) 5) AnotherDescription varchar(50) The goal I'm trying to accomplish is "export all records from MainTable using a WHERE condition", for example all records where MainID < 100. To do it manually I shuold first export all data from SecondaryTable contained in this select: select * from SecondaryTable ST outer join PrimaryTable PT on ST.MainID=PT.MainID then export the needed records from MainTable: select * from MainTable where MainID < 100. This is manual, ok. Of course my case is much much much omre complex, I have 200+ tables, so donig it manually is painful/impossible, I have many cascading FKs. Is there a way to force the copy of main table only "enforcing referntial integrity". so that my query is something like: select * from MainTable where MainID < 100 WITH "COPYING ALL FK sources" In this cases also the field (5) will be copied. ====================================================== Is there a syntax or a tool to do this? Table per table I'd like to insert conditions (like MainID <100 is only for MainTable, but I have also other tables).

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• Where in memory are stored nullable types?

  - by Ondrej Slinták

  This is maybe a follow up to question about nullable types. Where exactly are nullable value types (int?...) stored in memory? First I thought it's clear enough, as Nullable<T> is struct and those are value types. Then I found Jon Skeet's article "Memory in .NET", which says: Note that a value type variable can never have a value of null - it wouldn't make any sense, as null is a reference type concept, meaning "the value of this reference type variable isn't a reference to any object at all". I am little bit confused after reading this statement. So let's say I have int? a = null;. As int is normally a value type, is it stored somehow inside struct Nullable<T> in stack (I used "normally" because I don't know what happens with value type when it becomes nullable)? Or anything else happens here - perhaps in heap?

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• Why is the colspan not working properly in this script? js bug or IE ?

  - by Perpetualcoder

  This question is related to this question I asked a little while back. The updated code is posted here. This to note is that i am looking to create a HTML table dynamically that looks similar to this: <table> <tbody> <tr> <td colspan="3" align="right">Header</td> </tr> <tr> <td colspan="3" align="right">Header</td> </tr> <tr> <td colspan="3" align="right">Header</td> </tr> <tr> <td>Col1</td> <td>Col3</td> <td>Col4</td> </tr> <tr> <td>Col1</td> <td>Col3</td> <td>Col4</td> </tr> </tbody> </table> I can get this done in markup but when I do it in js the colspan does not seem to work in IE7. Any hep will be greatly appreciated.

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• Find order of data inside an array

  - by user271619

  I have a simple array of stuff: $array = array("apples","oranges","strawberries"); I am trying to find the order of the stuff inside the array. (sometimes the order changes, and so do the items) I'm expecting to get something like this: "apples" = 0, "oranges = 1, "strawberries = 2 The end result has something to do with database sorting. Something like this, inside a foreach loop: UPDATE tbl SET sortorder = $neworder WHERE fruit = '$fruitname' The $neworder variable would be populated with the new order, inside the array. While the $fruit variable comes from the item inside the array.

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• Is there an ORM that supports composition w/o Joins

  - by Ken Downs

  EDIT: Changed title from "inheritance" to "composition". Left body of question unchanged. I'm curious if there is an ORM tool that supports inheritance w/o creating separate tables that have to be joined. Simple example. Assume a table of customers, with a Bill-to address, and a table of vendors, with a remit-to address. Keep it simple and assume one address each, not a child table of addresses for each. These addresses will have a handful of values in common: address 1, address 2, city, state/province, postal code. So let's say I'd have a class "addressBlock" and I want the customers and vendors to inherit from this class, and possibly from other classes. But I do not want separate tables that have to be joined, I want the columns in the customer and vendor tables respectively. Is there an ORM that supports this? The closest question I have found on StackOverflow that might be the same question is linked below, but I can't quite figure if the OP is asking what I am asking. He seems to be asking about foregoing inheritance precisely because there will be multiple tables. I'm looking for the case where you can use inheritance w/o generating the multiple tables. Model inheritance approach with Django's ORM

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• The use of IN OUT in ada..

  - by maddy

  HI all, Given below is a code in ada with TYPE_VECT_B; use TYPE_VECT_B; Package TEST01 is procedure TEST01 ( In_State : IN VECT_B ; Out_State : IN OUT VECT_B ); function TEST02 ( In_State : IN VECT_B ) return Boolean ; end TEST01; The TYPE_VECT_B package specification and body is also defined below Package TYPE_VECT_B is type VECT_B is array (INTEGER range <>) OF BOOLEAN ; rounded_data : float ; count : integer ; trace : integer ; end TYPE_VECT_B; Package BODY TYPE_VECT_B is begin null; end TYPE_VECT_B; What does the variable In_State and Out_State actually mean?I think In_State means input variable.i just get confused to what actually Out_State means? Thanks Maddy

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• jQuery.addClass not adding a class

  - by John Nolan

  Just why is my style not being applied in the jquery below. It aslo only adds the table in FireFox $.each(data.AdvisorPerformances, function(i) { $("#advisorPerfomance").append("<tr>" + "<td>" + data.AdvisorPerformances[i].Advisor + "</td>" + "<td>" + data.AdvisorPerformances[i].PackInCount + "</td>" + "<td>" + data.AdvisorPerformances[i].PacksInValue + "</td>" + "<td>" + data.AdvisorPerformances[i].PacksOutCount + "</td>" + "<td> " + data.AdvisorPerformances[i].PaymentsInCount + "</td>" + "<td>" + data.AdvisorPerformances[i].PaymentsInValue + "</td>" + "</tr>"); }); $("#advisorPerfomance").append("</table>"); $("#advisorPerfomance").addClass("NOTAPPLIEDSTYLE"); Also is there a better way to add a table?

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• What does 'unsigned temp:3' means

  - by Munir Ahmed

  Hi, I'm trying to map a C structure to Java using JNA. I came across something that I've never seen. The struct definition is as follow, struct op { unsigned op_type:9; //---> what does this means? unsigned op_opt:1; unsigned op_latefree:1; unsigned op_latefreed:1; unsigned op_attached:1; unsigned op_spare:3; U8 op_flags; U8 op_private; }; you can see some variable being defined like unsigned op_attached:1 and I'm unsure what would that mean: would that effect number of bytes to be allocated for this particular variable? any help? Thanks, Munir

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• Validating Login / Changing User settings / Php Mysql

  - by Marcelo

  Hi everyone, my questions are about login, and changing already saved data. (Q1) 'Till now I've only saved input in the tables of the database (registration steps), now I need to check if the input (login steps), are the same of my table in database, in fact I have 3 types of users, then I'll have to check 3 kind of tables. Then if the input data matches with one of those 3 tables I will redirect the user to his specific area. I'm thinking about saved the submitted data $login=$_REQUEST['login']; and $password=$_REQUEST['password']; and compare with the login column in the database. Then if the login matches, I'll compare the password submitted with the one in the row, not in the column. But I don't know how to do this search and comparison,neither what to use. Then if both matches I'll redirect the user. Else I'll send an login error message. (this I know how to do) (Q2) What if need to change an already saved user ? For example to change an email address. My changing user's data web page is exactly the same like the registration user web page. Can I load the already saved options and values of registration (table user for example). Then the user will change whatever he thinks it's necessary, and then when he submits the new information, they would not create a new row in my table, but just be overwritten the old information? How can I do this? Sorry for any mistake in English, and Thanks for the attention.

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• How do partialviews work in asp.net MVC when passing parameters back?

  - by Rob Ellis

  I have a page with a partialview on it which is a list of items. I have a button on it which shows the next 5 items. This is done via ajax:- using (Ajax.BeginForm("ShowUpdates", new AjaxOptions() { UpdateTargetId = "statusUpdateContainer", InsertionMode = InsertionMode.InsertAfter })) { <input type="submit" class="formbutton" value="Show More" style="width:100%;"/> } My partial view controller: [HttpPost] public ActionResult ShowUpdates(string page, string pagesize) { //get data code hidden here return PartialView("_statusUpdates"); } My question is that I need the 'page' variable to increment each time someone presses the form button which is contained within the partialview. How do I keep track of that variable?

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• help with mysql triggers (checking values before insert)

  - by user332817

  hi I'm quite new to mysql and I'm trying to figure out how to use triggers. what I'm trying to do: I have 2 tables, max and sub_max, when I insert a new row to sub_max I want to check if the SUM of the values with the same foreign_key as the new row are less than the value in the max table. I think this sounds confusing so here are my tables: CREATE TABLE max( number INT , MaxAmount integer NOT NULL) CREATE TABLE sub_max( sub_number INT , sub_MaxAmount integer NOT NULL, number INT, FOREIGN KEY ( number ) REFERENCES max( number )) and here is my code for the trigger, I know the syntax is off but this is the best I could do from looking up tutorials. CREATE TRIGGER maxallowed after insert on submax FOR EACH ROW BEGIN DECLARE submax integer; DECLARE maxmax integer; submax = select sum(sub_MaxAmount) from sub_max where sub_number = new.sub_number; submax = submax + new. sub_MaxAmount; maxmax = select MaxAmount from max where number = new.number ; if max>maxmax rollback? END I wanted to know if I'm doing this remotely correctly. Thanks in advance.

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• Visual Studio + Database Edition + CDC = Deploy Fail

  - by Ben

  Hi All, I've got a database using change data capture (CDC) that is created from a Visual Studio database project (GDR2). My problem is that I have a stored procedure that is analyzing the CDC information and then returning data. How is that a problem you ask? Well, the order of operation is as follows. Pre-deployment Script Tables Indexes, keys, etc. Procedures Post-deployment Script Inside the post-deployment script is where I enable CDC. Here-in lies the problem. The procedure that is acting on the CDC tables is bombing because they don't exist yet! I've tried to put the call to sys.sp_cdc_enable_table in the script that creates the table, but it doesn't like that. Error 102 TSD03070: This statement is not recognized in this context. C:...\Schema Objects\Schemas\dbo\Tables\Foo.table.sql 20 1 Foo Is there a better/built-in way to enable CDC such that it's references are available when the stored procedures are created? Is there a way to run a script after tables are created but before other objects are created? How about a way to create the procedure dependencies be damned? Or maybe I'm just doing things that shouldn't be done?!?! Now, I have a work around. Comment out the sproc body Deploy (CDC is created) Uncomment sproc Deploy Everything is great until the next time I update a CDC tracked table. Then I need to comment out the 'offending' procedure. Thanks for reading my question and thanks for your help!

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• Pls help working with Dropdownlist in scroll window.

  - by Rahul

  Hi all, Data is stored in the database table with the field document type and document id. And displayed in the scrollwindow, scrollwindow is editable. Data displayed like this: In scrollwindow dropdown items are quote, order, invoice etc. And suppose for Quote type document id is QTE100, and for order is ORD100 etc. In this format data is displayed in the scrollwindow. Here my query is at run time when user change the document type say for Quote to Order warning message should display like “This range is not valid”. And since the scrollwindow editable when user select any new document type from dropdown list system should allow to add that new document type and should not display any message. Pls somebody help me how can I achieve this???pls………pls…......pls For this I have written this code in dropdown document change event. Document Type Site_Scroll Document Type_CHG: warning "The range entered isn't valid."; clear window 'Document Type Site_Scroll'; fill window 'Document Type Site_Scroll' table sop_site_line_temp; But whenever I am changing any document from existing one getting the warning message like “This range is not valid” this is expected, but after changing when the window is filled again by temp table focus is setting to document type dropdown list. One more thing whenever I am going to select any new document type from document type I am getting the same warning message which is not expected, system should allow user to select new document type without giving any warning message. Pls….somebody give me some idea or pls modify my code….

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• Conversion failed when converting the varchar value to int

  - by onedaywhen

  Microsoft SQL Server 2008 (SP1), getting an unexpected 'Conversion failed' error. Not quite sure how to describe this problem, so below is a simple example. The CTE extracts the numeric portion of certain IDs using a search condition to ensure a numeric portion actually exists. The CTE is then used to find the lowest unused sequence number (kind of): CREATE TABLE IDs (ID CHAR(3) NOT NULL UNIQUE); INSERT INTO IDs (ID) VALUES ('A01'), ('A02'), ('A04'), ('ERR'); WITH ValidIDs (ID, seq) AS ( SELECT ID, CAST(RIGHT(ID, 2) AS INTEGER) FROM IDs WHERE ID LIKE 'A[0-9][0-9]' ) SELECT MIN(V1.seq) + 1 AS next_seq FROM ValidIDs AS V1 WHERE NOT EXISTS ( SELECT * FROM ValidIDs AS V2 WHERE V2.seq = V1.seq + 1 ); The error is, 'Conversion failed when converting the varchar value 'RR' to data type int.' I can't understand why the value ID = 'ERR' should be being considered for conversion because the predicate ID LIKE 'A[0-9][0-9]' should have removed the invalid row from the resultset. When the base table is substituted with an equivalent CTE the problem goes away i.e. WITH IDs (ID) AS ( SELECT 'A01' UNION ALL SELECT 'A02' UNION ALL SELECT 'A04' UNION ALL SELECT 'ERR' ), ValidIDs (ID, seq) AS ( SELECT ID, CAST(RIGHT(ID, 2) AS INTEGER) FROM IDs WHERE ID LIKE 'A[0-9][0-9]' ) SELECT MIN(V1.seq) + 1 AS next_seq FROM ValidIDs AS V1 WHERE NOT EXISTS ( SELECT * FROM ValidIDs AS V2 WHERE V2.seq = V1.seq + 1 ); Why would a base table cause this error? Is this a known issue? UPDATE @sgmoore: no, doing the filtering in one CTE and the casting in another CTE still results in the same error e.g. WITH FilteredIDs (ID) AS ( SELECT ID FROM IDs WHERE ID LIKE 'A[0-9][0-9]' ), ValidIDs (ID, seq) AS ( SELECT ID, CAST(RIGHT(ID, 2) AS INTEGER) FROM FilteredIDs ) SELECT MIN(V1.seq) + 1 AS next_seq FROM ValidIDs AS V1 WHERE NOT EXISTS ( SELECT * FROM ValidIDs AS V2 WHERE V2.seq = V1.seq + 1 );

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