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  • multiple ftp sites on a single iis server with one ip

    - by kacalapy
    can i have multiple iis ftp sites using something similar to web site's unasigned host headers? i have a dedicated server in a hosting facility and want to make a web site for each of my clients. to add/ remove files and content i want ftp access to each of the sites root folders. lets say i have 10 sites set up using unasigned host headers... how can i set up 10 analogous ftp sites on the same server? AND NOT USE A DEFINED IP ADDRESS FOR EACH FTP SITE thanks all

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  • MVC3/Razor Client Validation Not firing

    - by Jason Gerstorff
    I am trying to get client validation working in MVC3 using data annotations. I have looked at similar posts including this MVC3 Client side validation not working for the answer. I'm using an EF data model. I created a partial class like this for my validations. [MetadataType(typeof(Post_Validation))] public partial class Post { } public class Post_Validation { [Required(ErrorMessage = "Title is required")] [StringLength(5, ErrorMessage = "Title may not be longer than 5 characters")] public string Title { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "Text is required")] [DataType(DataType.MultilineText)] public string Text { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "Publish Date is required")] [DataType(DataType.DateTime)] public DateTime PublishDate { get; set; } } My cshtml page includes the following. <h2>Create</h2> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery.validate.min.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery.validate.unobtrusive.min.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> @using (Html.BeginForm()) { @Html.ValidationSummary(true) Post <div class="editor-label"> @Html.LabelFor(model => model.Title) </div> <div class="editor-field"> @Html.EditorFor(model => model.Title) @Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.Title) </div> <div class="editor-label"> @Html.LabelFor(model => model.Text) </div> <div class="editor-field"> @Html.EditorFor(model => model.Text) @Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.Text) Web Config: <appSettings> <add key="ClientValidationEnabled" value="true" /> <add key="UnobtrusiveJavaScriptEnabled" value="true" /> Layout: <head> <title>@ViewBag.Title</title> <link href="@Url.Content("~/Content/Site.css")" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery-1.4.4.min.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> So, the Multiline Text annotation works and creates a text area. But none of the validations work client side. I don't know what i might be missing. Any ideas?? i can post more information if needed. Thanks!

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  • Memory leak with WPF & ItemsControl (VB.NET)

    - by Matt H.
    I have an ItemsControl that uses a DataTemplate to display properties in my customClass that implements INotifyPropertyChanged... Pretty straightforward... Some items in the DataTemplate use CommandBindings (such as buttons), and a few have some code-behind (yuck). When I empty the ItemsControl and set all instances of customClass = Nothing , no memory is released from my program. This becomes a problem pretty quickly! Any idea where I should start looking? I've even gone so far as to completely traverse the visual tree of each DataTemplate instance and set each Visual = Nothing. I'm not really if that's supposed to have any effect though.

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  • how to pass in dynamic data to decorators

    - by steve
    Hi, I am trying to write a base crud controller class that does the following: class BaseCrudController: model = "" field_validation = {} template_dir = "" @expose(self.template_dir) def new(self, *args, **kwargs) .... @validate(self.field_validation, error_handler=new) @expose() def post(self, *args, **kwargs): ... My intent is to have my controllers extend this base class, set the model, field_validation, and template locations, and am ready to go. Unfortunately, decorators (to my understanding), are interpreted when the function is defined. Hence it won't have access to instance's value. Is there a way to pass in dynamic data or values from the sub class? If not, I guess I could use override_template as a workaround to expose and set the template within the controller action. How would I go about validating the form within the controller action? Thanks, Steve

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  • Unit testing UDP socket handling code

    - by JustJeff
    Are there any 'good' ways to cause a thread waiting on a recvfrom() call to become unblocked and return with an error? The motivation for this is to write unit tests for a system which includes a unit that reads UDP datagrams. One of the branches handles errors on the recvfrom call itself. The code isn't required to distinguish between different types of errors, it just has to set a flag. I've thought of closing the socket from another thread, or do a shutdown on it, to cause recvfrom to return with an error, but this seems a bit heavy handed. I've seen mention elsewhere that sending an over-sized packet would do it, and so set up an experiment where a 16K buffer was sent to a recvfrom waiting for just 4K, but that didn't result in an error. The recvfrom just return 4096, to indicate it had gotten that many bytes.

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  • IE8 blocking JavaScript Cookies

    - by ossreleasefeed
    Hey there folks, Here is one that is throwing me for a loop. I am trying to set a simple cookie that has one name:value pair on IE8. Tested on FF and it works fine. IE8 keeps blocking it. I have read about the P3P stuff and created a basic P3P doc, no errors reported by the IBM tool, and added the following on all pages: <meta http-equiv="P3P" CP="CAO DSP COR PSDa CONi TELi OUR STP COM NAV"><link rel="P3Pv1" href="/w3c/p3p.xml"></link> The code I use to set the cookie is as follows: function setCompatibilityCookie(c_name, value, expiredays) { var exdate = new Date(); exdate.setDate(exdate.getDate() + expiredays); document.cookie= c_name + "=" + escape(value) + ((expiredays==null) ? "" : ";expires=" + exdate.toUTCString());} Any ideas why IE8 keeps blocking me from setting this cookie? Thank you, Schalk

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  • Creating .lib files in CUDA Toolkit 5

    - by user1683586
    I am taking my first faltering steps with CUDA Toolkit 5.0 RC using VS2010. Separate compilation has me confused. I tried to set up a project as a Static Library (.lib), but when I try to build it, it does not create a device-link.obj and I don't understand why. For instance, there are 2 files: A caller function that uses a function f #include "thrust\host_vector.h" #include "thrust\device_vector.h" using namespace thrust::placeholders; extern __device__ double f(double x); struct f_func { __device__ double operator()(const double& x) const { return f(x); } }; void test(const int len, double * data, double * res) { thrust::device_vector<double> d_data(data, data + len); thrust::transform(d_data.begin(), d_data.end(), d_data.begin(), f_func()); thrust::copy(d_data.begin(),d_data.end(), res); } And a library file that defines f __device__ double f(double x) { return x+2.0; } If I set the option generate relocatable device code to No, the first file will not compile due to unresolved extern function f. If I set it to -rdc, it will compile, but does not produce a device-link.obj file and so the linker fails. If I put the definition of f into the first file and delete the second it builds successfully, but now it isn't separate compilation anymore. How can I build a static library like this with separate source files? [Updated here] I called the first caller file "caller.cu" and the second "libfn.cu". The compiler lines that VS2010 outputs (which I don't fully understand) are (for caller): nvcc.exe -ccbin "C:\Program Files (x86)\Microsoft Visual Studio 10.0\VC\bin" -I"C:\Program Files\NVIDIA GPU Computing Toolkit\CUDA\v5.0\include" -I"C:\Program Files\NVIDIA GPU Computing Toolkit\CUDA\v5.0\include" -G --keep-dir "Debug" -maxrregcount=0 --machine 32 --compile -g -D_MBCS -Xcompiler "/EHsc /W3 /nologo /Od /Zi /RTC1 /MDd " -o "Debug\caller.cu.obj" "G:\Test_Linking\caller.cu" -clean and the same for libfn, then: nvcc.exe -gencode=arch=compute_20,code=\"sm_20,compute_20\" --use-local-env --cl-version 2010 -ccbin "C:\Program Files (x86)\Microsoft Visual Studio 10.0\VC\bin" -rdc=true -I"C:\Program Files\NVIDIA GPU Computing Toolkit\CUDA\v5.0\include" -I"C:\Program Files\NVIDIA GPU Computing Toolkit\CUDA\v5.0\include" -G --keep-dir "Debug" -maxrregcount=0 --machine 32 --compile -g -D_MBCS -Xcompiler "/EHsc /W3 /nologo /Od /Zi /RTC1 /MDd " -o "Debug\caller.cu.obj" "G:\Test_Linking\caller.cu" and again for libfn.

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  • Array.BinarySearch does not find item using IComparable

    - by Sir Psycho
    If a binary search requires an array to be sorted before hand, why does the following code work? string[] strings = new[] { "z", "a", "y", "e", "v", "u" }; int pos = Array.BinarySearch(strings, "Y", StringComparer.OrdinalIgnoreCase); Console.WriteLine(pos); And why does this code result return -1? public class Person : IComparable<Person> { public string Name { get; set; } public int Age { get; set; } public int CompareTo(Person other) { return this.Age.CompareTo(other.Age) + this.Name.CompareTo(other.Name); } } var people = new[] { new Person { Age=5,Name="Tom"}, new Person { Age=1,Name="Tom"}, new Person { Age=2,Name="Tom"}, new Person { Age=1,Name="John"}, new Person { Age=1,Name="Bob"}, }; var s = new Person { Age = 1, Name = "Tom" }; // returns -1 Console.WriteLine( Array.BinarySearch(people, s) );

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  • How to pre-check checkboxes in formtastic

    - by trustfundbaby
    I have a form I'm trying to set up ... Users can have many posts, and each post can have many people watching it. The Watch model is set up polymorphically as 'watchable' so it can apply to different types of models. It has a user_id, watchable_id, watchable_type and timestamps as attributes/fields. This is soley so that when people comment on a post, users watching the post can get an email about it. What I'm trying to do is show the user a list of users that they can tag on each post, which is not problem. This is what I'm using right now http://pastie.org/940421 The problem with this, is that when you go to edit an update/post ... all the checkboxes are prechecked ... I want it to pre-check only users who are currently watching the post.

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  • Simple Windows.Forms binding is failing using framework 4.0.

    - by jyoung
    This works under the .net framework 3.5 client. This fails under the .net framework 4.0 client. Was I doing something that was illegal under 3.5 but just happened to work, or is this a bug? Note that in my project 'PropInt' does not raise change events so using ctx[obj1.PropObj2, "PropInt"] is not an option. public class Obj1 { public Obj2 PropObj2 { get; set; } public Obj1() { PropObj2 = new Obj2(); } } public class Obj2 { public int PropInt { get; set; } } static class Program { [STAThread] static void Main() { var ctx = new BindingContext(); var obj1 = new Obj1(); var x1 = ctx[obj1, "PropObj2.PropInt"]; } }

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  • JQuery validation not working for checkbox group

    - by Chris Halcrow
    I'm having trouble getting JQuery validation to work with a set of checkboxes. I'm generating the checkboxes using an ASP.NET checkboxlist, and I've used JQuery to set the 'name' attribute to the same thing for each checkbox in the list. Here's the code that gets written to the browser. I'm setting the 'validate' attribute on the 1st checkbox to set the rule that at least one checkbox must be selected. The JQuery validation works for all other elements on the form, but not for the checkbox list. I'm also using a JQuery form wizard on the page which triggers validation for each 'page' of the form, so I don't have control over how the validation is called. <input id="ContentPlaceHolder1_MainContent_AreaOfInterest_0" class="ui-wizard-content ui-helper-reset ui-state-default" type="checkbox" value="Famine" name="hello[]" validate="required:true, minlength:1"> <label for="ContentPlaceHolder1_MainContent_AreaOfInterest_0">Famine</label> <br> <input id="ContentPlaceHolder1_MainContent_AreaOfInterest_1" class="ui-wizard-content ui-helper-reset ui-state-default" type="checkbox" value="Events Volunteer" name="hello[]"> <label for="ContentPlaceHolder1_MainContent_AreaOfInterest_1">Events Volunteer</label> Any ideas on what's going wrong? There are lots of examples of JQuery scripts that will do the validation, however I'm trying to avoid this as I'm generating the checkboxlist server side by a custom control so that it can be re-used across different pages that may or may not have JQuery enabled. I'm trying to enable the JQuery validation whilst being as unobtrusive as possible, so that pages will still work even if JQuery is disabled. Here are the relevant JQuery inclusions and JQuery initialisation script for the form wizard. I'm not using any initialisation code for JQuery validation: <script type="text/javascript" src="../js/formwizard/js/bbq.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="../js/formwizard/js/jquery.form.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="../js/formwizard/js/jquery.form.wizard.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="../js/formwizard/js/jquery.validate.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $("#form1").formwizard({ validationEnabled: true, focusFirstInput: true }); }); </script>

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  • UITableView: Handle cell selection in a mixed cell table view static and dynamic cells

    - by AlexR
    I am trying to mix dynamic and static cells in a grouped table view: I would like to get two sections with static cells at the top followed by a section of dynamic cells (please refer to the screenshot below). I have set the table view contents to static cells. Edit Based on AppleFreak's advice I have changed my code as follows: - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell; if (indexPath.section <= 1) { // section <= 1 indicates static cells cell = [super tableView:tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:indexPath]; } else { // section > 1 indicates dynamic cells CellIdentifier = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"section%idynamic",indexPath.section]; cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier forIndexPath:indexPath]; } return cell; } However, my app crashes with error message Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInternalInconsistencyException', reason: 'UITableView dataSource must return a cell from tableView:cellForRowAtIndexPath:' for section 0 and row 0. The cell returned from cell = [super tableView:tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:indexPath] for section 0 and row 0 is nil. What is wrong with my code? Could there be any problems with my outlets? I haven't set any outlets because I am subclassing UITableViewController and supposedly do not any outlets for tableview to be set (?). Any suggestions on how to better do it? Edit II I have recreated my scene in storyboard (please refer to my updated screen shot above) and rewritten the view controller in order to start from a new base. I have also read the description in Apple's forum as applefreak suggested. However, I run in my first problem with the method numberOfSectionsInTableView:tableView, in which I increment the number of static sections (two) by one. - (NSInteger)numberOfSectionsInTableView:(UITableView *)tableView { return [super numberOfSectionsInTableView:tableView] + 1 ; } The app crashed with the error message: Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSRangeException', reason: '* -[__NSArrayI objectAtIndex:]: index 2 beyond bounds [0 .. 1]' Why is this code not working for me even though I followed Apple's and applefreak recommendations? It is possible that the tableView has changed a bit in iOS 6? Solution: I got this to work now using AppleFreaks code sample in his answer below. Thank you, AppleFreak! Edit III: Cell Selection: How can I handle cell selection in a mixed (dynamic and static cells) cell table view? When do I call super and when do I call self tableView? When I use [[super tableView] selectRowAtIndexPath:indexPath animated:NO scrollPosition:UITableViewScrollPositionNone] and try to check for the selected index paths with: UITableView *tableView = [super tableView]; if ( [[tableView indexPathForSelectedRow] isEqual:customGrowthIndexPath] ) { .. } I get an return value of nil. As I can't find the source of my error, I really would appreciate your help

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  • Grails: Property Null error

    - by richardhell
    I've a domain called Modulo with some properties and a Controller with a method that create a object from model and save it, when execute save the shell show this error: La propiedad [{0}] de la clase [{1}] no puede ser nulo But if i set the constraint nullable to true, the error show again. I think that i should not set this cosntraint. The model is linked to a mysql table with all properties except id allow null. I think I am not doing something wrong here. Any advice?? Domain: Modulo class Modulo { String nombre String icon String url //static constraint = { // url(nullable:true) //} } Controller: Example class ExampleController { def index = { def modulo = new Modulo( nombre:'xxx', icon:'xxx' ) if (modulo.save()){ println 'ok' }else{ modulo.errors.allErrors.each { println it.defaultMessage} } } } Thanks. José

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  • Why is activeX failing to create an object from a Labview executable?

    - by user360734
    Here is my scenario. I am using Quicktest Pro (VB) to create an ActiveX object from a Labview VI that I built into an executable. In the build specs of the VI I have enabled ActiveX server option (ActiveX server name: "MyLabviewProgram") and in the VI ToolsOptionsVI Server: Configuration the ActiveX box is checked. So in QTP my code is: Set IvApp = CreateObject("MyLabviewProgram.Application") Set Vi = IvApp.getVIReference("MyLabviewVI.vi") Vi.Call ParamNames, ParamVals Upon running this I get a Run Error on the first line: ActiveX component can't create object: 'MyLabviewProgram.Application' I am having trouble figuring out why it errors. From National Instruments website they have a step in on one of their community pages about "LabVIEW Executable Used as ActiveX Server". The step is after building the EXE, 5. Run the EXE at least once on the target to activate the .TLB file. I've run the executable but not sure what they mean by on the target. Does anyone have a suggestion on what I need to do to get this working?

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  • Auto-Implemented Properties c#

    - by user311130
    Hi all, could someone explain me what's the idea behind using Auto-Implemented Properties c#? public class Customer { public int ID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } I get the motivation to use properties for private field, so we can determine how one can access a private field. But here - it's just like defining the field to be public from the first place. no? Is there a difference between defining a field to be "public const" or define it to have a get-only property ? Thanks Elad

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  • Problem with LSParseDateTime function on server

    - by Saul
    When I run this test code on my development machine it works as expected. CF9.01 I am in europe using euro date format so 10/09/1957 is 10th Sept 1957. <cfset testDate="10/09/1957"> <cfoutput> Initial string = "#testDate#"<br> LSparsedatetime output = #lsparsedatetime(session.form.patientDOB)#<br> parsedatetime output = #parsedatetime(session.form.patientDOB)# </cfoutput> Output on test machine is Initial string = "10/09/1957" LSparsedatetime output = {ts '1957-09-10 00:00:00'} parsedatetime output = {ts '1957-10-09 00:00:00'} Same code , output on live server is Initial string = "10/09/1957" LSparsedatetime output = {ts '1957-10-09 00:00:00'} parsedatetime output = {ts '1957-10-09 00:00:00'} Server OS is Windows Web Server 2008 R2. I checked Control panel date and time setting and it is correctly set to London. Web server is IIS7 but I don't think that would affect anything? IN region and Language, location is set to United Kingdom and in Administrative (change system locale ) it is also correct as English (United Kingdom)

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  • SQL Server 2005 Fail: Return Dates As Strings

    - by Abs
    Hello all, I am using the SQL Server PHP Driver, I think this question can be answered without knowing what this is. I have come across this many times, what does it mean by NAMES? Column names?: SET NAMES utf8 Is there a query similar to the above that will get my dates to be returned as a string? For some reason on my SQL Sever 2008 on Vista, this works: $connectionInfo = array('Database' => $dbname, 'ReturnDatesAsStrings' => true) But the above 'ReturnDatesAsStrings' does not work on my SQL Server 2005 on a windows server machine? I can't execute any queries after setting the above! Does SQL Server 2005 support ReturnDatesAsStrings? Is there some other parameter I can pass to do the same? Thanks all for any help EDIT I should of mentioned this but if there is a solution I am hoping for one that is in the form of a setting that can be set before any queries can be executed as I do not have control on what queries will be executed.

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  • utf8 and unicode getting warning messages in mysql

    - by BufordTaylor
    I have a mysql table. When I try to insert, I get this: Warning: Incorrect string value: '\xAE</...' for column 'value' at row 1 mysql> show create table Configurations; | Configurations | CREATE TABLE `Configurations` ( `id` int(11) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `title` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `ckey` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `value` mediumtext, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), KEY `ckey` (`ckey`), ) ENGINE=InnoDB AUTO_INCREMENT=29 DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8 | mysql> SHOW VARIABLES LIKE 'coll%'; +----------------------+-----------------+ | Variable_name | Value | +----------------------+-----------------+ | collation_connection | utf8_general_ci | | collation_database | utf8_general_ci | | collation_server | utf8_general_ci | +----------------------+-----------------+ I googled the hell out of the error, and it all seemed to boil down to utf8 being set as my default character set. I've been like that for a while. I'm not sure what else to do. Help?

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  • MSSQL 2005: Update rows in a specified order (like ORDER BY)?

    - by JMTyler
    I want to update rows of a table in a specific order, like one would expect if including an ORDER BY clause, but MS SQL does not support the ORDER BY clause in UPDATE queries. I have checked out this question which supplied a nice solution, but my query is a bit more complicated than the one specified there. UPDATE TableA AS Parent SET Parent.ColA = Parent.ColA + (SELECT TOP 1 Child.ColA FROM TableA AS Child WHERE Child.ParentColB = Parent.ColB ORDER BY Child.Priority) ORDER BY Parent.Depth DESC; So, what I'm hoping that you'll notice is that a single table (TableA) contains a hierarchy of rows, wherein one row can be the parent or child of any other row. The rows need to be updated in order from the deepest child up to the root parent. This is because TableA.ColA must contain an up-to-date concatenation of its own current value with the values of its children (I realize this query only concats with one child, but that is for the sake of simplicity - the purpose of the example in this question does not necessitate any more verbosity), therefore the query must update from the bottom up. The solution suggested in the question I noted above is as follows: UPDATE messages SET status=10 WHERE ID in (SELECT TOP (10) Id FROM Table WHERE status=0 ORDER BY priority DESC ); The reason that I don't think I can use this solution is because I am referencing column values from the parent table inside my subquery (see WHERE Child.ParentColB = Parent.ColB), and I don't think two sibling subqueries would have access to each others' data. So far I have only determined one way to merge that suggested solution with my current problem, and I don't think it works. UPDATE TableA AS Parent SET Parent.ColA = Parent.ColA + (SELECT TOP 1 Child.ColA FROM TableA AS Child WHERE Child.ParentColB = Parent.ColB ORDER BY Child.Priority) WHERE Parent.Id IN (SELECT Id FROM TableA ORDER BY Parent.Depth DESC); The WHERE..IN subquery will not actually return a subset of the rows, it will just return the full list of IDs in the order that I want. However (I don't know for sure - please tell me if I'm wrong) I think that the WHERE..IN clause will not care about the order of IDs within the parentheses - it will just check the ID of the row it currently wants to update to see if it's in that list (which, they all are) in whatever order it is already trying to update... Which would just be a total waste of cycles, because it wouldn't change anything. So, in conclusion, I have looked around and can't seem to figure out a way to update in a specified order (and included the reason I need to update in that order, because I am sure I would otherwise get the ever-so-useful "why?" answers) and I am now hitting up Stack Overflow to see if any of you gurus out there who know more about SQL than I do (which isn't saying much) know of an efficient way to do this. It's particularly important that I only use a single query to complete this action. A long question, but I wanted to cover my bases and give you guys as much info to feed off of as possible. :) Any thoughts?

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  • Reversing column values in mysql command line

    - by user94154
    I have a table posts with the column published, which is either 0 (unpublished) or 1 (published). Say I want to make all the published posts into unpublished posts and all the unpublished posts into published posts. I know that running UPDATE posts SET published = 1 WHERE published = 0; UPDATE posts SET published = 0 WHERE published = 1; will end up turning all my posts into published posts. How can I run these queries in the mysql command line so that it truly "reverse" the values, as opposed to the mistake outlined above? Thanks

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  • Setting up Windows Authentication In Reporting Services Using Kerberos

    - by Vineet
    Hi, I have yet another problem with Reporting services. Finally I was able to set the ball rolling, achieving success in configuring reporting services with a domain user account. Now I have a problem accessing the server from another machine (in the same domain) using Integrated Windows Authentication in IIS 6.0. I have never had problems with this on networks using NT Authentication, but this is the first time our network is set up to use Kerberos. Here are my IIS settings - Reports (Manager) & ReportServer Virtual directories under Default Website, Both these are configured to run with Integrated Windows Authentication..Anonymous access turned OFF. Reporting Services Windows Service runs under Network service account and Web Service under a domain user account. Note - If I turn on Basic Authentication, it works fine, exceeding all my expectations, but this is not something I want. Any help is appreciated. Thanks Vineet

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  • EF2: Is there a way to add an Entity to EntityCollection without having to load related Entity?

    - by mutex
    I can set an EntityReference on an entity without having to load the relevent entity as follows: this.CategoryReference.EntityKey = new EntityKey("MyEntities.CategorySet", "Id", 12); So I can set the Category for the entity I'm dealing with to whatever category has id 12 without having to hit the database. But is there a way to do this or something similar on an EntityCollection? So if I now have multiple categories instead of just one, I want to now do something like the following, though it doesn't work: // stand-in category var categoryStandIn = new Category { EntityKey = new EntityKey("MyEntities.CategorySet", "Id", 12) } this.Categories.Add(categoryStandIn);

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  • Are all public read/write members serialized with XmlSerializer?

    - by David
    I have a handful of public read/write members that are not being serialized and I can't figure out why. Reviewing some code, and my root class is marked serializable: [Serializable] public class MyClass I have a default constructor that initializes 10-15 string members. There are about 50 public read/write string members in MyClass with get and set--no explicit serialization attributes are set on any of these. Serialization looks like this: XmlSerializer x = new XmlSerializer(typeof(MyClass)); TextWriter twWriter = new StreamWriter(sFileName); x.Serialize(twWriter, this); twWriter.Close(); only a handful (20-30) of these members are actually seralized to my xml file. what am i missing or misunderstanding about the XmlSerializer class?

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  • My first c# app and first null object exception

    - by Fresheyeball
    Total noob here. This is my first c# attempt, its a console application that simulates a drinking game called 'Left Right Center'. In the console I receive the following: CONSOLE Unhandled Exception: System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object at LeftRightCenter.MainClass.Main (System.String[] args) [0x00038] in /Users/apple/Projects/LearningC/LearningC/Main.cs:80 [ERROR] FATAL UNHANDLED EXCEPTION: System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object at LeftRightCenter.MainClass.Main (System.String[] args) [0x00038] in /Users/apple/Projects/LearningC/LearningC/Main.cs:80 C# using System; namespace LeftRightCenter { class Player { //fields private int _quarters = 4; public int Quarters { get{ return _quarters; } set{ _quarters += value; } } public Player (string name) { } } class Dice { Random random = new Random(); public int Roll () { random = new Random (); int diceSide; diceSide = random.Next (0, 6); diceSide = (diceSide > 2) ? 3 : diceSide; return diceSide; } } class MainClass { static int activePlayer = 0; static int theCup = 0; static Player[] thePlayers = { new Player ("Jessica"), new Player ("Isaac"), new Player ("Ed"), new Player ("Bella"), new Player ("Elisa"), new Player ("Fake RedHead"), new Player ("Linda"), new Player ("MJ"), new Player ("Irene"), new Player("Devin") }; static Dice[] theDice = new Dice[2]; private static void MoveQuarter (int direction) { int numberOfPlayers = thePlayers.Length - 1; switch (direction) { case 0: thePlayers [activePlayer].Quarters = -1; theCup++; break; case 1: thePlayers [activePlayer].Quarters = -1; int leftPlayer = (activePlayer == 0) ? numberOfPlayers : activePlayer - 1; thePlayers [leftPlayer].Quarters = +1; break; case 2: thePlayers [activePlayer].Quarters = -1; int rightPlayer = (activePlayer == numberOfPlayers) ? 0 : activePlayer + 1; thePlayers [rightPlayer].Quarters = +1; break; } } public static void Main (string[] args) { int cupEndPoint = thePlayers.Length * 4 - 1; while (theCup < cupEndPoint) { foreach (Dice rattle in theDice) { if (thePlayers [activePlayer].Quarters > 0) { MoveQuarter (rattle.Roll ()); // this line seems to be the problem } } Console.WriteLine ("{0} Quarters In the Cup", theCup); } } } } I have no idea what the problem is or why, and my googling have proven more use confusing than helpful.

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  • locking database record for editing

    - by sd_dracula
    I have a SQL 2008 DB and an asp.net frontend. I would like to implement a lock when a user is currently editing a record but unsure of which is the best approach. My idea is to have a isLocked column for the records and it gets set to true when a user pulls that record, meaning all other users have read only access until the first user finishes the editing. However, what if the session times out and he/she never saves/updates the record, the record will remain with isLocked = true, meaning others cannot edit it, right? How can I implement some sort of session time out and have isLocked be automatically set to false when the session times out (or after a predefined period) Should this be implemented on the asp.net side or the SQL side?

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