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  • WCF operationcontract with List type unavailable in (Silverlight) client

    - by Dave
    This is the first time I have tried returning a List of data to a Silverlight client, so I'm having trouble getting the client to recognize this operationcontract. All others are fine. I have a method on the server called ReadOwFileData that needs to return a List. ReadOwFileDataCompletedEventArgs shows up in the Object Browser in the client, but not ReadOwFileDataAsync. What I want is similar to the tutorial here. The Dictionary collection type on the client is set to System.Collections.Generic.List. I tried deleting and recreating the service reference. Web.Config on the server is using basicHttpBinding. Here is the operationcontract on the server: [OperationContract] public List<OwFileData> ReadOwFileData(string OrderID) { DataClasses1DataContext db = new DataClasses1DataContext(); var dFileData = (from p in db.OwFileDatas where p.OrderID == OrderID select p).ToList(); List<OwFileData> x = new List<OwFileData>(dFileData); return x; } Incidently, this works fine: [OperationContract] public Customer GetShippingAndContactInfo(string login, string ordernum) { DataClasses1DataContext db = new DataClasses1DataContext(); Customer dInfo = (from p in db.Customers where p.Login == login select p).Single(); return dInfo; } I would like to read this data in the client and place it into an object I created called ObservableCollection. But that obviously can't happen until the client can see the method on the server. I do not know if this is an acceptable start, but this is what is on the client so far. The ReadOwFileDataAsync object is null: void populatefilesReceivedDataSource(string OrderID) { ArtUpload.ServiceReference1.UploadServiceClient client = new ArtUpload.ServiceReference1.UploadServiceClient(); var myList = client.ReadOwFileDataAsync(OrderID); // can I just itterate thru the list instead of 'binding' }

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  • using action helpers in Zend Framework 1.8

    - by Nasser
    Hi am starting off with Zend Framework and have a question about action helpers. My first application is a simple authentication system (following a tutorial from a book). The registration and authentication seems to work fine but the redirect doesn't. I have a customer controller that has this among others: class CustomerController extends Zend_Controller_Action { // some code here...... public function authenticateAction() { $request = $this->getRequest(); if (!$request->isPost()) { return $this->_helper->redirector('login'); } // Validate $form = $this->_forms['login']; if (!$form->isValid($request->getPost())) { return $this->render('login'); } if (false === $this->_authService->authenticate($form->getValues())) { $form->setDescription('Login failed, please try again.'); return $this->render('login'); } return $this->_helper->redirector('index'); } the authenticate url is http://localhost/customer/authenticate and this seems to work fine but it does not redirect. After authentication I get a blank page which looks like its taking me to the index and just sits there. I tried using '/index' instead but that did not help either. Do I need to do anything special to make the redirector helper work? I have a logout action which behaves the same.

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  • please help me for performing serch in my program

    - by Abid
    i want to perform searching in my programe.. i have my class in which i have made a function i.e. public DataTable Search() { string SQL = "Select * from Customer where " + mField + " like '%" + mValue + "%'"; DataTable dt = new DataTable(); dt = dm.GetData(SQL); return (dt); } in which i have made setters and getters for mField and mValue.. where dm is the object of class Datamanagement in which i have made a function GetData i.e. public DataTable GetData(string SQL) { SqlCommand command = new SqlCommand(); SqlDataAdapter dbAdapter = new SqlDataAdapter(); DataTable DataTable = new DataTable(); command.Connection = clsConnection.GetConnection(); command.CommandText = SQL; dbAdapter.SelectCommand = command; dbAdapter.Fill(DataTable); return (DataTable); } and behind the search button, i have written.. private void btnfind_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { //cust is the object of class customer// if (tbCustName.Text != "") { cust.Field="CustName"; cust.Value = tbCustName.Text; } else if (tbAddress.Text != "") { cust.Value = tbAddress.Text; cust.Field="Address"; } else if (tbEmail.Text != "") { cust.Value = tbEmail.Text; cust.Field="Email"; } else if (tbCell.Text != "") { cust.Value = tbCell.Text; cust.Field = "Cell"; } DataTable dt = new DataTable(); dt = cust.Search(); dgCustomer.DataSource = dt; RefreshGrid(); } where my referesh grid fuction does that : private void RefreshGrid() { DataTable dt = new DataTable(); dt = cust.GetCustomers(); dgCustomer.DataSource = dt; } but this is not working.. i dont knw y.. please help..

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  • How to select a single object using Linq in vb.net

    - by Hucker
    I have done a lot of searching to what appears to be a simple LINQ problem but I can't figure out how to do grab an object out of a collection that has a specified minimum (or max value) without resorting to a sort like this: > dim customers= GetCustomers() > > dim youngest = (From c in customers > Order By c.age Ascending).ToList.First This (untested code) structure works fine with the exception that the entire customer array must be sorted and placed into a list for the only purpose of extracting the first value. That can't be the best way to get the minimum! Note that I want the whole c record in this case, not the minumum age of a customer that can be done like this (a typical example): > dim customers= GetCustomers() > > dim youngest = (From c in customers > Select c.age).Min Or even > dim customers= GetCustomers() > > dim youngest = (From c in customers > Select c).Min(Function(x) x.age) I can't for the life of me figure out how to get the whole object (or even the index) without resorting to the sort...

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  • UPDATE Table SET Field

    - by davlyo
    This is my Very first Post! Bear with me. I have an Update Statement that I am trying to understand how SQL Server handles it. UPDATE a SET a.vField3 = b.vField3 FROM tableName a INNER JOIN tableName b ON a.vField1 = b.vField1 AND b.nField2 = a.nField2 – 1 This is my query in its simplest form. vField1 is a Varchar nField2 is an int (autonumber) vField3 is a Varchar I have left the WHERE clause out so understand there is logic that otherwise makes this a nessessity. Say vField1 is a Customer Number and that Customer has 3 records The value in nField2 is 1, 2, and 3 consecutively. vField3 is a Status When the Update comes to a.nField2 = 1 there is no a.nField2 -1 so it continues When the Update comes to a.nField2 = 2, b.nField2 = 1 When the Update comes to a.nField2 = 3, b.nField2 = 2 So when the Update is on a.nField2 = 2, alias b reflects what is on the line prior (b.nField2 = 1) And it SETs the Varchar Value of a.vField3 = b.vField3 When the Update is on a.nField2 = 3, alias b reflects what is on the line prior (b.nField2 = 2) And it (should) SET the Varchar Value of a.vField3 = b.vField3 When the process is complete –the Second of three records looks as expected –hence the value in vField3 of the second record reflects the value in vField3 from the First record However, vField3 of the Third record does not reflect the value in vField3 from the Second record. I think this demonstrates that SQL Server may be producing a transaction of some sort and then an update. Question: How can I get the DB to Update after each transaction so I can reference the values generated by each transaction?

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  • Database tables with dynamic information

    - by Tim Fennis
    I've googled this and found that it's almost impossible to create a database with dynamic collumns. I'll explain my problem first. I am making a webshop for a customer. It has multiple computer products for sale. CPU's HDD's RAM ect. All these products have different properties, a CPU has an FSB, RAM has a CAS latency. But this is very inconvenient because my orders table needs foreign keys to different tables which is impossible. An other option is to store all the product specific information in a varchar or blob field and let PHP figure it out. The problem with this solution is that the website needs a PC builder. A step-by-step guide to building your PC. So for instance if a customer decides he wants a new "i7 920" or whatever i want to be able to sellect all motherboards for socket 1366, which is impossible because all the data is stored in one field. I know it's possible to select all motherboards form the DB and let PHP figure out which ones are for socket 1366 but i was wondering, is there a better solution?

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  • C# language questions

    - by Water Cooler v2
    1) What is int? Is it any different from the struct System.Int32? I understand that the former is a C# alias (typedef or #define equivalant) for the CLR type System.Int32. Is this understanding correct? 2) When we say: IComparable x = 10; Is that like saying: IComparable x = new System.Int32(); But we can't new a struct, right? or in C like syntax: struct System.In32 *x; x=>someThing = 10; 3) What is String with a capitalized S? I see in Reflector that it is the sealed String class, which, of course, is a reference type, unlike the System.Int32 above, which is a value type. What is string, with an uncapitalized s, though? Is that also the C# alias for this class? Why can I not see the alias definitions in Reflector? 4) Try to follow me down this subtle train of thought, if you please. We know that a storage location of a particular type can only access properties and members on its interface. That means: Person p = new Customer(); p.Name = "Water Cooler v2"; // legal because as Name is defined on Person. but // illegal without an explicit cast even though the backing // store is a Customer, the storage location is of type // Person, which doesn't support the member/method being // accessed/called. p.GetTotalValueOfOrdersMade(); Now, with that inference, consider this scenario: int i = 10; // obvious System.object defines no member to // store an integer value or any other value in. // So, my question really is, when the integer is // boxed, what is the *type* it is actually boxed to. // In other words, what is the type that forms the // backing store on the heap, for this operation? object x = i;

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  • EF 4 Query - Issue with Multiple Parameters

    - by Brian
    Hello, A trick to avoiding filtering by nullable parameters in SQL was something like the following: select * from customers where (@CustomerName is null or CustomerName = @CustomerName) This worked well for me in LINQ to SQL: string customerName = "XYZ"; var results = (from c in ctx.Customers where (customerName == null || (customerName != null && c.CustomerName == customerName)) select c); But that above query, when in ADO.NET EF, doesn't work for me; it should filter by customer name because it exists, but it doesn't. Instead, it's querying all the customer records. Now, this is a simplified example, because I have many fields that I'm utilizing this kind of logic with. But it never actually filters, queries all the records, and causes a timeout exception. But the wierd thing is another query does something similarly, with no issues. Any ideas why? Seems like a bug to me, or is there a workaround for this? I've since switched to extension methods which works. Thanks.

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  • Why can't these generic type parameters be inferred?

    - by Jon M
    Given the following interfaces/classes: public interface IRequest<TResponse> { } public interface IHandler<TRequest, TResponse> where TRequest : IRequest<TResponse> { TResponse Handle(TRequest request); } public class HandlingService { public TResponse Handle<TRequest, TResponse>(TRequest request) where TRequest : IRequest<TResponse> { var handler = container.GetInstance<IHandler<TRequest, TResponse>>(); return handler.Handle(request); } } public class CustomerResponse { public Customer Customer { get; set; } } public class GetCustomerByIdRequest : IRequest<CustomerResponse> { public int CustomerId { get; set; } } Why can't the compiler infer the correct types, if I try and write something like the following: var service = new HandlingService(); var request = new GetCustomerByIdRequest { CustomerId = 1234 }; var response = service.Handle(request); // Shouldn't this know that response is going to be CustomerResponse? I just get the 'type arguments cannot be inferred' message. Is this a limitation with generic type inference in general, or is there a way to make this work?

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  • Looking for an email/report templating engine with database backend - for end-users ...

    - by RizwanK
    We have a number of customers that we have to send monthly invoices too. Right now, I'm managing a codebase that does SQL queries against our customer database and billing database and places that data into emails - and sends it. I grow weary of maintaining this every time we want to include a new promotion or change our customer service phone numbers. So, I'm looking for a replacement to move more of this into the hands of those requesting the changes. In my ideal world, I need : A WYSIWYG (man, does anyone even say that anymore?) email editor that generates templates based upon the output from a Database Query. The ability to drag and drop various fields from the database query into the email template. Display of sample email results with the database query. Web application, preferably not requiring IIS. Involve as little code as possible for the end-user, but allow basic functionality (i.e. arrays/for loops) Either comes with it's own email delivery engine, or writes output in a way that I can easily write a Python script to deliver the email. Support for generic Database Connectors. (I need MSSQL and MySQL) F/OSS So ... can anyone suggest a project like this, or some tools that'd be useful for rolling my own? (My current alternative idea is using something like ERB or Tenjin, having them write the code, but not having live-preview for the editor would suck...)

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  • ASP.NET configuration inheritance

    - by NowYouHaveTwoProblems
    I have an ASP.NET application that defines a custom configuration section in web.config. Recently I had a customer who wanted to deploy two instances of the application (for testing in addition to an existing production application). The configuration chosen by the customer was: foo.com - production application foo.com/Testing - test application In this case, the ASP.NET configuration engine decided to apply the settings at foo.com/web.config to foo.com/Testing/web.config. Thankfully this caused a configuration error because the section was redefined at the second level rather than giving the false impression that the two web applications were isolated. What I would like to do is to specify that my configuration section is not inherited and must be re-defined for any web application that requires it but I haven't been able to find a way to do this. My web.config ends up something like this <configuration> <configSections> <section name="MyApp" type="MyApp.ConfigurationSection"/> </configSections> <MyApp setting="value" /> <NestedSettingCollection> <Item key="SomeKey" value="SomeValue" /> <Item key="SomeOtherKey" value="SomeOtherValue" /> </NestedSettingCollection> </MyApp> </configuration>

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  • Problem Initializing an Array Of Structs

    - by FallSe7en
    I am trying to initialize the following array of the following struct, but my code isn't compiling. Can anybody help me out? The struct/array: struct DiningCarSeat { int status; int order; int waiterNum; Lock customerLock; Condition customer; DiningCarSeat(seatNum) { char* tempLockName; sprintf(tempLockName, "diningCarSeatLock%d", seatNum); char* tempConditionName; sprintf(tempConditionName, "diningCarSeatCondition%d", seatNum); status = 0; order = 0; waiterNum = -1; customerLock = new Lock(tempLockName); customer = new Condition(tempConditionName); } } diningCarSeat[DINING_CAR_CAPACITY]; The relevant errors: ../threads/threadtest.cc: In constructor `DiningCarSeat::DiningCarSeat(int)': ../threads/threadtest.cc:58: error: no matching function for call to `Lock::Lock()' ../threads/synch.h:66: note: candidates are: Lock::Lock(const Lock&) ../threads/synch.h:68: note: Lock::Lock(char*) ../threads/threadtest.cc:58: error: no matching function for call to `Condition::Condition()' ../threads/synch.h:119: note: candidates are: Condition::Condition(const Condition&) ../threads/synch.h:121: note: Condition::Condition(char*) ../threads/threadtest.cc:63: error: expected primary-expression before '.' token ../threads/threadtest.cc:64: error: expected primary-expression before '.' token ../threads/threadtest.cc: At global scope: ../threads/threadtest.cc:69: error: no matching function for call to `DiningCarSeat::DiningCarSeat()' ../threads/threadtest.cc:51: note: candidates are: DiningCarSeat::DiningCarSeat(const DiningCarSeat&) ../threads/threadtest.cc:58: note: DiningCarSeat::DiningCarSeat(int) Thanks in advance!

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  • MySql - JSON data not showing in html

    - by Ramzie
    I'm trying to create a drop down list from a MySql. The php is successfully fetching the data from the MySql. But my problem is the data is not showing on the drop down list in my HTML page? json_mysql_data2.php header("Content-Type: application/json"); require_once("con.php"); $i=0; $jsonData = array(); foreach ($conn_db->query("SELECT customerID FROM customers WHERE furniture='33' ") as $result){ $i++; $jsonData["article".$i]=$result['customerID']; } echo json_encode($jsonData); myJS.js $(document).ready(function(){ var ddlist = document.getElementById("ddlist"); var hr = new XMLHttpRequest(); hr.open("GET", "json_mysql_data2.php", true); hr.setRequestHeader("Content-type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); hr.onreadystatechange = function() { if(hr.readyState == 4 && hr.status == 200) { var d = JSON.parse(hr.responseText); for(var o in d){ if(d[o].title){ ddlist.innerHTML += '</option><option value='+d[o].title+'</option>'; } } } } hr.send("null"); ddlist.innerHTML = "Loading Customer ID...."; }); html <script src="myJS.js" type="text/javascript"></script> </head> <body> <div class="dlist"> Customer ID: <select id='EmpLst' name="dwlist" onchange='document.getElementById("val1").value = this.value;'><option value="">SELECT STUDENT ID</option> <div id="ddlist"></div> </select> </div>

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  • virtualbox installing iso Error "could not find a valid v7 on sda"

    - by MountainX
    I decided to try this suggestion to install Android x86 on Virtual Box. I'm following those steps and I'm at #4. I used the android-x86-4.0-RC1-amd_brazos.iso (because I have a ThinkPad that this might be compatible with and it seemed as good as any of the other choices...) I'm getting an endless series of errors: .[numbers] VFS: could not find a valid v7 on sda. .[numbers] VFS: could not find a valid v7 on sda. repeating... For storage, I made a VDI image sized at 4.0 GB (dynamically allocated) attached on SATA Port 0. Background and more details: I'm running Kubuntu 12.04. I installed VirtualBox 4.1.12 after adding deb http://download.virtualbox.org/virtualbox/debian precise contrib to my sources. EDIT: Now I'm wondering if I installed the right package. I verified that I'm running 4.1.12. But I installed it with apt-get install virtualbox instead of the recommended apt-get install virtualbox-4.1. I checked just now and see this: apt-cache search virtualbox virtualbox - x86 virtualization solution - base binaries virtualbox-4.1 - Oracle VM VirtualBox But when I run VirtualBox, I get the Oracle VM VirtualBox Manager version 4.1.12, so I think I'm OK. I did see one minor issue (possibly related to this question) when installing VB, but in my case I don't think it is actually an error at all: * No suitable module for running kernel found [fail] invoke-rc.d: initscript virtualbox, action "restart" failed. VirtualBox installed and seems to be running fine. I just can't get the ISO image to install. The error is as shown above.

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  • OpenSolaris / Nexenta problems with NetXen 4-port NIC card (ntxn driver)

    - by ewwhite
    Hello, I'm running NexentaStor Enterprise on an HP ProLiant DL180 G6 server. The onboard NIC interfaces surface as igb0 and igb1 and work well. However, I've added an HP NC375T 4-port network card using the NetXen 3031 chipset. This card should be handled by the ntxn driver in the SUNWntxn package, but that results in "ntxn0: failed to map doorbell" messages upon boot. The network interfaces don't show up. After some research, I found HP's driver package for the card. The release notes for the driver package state: This version of the Driver is supported only on Oracle Solaris 10 5/09 & 10/09. Oracle Solaris 10 5/09 & 10/09 contain an older version of NetXen P3 driver package called SUNWntxn. So, adding another version of NetXen P3 driver package using pkgadd command might result in conflicts with the NetXen driver binary & related files. Users are advised to uninstall native SUNWntxn driver package before installing the new package. The install completes, but I end up with a different set of errors in initializing the card. ifconfig ntxn0 plumb ifconfig: cannot open link "ntxn0": DLPI link does not exist dmesg output: Jan 29 07:20:17 ch-san2 ntxn: [ID 977263 kern.warning] WARNING: Memory not available Jan 29 07:20:17 ch-san2 ntxn: [ID 404858 kern.notice] NOTICE: ntxn0: Mac registration error Trying to manually create the device files: root@ch-san2:/volumes# add_drv -i "4040,100" ntxn ("ntxn") already in use as a driver or alias. Update the driver: root@ch-san2:/volumes# update_drv -f ntxn devfsadm: driver failed to attach: ntxn Warning: Driver (ntxn) successfully added to system but failed to attach Any ideas on how to get this driver working, or should I ditch the card and go with an Intel or something else?

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  • How to perform SCP as a Sudo user

    - by Ramesh.T
    What is the best way of doing SCP from one box to the other as a sudo user. There are two servers Server A 10.152.2.10 /home/oracle/export/files.txt User : deploy Server B 10.152.2.11 /home/oracle/import/ User : deploy Sudo user : /usr/local/bin/tester all i want is to copy files from server A to Server B as a sudo user... In order to do this, first i normally login as deploy user on the target server and then switch as a sudo user without password. after that SCP to copy file, this is the normal way i perform this activity... In order to auotmate i have written script #!/bin/sh ssh deploy@lnx120 sudo /usr/local/bin/tester "./tester/deploy.sh" I have generated the private key for deploy user, so it allows me to login as deploy user without password. afterthar the sudo command is executed it will switch the user to tester... after that nothing happens.. i mean the script is not getting executed ... is there any way to accomplish this in a different way...

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  • Update BIOS on Sun Fire X4150 server

    - by Massimo
    I have some Sun Fire X4150 servers with a very old BIOS release (1ADQW015), which seems to have some compatibility problems with WMware ESX Server 3.5 and Windows 2008 R2 virtual machines; so I want to update the BIOS on them. The problem: according to this page, if your servers run ELOM (mine do), you first need to update to the latest ELOM release, then to the interim transition release, then finally you can update to the latest one. Ok, I'm willing to do that... but it looks like Sun (now Oracle) will happily let you download the latest firmware DVD (3.3.0), but it will not let you download the transition release (2.0) if you don't have a support contract. Well, I actuall don't care at all about the servers' management controllers (we don't even use them), so upgrading from ELOM to ILOM is totally irrelevant to me; but I need to update the servers' BIOS. So my question is: can I update the servers' BIOS to the latest version without doing the full ELOM-to-ILOM migration, or will this not work (or even make the servers unusable)? Do BIOS versions and SP ones need to be matched, or can one be updated without bothering with the other? Bonus question: if this whole ELOM-to-ILOM thing actually is needed in order to update the BIOS, can that 2.0 CD-ROM be obtained without having a support contract with Sun/Oracle (which we are definitely not going to sign, being that quite old hardware)? Update: I tried upgrading only the BIOS on one of the servers, and it didn't boot anymore. So it really looks like a full firmware upgrade is needed, and the management controller and BIOS versions should be kept in sync. So... where can I find that *&!£%$% 2.0 CD-ROM? Or at least the transition firmware that can be found on it?

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  • TeamCity sends inadequate responses after Selenium tests

    - by Dmitriy Sukharev
    I have a TeamCity 7.0.2 at CentOS 6.2 server without X Server. I've installed x11-fonts*, xvfb, firefox, xauth, extracted env. variable DISPLAY=localhost:1, and started xvfb. After that I could start Selenium tests using maven. Tests are executed, but there's an issue with TeamCity. Usually TeamCity starts hehaves absolutely inadequate (it confuses images at the page, sends xml or strange text ampersants and numbers in responses and is a bit slower), also tests are executed 4 times slower (1h 15m) at server than at tester Windows 7-based machine (25m). It worth to notice that tests launch two Jetty servers for tested application (one for REST-services application and another for client). In TeamCity I set JVM command line parameters: -Xms256m -Xmx1224m -XX:MaxPermSize=320m, and Additional Maven command line parameters ends with "-DMAVEN_OPTS=-Xmx1024m" (without quotes). Also both web-services and TeamCity uses the same Oracle server (but different Oracle users). Finally TeamCity and its build agent is at the same server. Server has only 4GB of RAM, but during testing there're 400MB of RAM and 1.2GB of swap. TeamCity and Firefox uses about 65% of CPU during testing. There's no firefox process after end of testing. My knowledge about Selenium is weak. I only know that we use 2.20.0 version of selenium-java maven dependency. Please help me to determine why TeamCity sends wrong responces after Selenium tests. I've tried to give you all information I have, but feel free to ask me for more information.

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  • Http-Only cookies in WebLogic: what versions support them/how and why are they supported?

    - by John
    We want to make all cookies set by our webapp http-only. I only have a basic understanding of the benefits of doing this but I'm told by security people that it's a Good Thing (tm) Our app is running under JDK1.6.05 and WebLogic10.3.0 After way too much digging around Oracle's website for documentation, I've found good evidence that the first version of WebLogic to support http-only cookies is 10.3.1. By "support," I mean the cookie-http-only deployment-descriptor element. Before we go about upgrading, I'd be nice to have these questions answered: 1a) Is it accurate that WL10.3.1 is the first version to support http-only cookies and that we're out of luck with 10.3.0? 1b) If we do indeed need to upgrade, is there an easy to do so under Windows? I've heard people mention an "upgrade jar" that you just stick in the classpath but I can't find any mention of this by Oracle. Does an easy way exist, or do we need to do a full-install of the new version? 2) What does the cookie-http-only deployment-descriptor element do when enabled? Will it ensure all cookies set by the application have an http-only=true attribute? Will it do more or less? Is there anything I'll have to do programmatically? 3) Is there anything in general I should know about http-only cookies, getting my web app to take advantage of them, or other security concerns?

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  • Opening port 80 in router has no results

    - by Ricardo Pieper
    A friend of mine has a ADSL modem and I need to forward some ports. I have already forwarded the 1521 port (Oracle) and it's working fine. Now I need to forward the port 80. I already set up his IIS bindings to this port, and also forwarded the port like this video shows: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=DLKD-fyexoo So I think I did everything correctly. The local IP address is also the same as the machine where the IIS server is running. I'm sorry, but I can't post images since i don't have 10 points :( Somehow I can't forward this port, yougetsignal.com keeps saying that the door is closed. When I try to open the port, the Control Panel says me that I have to access the control panel in the 8080 port, because the 80 port will be open. Ok, that's fine. But I'm still able to access it in the 80 port, and when I try to access it in the 8080 port, it doesn't work. I'm trying it with the TPLINK 8816, but I also tried to open it in the Opticom DsLink 279, and it didn't worked (using another machine), I got the exact same results. He has a dynamic IP address, but he is also using No-ip, so I can always access his Oracle database in a certain static address. The 1521 port is open. I also tried to disable the firewall in Windows, but that makes no sense to me, since the router doesn't really open the port 80. Clearly I'm missing something. I have never done it in my life, so I dont know how to proceed. Restarting the router was the first I did, no results. I'm accessing his laptop through TeamViewer, so I'm testing the port outside his local network. Edit: My ISP says that they allow to open ports, and the 1521 port is opened. What could I do to open the 80 port?

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  • Replacing all disks in a non-OS RAID 5 volume

    - by molecule
    Hi all, We currently have a server with 8 x HDD slots. It is a HP DL380G5 with a P400 controller. 2 x HDD are in a RAID 1+0 config and this hosts the OS. 6 x HDD are in a RAID 5 config and holds an Oracle DB. Basically the RAID 5 volume is running out of space and we would like to swap all 6 with higher capacity disks. Excuse my ignorance as I am pretty new to this... I believe we will need to backup the data, delete the RAID volume, insert the new disks, recreate the volume, and restore the data. 2 questions: Do we need to worry about the OS partition or is it completely independent so we can simply take out the 6 and insert 6 new disks and get the controller to recognize the 6 new disks and form a new RAID 5 volume? We should not need to reinstall OS or Oracle correct? Since we are going to restore the data on the volume from another source (our vendor will take care of this) but we would like to keep the existing data on the 6 disks just in case we run into issues and want to fall back, is this possible? Thanks in advance.

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  • Update BIOS on Sun Fire X4150 server

    - by Massimo
    I have some Sun Fire X4150 servers with a very old BIOS release (1ADQW015), which seems to have some compatibility problems with WMware ESX Server 3.5 and Windows 2008 R2 virtual machines; so I want to update the BIOS on them. The problem: according to this page, if your servers run ELOM (mine do), you first need to update to the latest ELOM release, then to the interim transition release, then finally you can update to the latest one. Ok, I'm willing to do that... but it looks like Sun (now Oracle) will happily let you download the latest firmware DVD (3.3.0), but it will not let you download the transition release (2.0) if you don't have a support contract. Well, I actuall don't care at all about the servers' management controllers (we don't even use them), so upgrading from ELOM to ILOM is totally irrelevant to me; but I need to update the servers' BIOS. So my question is: can I update the servers' BIOS to the latest version without doing the full ELOM-to-ILOM migration, or will this not work (or even make the servers unusable)? Do BIOS versions and SP ones need to be matched, or can one be updated without bothering with the other? Bonus question: if this whole ELOM-to-ILOM thing actually is needed in order to update the BIOS, can that 2.0 CD-ROM be obtained without having a support contract with Sun/Oracle (which we are definitely not going to sign, being that quite old hardware)? Update: I tried upgrading only the BIOS on one of the servers, and it didn't boot anymore. So it really looks like a full firmware upgrade is needed, and the management controller and BIOS versions should be kept in sync. So... where can I find that *&!£%$% 2.0 CD-ROM? Or at least the transition firmware that can be found on it?

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  • Enabling JMX for proxool with tomcat

    - by dialt0ne
    I am trying to get proxool's MBeans available so that I can see/manipulate them with jconsole. I have jconsole working, but I don't see anything related to proxool. The system is using Sun Java 1.5.0_17 (I know, I know... I'm working with the developers to upgrade). JMX is enabled by modifying $JAVA_OPTS in my tomcat 5.5 startup script: SJO="$SJO -Dcom.sun.management.jmxremote" SJO="$SJO -Dcom.sun.management.jmxremote.port=4998" SJO="$SJO -Dcom.sun.management.jmxremote.authenticate=false" SJO="$SJO -Dcom.sun.management.jmxremote.ssl=false" JAVA_OPTS="$JAVA_OPTS $SJO" I have proxool configured with JNDI in server.xml: <GlobalNamingResources> <Resource name="jdbc/database" auth="Container" type="javax.sql.DataSource" factory="org.logicalcobwebs.proxool.ProxoolDataSource" user="username" password="password" proxool.driver-url="jdbc:oracle:thin:@fqdn.example.com:1521:MYSID" proxool.driver-class="oracle.jdbc.driver.OracleDriver" proxool.alias="mysid" proxool.maximum-connection-count="20" proxool.statistics="20s,5m,15m" proxool.statistics-log-level="INFO" proxool.jmx="true" proxool.verbose="true" /> </GlobalNamingResources> My test .jsp can run queries and I can see it using the connections with the proxool admin servlet, but I'm unsure if there's more I need to configure in tomcat or proxool to get JMX functioning. Advice? jmxproxy info edit: The jmxproxy servlet is working - when I go to the URL http://tomcatserver.example.com:4999/manager/jmxproxy/?qry=*:type%3DRequestProcessor,* the results are: OK - Number of results: 2 Name: Catalina:type=RequestProcessor,worker=http-8080,name=HttpRequest0 modelerType: org.apache.coyote.RequestInfo bytesSent: 0 requestBytesSent: 0 contentLength: -1 bytesReceived: 0 requestProcessingTime: 1297983483666 globalProcessor: org.apache.coyote.RequestGroupInfo@32dc51c8 requestBytesReceived: 0 serverPort: -1 stage: 0 requestCount: 0 maxTime: 0 processingTime: 0 errorCount: 0 Name: Catalina:type=RequestProcessor,worker=jk-127.0.0.1-8009,name=JkRequest794 modelerType: org.apache.coyote.RequestInfo virtualHost: tomcatserver.example.com bytesSent: 0 method: GET remoteAddr: 172.30.3.51 requestBytesSent: 0 contentLength: -1 workerThreadName: TP-Processor15 bytesReceived: 0 requestProcessingTime: 9 globalProcessor: org.apache.coyote.RequestGroupInfo@1e7d3b8e protocol: HTTP/1.1 currentQueryString: qry=*%3Atype%3DRequestProcessor%2C* requestBytesReceived: 0 serverPort: 4999 stage: 3 requestCount: 0 maxTime: 0 processingTime: 0 currentUri: /manager/jmxproxy/ errorCount: 0 And more to the point http://tomcatserver.example.com:4999/manager/jmxproxy/?qry=Catalina:type%3DEnvironment,resourcetype%3DGlobal,name%3DProxool yields: OK - Number of results: 0

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  • Http-Only cookies in WebLogic: what versions support them/how and why are they supported?

    - by John
    We want to make all cookies set by our webapp http-only. I only have a basic understanding of the benefits of doing this but I'm told by security people that it's a Good Thing (tm) Our app is running under JDK1.6.05 and WebLogic10.3.0 After way too much digging around Oracle's website for documentation, I've found good evidence that the first version of WebLogic to support http-only cookies is 10.3.1. By "support," I mean the cookie-http-only deployment-descriptor element. Before we go about upgrading, I'd be nice to have these questions answered: 1a) Is it accurate that WL10.3.1 is the first version to support http-only cookies and that we're out of luck with 10.3.0? 1b) If we do indeed need to upgrade, is there an easy to do so under Windows? I've heard people mention an "upgrade jar" that you just stick in the classpath but I can't find any mention of this by Oracle. Does an easy way exist, or do we need to do a full-install of the new version? 2) What does the cookie-http-only deployment-descriptor element do when enabled? Will it ensure all cookies set by the application have an http-only=true attribute? Will it do more or less? Is there anything I'll have to do programmatically? 3) Is there anything in general I should know about http-only cookies, getting my web app to take advantage of them, or other security concerns?

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  • Problems Installing slapd On Ubuntu Server 11.10

    - by Zach Dziura
    I know that there's a Ubuntu-specific StackExchange website, but I thought that I'd ask here because it's a server-specific question. If I'm wrong in my logic... Well, you people are better at this than I am! O=) On with the show! I'm in the process of installing Oracle Database 11g R2 Standard Edition onto Ubuntu Server 11.10. I found a guide on the Oracle Support Forums that walks you through the process fairly easily. Unfortunately, I'm running into issues installing one particular dependency: slapd. When I go to install it, I get this error message: (Reading database ... 64726 files and directories currently installed.) Unpacking slapd (from .../slapd_2.4.25-1.1ubuntu4.1_amd64.deb) ... Processing triggers for man-db ... Processing triggers for ufw ... Processing triggers for ureadahead ... Setting up slapd (2.4.25-1.1ubuntu4.1) ... Usage: slappasswd [options] -c format crypt(3) salt format -g generate random password -h hash password scheme -n omit trailing newline -s secret new password -u generate RFC2307 values (default) -v increase verbosity -T file read file for new password Creating initial configuration... Loading the initial configuration from the ldif file () failed with the following error while running slapadd: str2entry: invalid value for attributeType olcRootPW #0 (syntax 1.3.6.1.4.1.1466.115.121.1.15) slapadd: could not parse entry (line=1051) dpkg: error processing slapd (--configure): subprocess installed post-installation script returned error exit status 1 Errors were encountered while processing: slapd E: Sub-process /usr/bin/dpkg returned an error code (1) After much Google searches and forum trolling, I have yet to find a definitive answer as to what's going wrong. The error messages seem straight forward enough, but I have no idea how to debug this. Can anyone offer some assistance? Again, if I'm asking in the wrong place, I apologize. If I'm indeed asking properly, then thank you for any and all help!

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