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  • Index question: Select * with WHERE clause. Where and how to create index

    - by Mestika
    Hi, I’m working on optimizing some of my queries and I have a query that states: select * from SC where c_id ="+c_id” The schema of ** SC** looks like this: SC ( c_id int not null, date_start date not null, date_stop date not null, r_t_id int not null, nt int, t_p decimal, PRIMARY KEY (c_id, r_t_id, date_start, date_stop)); My immediate bid on how the index should be created is a covering index in this order: INDEX(c_id, date_start, date_stop, nt, r_t_id, t_p) The reason for this order I base on: The WHERE clause selects from c_id thus making it the first sorting order. Next, the date_start and date_stop to specify a sort of “range” to be defined in these parameters Next, nt because it will select the nt Next the r_t_id because it is a ID for a specific type of my r_t table And last the t_p because it is just a information. I don’t know if it is at all necessary to order it in a specific way when it is a SELECT ALL statement. I should say, that the SC is not the biggest table. I can say how many rows it contains but a estimate could be between <10 and 1000. The next thing to add is, that the SC, in different queries, inserts the data into the SC, and I know that indexes on tables which have insertions can be cost ineffective, but can I somehow create a golden middle way to effective this performance. Don't know if it makes a different but I'm using IBM DB2 version 9.7 database Sincerely Mestika

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  • Updating a Database from DataBound Controls

    - by Avatar_Squadron
    Hi. I'm currently creating a WinForm in VB.NET bound to an access database. Basically what i have are two forms: one is a search form used to search the database, and the other is a details form. You run a search on the searchForm and it returns a list of Primary Keys and a few other identifying values. You then double click on the entry you want to view, and it loads the details form. The Details form has a collection of databound controls to display the data: mostly text boxes and checkboxs. The way i've set it up is i used the UI to build the form and then set the DataBindings Property of each control to "TblPropertiesBindingSource - " where value name is one of the values in the table (such as PropertyID or HasWoodFloor). Then, when you double click an entry in the searchform, I handle the event by parsing the Primary Key (PropertyID) out of the selected row and then storing this to the details form: Note: Detail is the details form that is opened to display the info Private Sub propView_CellDoubleClick(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.DataGridViewCellEventArgs) Handles propView.CellDoubleClick Dim detail As frmPropertiesDetail = New frmPropertiesDetail detail.id = propView.Rows(e.RowIndex).Cells(0).Value detail.Show() End Sub Then, upon loading the details form, it set's the filter on the BindSource as such: TblPropertiesBindingSource.Filter() = "PropertyID=" & id This works great so far. All the controls on the details form will display the correct info. The problem is updating changes. Scenario: If i have the user load the details for say, property 10001, it will show a description in a textBox named descriptionBox which is identical to the value of the description value of for that entry in the database. I want the user to then be able to change the text of the text box (which they can currently do) and click the save button (saveBut) and have the form update all the values in the controls to the database. Theorectically, it should do this as the controls are DataBound, thus i can avoid writing code that tells each entry in the database row to take the value of the aligned control. I've tried calleding PropertiesTableAdapter.Update(PropertiesBindingSource.DataSource), but that doesnt seem to do it.

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  • Stored procedure for generic MERGE

    - by GilliVilla
    I have a set of 10 tables in a database (DB1). And there are 10 tables in another database (DB2) with exact same schema on the same SQL Server 2008 R2 database server machine. The 10 tables in DB1 are frequently updated with data. I intend to write a stored procedure that would run once every day for synchronizing the 10 tables in DB1 with DB2. The stored procedure would make use of the MERGE statement. Now, my aim is to make this as generic and parametrized as possible. That is, accommodate for more tables down the line... and accommodate different source and target DB names. Definitely no hard coding is intended. This is my algorithm so far: Have the database names as parameters Have the first query within the stored procedure... result in giving the names of the 10 tables from a lookup table (this can be 10, 20 or whatever) Have a generic MERGE statement that does the sync for each of the above set of tables (based on primary key?) This is where I need more inputs on. What is the best way to achieve this stored procedure? SQL syntax would be helpful.

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  • google app engine atomic section???

    - by bokertov
    hi, Say you retrieve a set of records from the datastore (something like: select * from MyClass where reserved='false'). how do i ensure that another user doesn't set the reserved is still false? I've looked in the Transaction documentation and got shocked from google's solution which is to catch the exception and retry in a loop. Any solution that I'm missing - it's hard to believe that there's no way to have an atomic operation in this environment. (btw - i could use 'syncronize' inside the servlet but i think it's not valid as there's no way to ensure that there's only one instance of the servlet object, isn't it? same applies to static variable solution) Any idea on how to solve??? (here's the google solution: http://code.google.com/appengine/docs/java/datastore/transactions.html#Entity_Groups look at: Key k = KeyFactory.createKey("Employee", "k12345"); Employee e = pm.getObjectById(Employee.class, k); e.counter += 1; pm.makePersistent(e); This requires a transaction because the value may be updated by another user after this code fetches the object, but before it saves the modified object. Without a transaction, the user's request will use the value of counter prior to the other user's update, and the save will overwrite the new value. With a transaction, the application is told about the other user's update. If the entity is updated during the transaction, then the transaction fails with an exception. The application can repeat the transaction to use the new data. THANKS!

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  • How to speed up a slow UPDATE query

    - by Mike Christensen
    I have the following UPDATE query: UPDATE Indexer.Pages SET LastError=NULL where LastError is not null; Right now, this query takes about 93 minutes to complete. I'd like to find ways to make this a bit faster. The Indexer.Pages table has around 506,000 rows, and about 490,000 of them contain a value for LastError, so I doubt I can take advantage of any indexes here. The table (when uncompressed) has about 46 gigs of data in it, however the majority of that data is in a text field called html. I believe simply loading and unloading that many pages is causing the slowdown. One idea would be to make a new table with just the Id and the html field, and keep Indexer.Pages as small as possible. However, testing this theory would be a decent amount of work since I actually don't have the hard disk space to create a copy of the table. I'd have to copy it over to another machine, drop the table, then copy the data back which would probably take all evening. Ideas? I'm using Postgres 9.0.0. UPDATE: Here's the schema: CREATE TABLE indexer.pages ( id uuid NOT NULL, url character varying(1024) NOT NULL, firstcrawled timestamp with time zone NOT NULL, lastcrawled timestamp with time zone NOT NULL, recipeid uuid, html text NOT NULL, lasterror character varying(1024), missingings smallint, CONSTRAINT pages_pkey PRIMARY KEY (id ), CONSTRAINT indexer_pages_uniqueurl UNIQUE (url ) ); I also have two indexes: CREATE INDEX idx_indexer_pages_missingings ON indexer.pages USING btree (missingings ) WHERE missingings > 0; and CREATE INDEX idx_indexer_pages_null ON indexer.pages USING btree (recipeid ) WHERE NULL::boolean; There are no triggers on this table, and there is one other table that has a FK constraint on Pages.PageId.

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  • How can I handle arbitrary text as "nouns" in Inform 7?

    - by Beska
    In Inform, I'd like to be able to create a new action, and have it be able to work on aribitrary text. I can easily create a new action that will work on existing things. Finding is an action with past participle found, applying to one thing. Understand "Find [something]" as finding. Carry out finding: say "You find [the noun]." But this only works on items that exist within the game world. If I try to "find fdsljk", for instance, it will fail because I haven't created a "fdsljk". I'd like to be able to "find fdsljk" and then be able to grab that extra text and respond with it...something like "You find the fdsljk." I was thinking that something like A foo is a kind of value. Finding is an action with past participle found, applying to one foo. Understand "Find [something]" as finding. Carry out finding: say "You find [the foo]." might be close...but it doesn't work. I get an error that reads: You wrote 'say "You find [the foo]."' , and in particular 'the foo': but this asked to say something of a kind which can't be said, or rather, printed. Although this problem can arise when you use complicated text substitutions which come in variant forms depending on the kinds of value used, far more often what this means is just that you tried to use a substituted value (e.g., in 'say "The dial reads [V]."') of a kind which could not be printed out. For instance, if V is a number or a piece of text, there is no problem: but if V is a parsing topic, say an entry in a 'topic' column of a table, then this problem will arise. The italics are mine, and highlight the key...I think this should be doable, but I'm taking the wrong path. Clues?

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  • Finding and marking the largest of three values in a two dimensional array

    - by DavidYell
    I am working on a display screen for our office, and I can't seem to think of a good way to find the largest numerical value in a set of data in a two dimensional array. I've looked at using max() and also asort() but they don't seem to cope with a two dimensional array. I'm returning my data through our mysql class, so the rows are returned in a two dimensional array. Array( [0] => Array( [am] => 12, [sales] => 981), [1] => Array( [am] => 43, [sales] => 1012), [2] => Array( [am] => 17, [sales] => 876) ) I need to output a class when foreaching the data in my table for the AM with the highest sales value. Short of comparing them all in if statements. I have tried to get max() on the array, but it returns an array, as it's look within the dimension. When pointing it at a specific dimension it returns the key not the value. I figured that I could asort() the array and pop the top value off, store it in a variable and then compare against that in my foreach() loop, but that seems to have trouble sorting across two dimensions. Lastly, I figured that I could foreach() the values, comparing them against the previous one each time, untill I found the largest. This approach however means storing every value, luckily only three, but then comparing against them all again. Surely there must be a simpler way to achieve this, short of converting it into a single dimension array, then doing an asort() on that?

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  • Is it possible to return a list of numbers from a Sybase function?

    - by ps_rs4
    I'm trying to overcome a very serious performance issue in which Sybase refuses to use the primary key index on a large table because one of the required fields is specified indirectly through another table - or, in other words; SELECT ... FROM BIGTABLE WHERE KFIELD = 123 runs in ms but SELECT ... FROM BIGTABLE, LTLTBL WHERE KFIELD = LTLTBL.LOOKUP AND LTLTBL.UNIQUEID = 'STRINGREPOF123' takes 30 - 40 seconds. I've managed to work around this first problem by using a function that basically lets me do this; SELECT ... FROM BIGTABLE WHERE KFIELD = MYFUNC('STRINGREPOF123') which also runs in ms. The problem, however, is that this approach only works when there is a single value returned by MYFUNCT but I have some cases where it may return 2 or 3 values. I know that the SQL SELECT ... FROM BIGTABLE WHERE KFIELD IN (123,456,789) also returns in millis so I'd like to have a function that returns a list of possible values rather than just a single one - is this possible? Sadly the application is running on Sybase ASA 9. Yes I know it is old and is scheduled to be refreshed but there's nothing I can do about it now so I need logic that will work with this version of the DB. Thanks in advance for any assistance on this matter.

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  • Entering Content Into A MySQL Database Via A Form

    - by ThatMacLad
    I've been working on creating a form that submits content into my database but I decided that rather than using a drop down menu to select the date I'd rather use a textfield. I was wondering what changes I will need to make to my table creation file. <?php mysql_connect ('localhost', 'root', 'root') ; mysql_select_db ('tmlblog'); $sql = "CREATE TABLE php_blog ( id int(20) NOT NULL auto_increment, timestamp int(20) NOT NULL, title varchar(255) NOT NULL, entry longtext NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (id) )"; $result = mysql_query($sql) or print ("Can't create the table 'php_blog' in the database.<br />" . $sql . "<br />" . mysql_error()); mysql_close(); if ($result != false) { echo "Table 'php_blog' was successfully created."; } ?> It's the timestamp that I need to edit to enter in via a textfield. The Title and Entry are currently being entered via that method anyway.

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  • Why does Python's 'for ... in' work differently on a list of values vs. a list of dictionaries?

    - by Code Duck
    I'm wondering about some details of how for ... in works in Python. My understanding is for var in iterable on each iteration creates a variable, var, bound to the current value of iterable. So, if you do for c in cows; c = cows[whatever], but changing c within the loop does not affect the original value. However, it seems to work differently if you're assigning a value to a dictionary key. cows=[0,1,2,3,4,5] for c in cows: c+=2 #cows is now the same - [0,1,2,3,4,5] cows=[{'cow':0},{'cow':1},{'cow':2},{'cow':3},{'cow':4},{'cow':5}] for c in cows: c['cow']+=2 # cows is now [{'cow': 2}, {'cow': 3}, {'cow': 4}, {'cow': 5}, {'cow': 6}, {'cow': 7} #so, it's changed the original, unlike the previous example I see one can use enumerate to make the first example work, too, but that's a different story, I guess. cows=[0,1,2,3,4,5] for i,c in enumerate(cows): cows[i]+=1 # cows is now [1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6] Why does it affect the original list values in the second example but not the first?

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  • Update table using SSIS

    - by thursdaysgeek
    I am trying to update a field in a table with data from another table, based on a common key. If it were in straight SQL, it would be something like: Update EHSIT set e.IDMSObjID = s.IDMSObjID from EHSIT e, EHSIDMS s where e.SITENUM = s.SITE_CODE However, the two tables are not in the same database, so I'm trying to use SSIS to do the update. Oh, and the sitenum/site_code are varchar in one and nvarchar in the other, so I'll have to do a data conversion so they'll match. How do I do it? I have a data flow object, with the source as EHSIDMS and the destination as EHSIT. I have a data conversion to convert the unicode to non-unicode. But how do I update based on the match? I've tried with the destination, using a SQL Command as the Data Access mode, but it doesn't appear to have the source table. If I just map the field to be updated, how does it limit it based on fields matching? I'm about to export my source table to Excel or something, and then try inputting from there, although it seems that all that would get me would be to remove the data conversion step. Shouldn't there be an update data task or something? Is it one of those Data Flow transformation tasks, and I'm just not figuring out which it is?

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  • Prolog Beginner: How to make unique values for each Variable in a predicate.

    - by sixtyfootersdude
    I have a prolog predicate: DoStuff( [A|B] ) :- <Stuff that I do> ... </Stuff that I do> It is all done except it needs to do return unique values. Ie if you do: ?- DoStuff(A,B,C,D). it should return: A=1; B=2; C=3; D=4. (Or something similar, the key point is that all of the values are unique). However you should be able to do this too: ?- DoStuff(A,A,B,B). And still get a valid answer. Ie: A=1; B=2. How can I do this? What I was planning on doing was something like this: DoStuff( [A|B] ) :- <Stuff that I do> ... </Stuff that I do> unique([A|B]). unique([]). unique([A|B]) :- A is not B. However I think that will make DoStuff([A,A,B]) not work because not all values will be unique.

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  • MySQL PHP | "SELECT FROM table" using "alphanumeric"-UUID. Speed vs. Indexed Integer / Indexed Char

    - by dropson
    At the moment, I select rows from 'table01' using: SELECT * FROM table01 WHERE UUID = 'whatever'; The UUID column is a unique index. I know this isn't the fastest way to select data from the database, but the UUID is the only row-identifier that is available to the front-end. Since I have to select by UUID, and not ID, I need to know what of these two options I should go for, if say the table consists of 100'000 rows. What speed differences would I look at, and would the index for the UUID grow to large, and lag the DB? Get the ID before doing the "big" select 1. $id = "SELECT ID FROM table01 WHERE UUID = '{alphanumeric character}'"; 2. $rows = SELECT * FROM table01 WHERE ID = $id; Or keep it the way it is now, using the UUID. 1. SELECT FROM table01 WHERE UUID '{alphanumeric character}'; Side note: All new rows are created by checking if the system generated uniqueid exists before trying to insert a new row. Keeping the column always unique. The "example" table. CREATE TABLE Table01 ( ID int NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY, UUID char(15), name varchar(100), url varchar(255), `date` datetime ) ENGINE = InnoDB; CREATE UNIQUE INDEX UUID ON Table01 (UUID);

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  • UDP security and identifying incoming data.

    - by Charles
    I have been creating an application using UDP for transmitting and receiving information. The problem I am running into is security. Right now I am using the IP/socketid in determining what data belongs to whom. However, I have been reading about how people could simply spoof their IP, then just send data as a specific IP. So this seems to be the wrong way to do it (insecure). So how else am I suppose to identify what data belongs to what users? For instance you have 10 users connected, all have specific data. The server would need to match the user data to this data we received. The only way I can see to do this is to use some sort of client/server key system and encrypt the data. I am curious as to how other applications (or games, since that's what this application is) make sure their data is genuine. Also there is the fact that encryption takes much longer to process than unencrypted. Although I am not sure by how much it will affect performance. Any information would be appreciated. Thanks.

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  • Identity alternative for SQL Azure Federation : are Azure Queues or Service Bus Queues a good choice?

    - by JYL
    As many of developers, I'm looking for a way to integrate my existing app to SQL Azure Federations, and replacing the Identity columns (the primary keys of my tables) is a big problem. For many reasons, I do NOT want use GUID for my primary keys (please don't open the debate about the GUID or not, it's not my question : i just don't want a GUID, period). So I need to build a key provider to replace the "identity" feature of a standard SQL database. I'm using Entity Framework, so i can easily find one place to set the Id value just before the insert (by overriding the SaveChanges method of my ObjectContext class). I just need to find a "not too complicated" implementation for getting the current Id, which is "farm-ready". I've read this SO post : "ID Generation for Sharded Database (Azure Federated Database)" and "Synchronizing Multiple Nodes in Windows Azure from MSDN Magazine", but this solution sounds a bit complicated for me. I'm thinking about creating (automatically) one azure queue for each SQL table, which contain a pre-loaded list of consecutive integer. When I want an Id value, I just have to get a message from the queue (which becomes invisible and is deleted on the way), which give me the current available Id. About the choice between "Windows Azure Queues" and "Windows Azure Service Bus Queues", I prefere "Windows Azure Queues", due to the "high" latency of Service Bus Queues. I don't think that the lack of "ordering garantee" of Azure Queues is a problem. What do you think about that idea of using Azure Queues to provide Id values ? Do you see any argument to give up that idea ? Do you have a better idea, or even a good practice, to provider integer ids in SQL Azure Federation databases ? Thanks.

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  • WindowsFormsApplicationBase SplashScreen makes login form ignore keypresses until I click on it - how to debug?

    - by Tom Bushell
    My WinForms app has a simple modal login form, invoked at startup via ShowDialog(). When I run from inside Visual Studio, everything works fine. I can just type in my User ID, hit the Enter key, and get logged in. But when I run a release build directly, everything looks normal (the login form is active, there's a blinking cursor in the User ID MaskedEditBox), but all keypresses are ignored until I click somewhere on the login form. Very annoying if you are used to doing everything from the keyboard. I've tried to trace through the event handlers, and to set the focus directly with code, to no avail. Any suggestions how to debug this (outside of Visual Studio), or failing that - a possible workaround? Edit Here's the calling code, in my Main Form: private void OfeMainForm_Shown(object sender, EventArgs e) { OperatorLogon(); } private void OperatorLogon() { // Modal dialogs should be in a "using" block for proper disposal using (var logonForm = new C21CfrLogOnForm()) { var dr = logonForm.ShowDialog(this); if (dr == DialogResult.OK) SaveOperatorId(logonForm.OperatorId); else Application.Exit(); } } Edit 2 Didn't think this was relevant, but I'm using Microsoft.VisualBasic.ApplicationServices.WindowsFormsApplicationBase for it's splash screen and SingleInstanceController support. I just commented out the splash screen code, and the problem has disappeared. So that's opened up a whole new line of inquiry... Edit 3 Changed title to reflect better understanding of the problem

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  • Why null reference exception in SetMolePublicInstance?

    - by OldGrantonian
    I get a "null reference" exception in the following line: MoleRuntime.SetMolePublicInstance(stub, receiverType, objReceiver, name, null); The program builds and compiles correctly. There are no complaints about any of the parameters to the method. Here's the specification of SetMolePublicInstance, from the object browser: SetMolePublicInstance(System.Delegate _stub, System.Type receiverType, object _receiver, string name, params System.Type[] parameterTypes) Here are the parameter values for "Locals": + stub {Method = {System.String <StaticMethodUnitTestWithDeq>b__0()}} System.Func<string> + receiverType {Name = "OrigValue" FullName = "OrigValueP.OrigValue"} System.Type {System.RuntimeType} objReceiver {OrigValueP.OrigValue} object {OrigValueP.OrigValue} name "TestString" string parameterTypes null object[] I know that TestString() takes no parameters and returns string, so as a starter to try to get things working, I specified "null" for the final parameter to SetMolePublicInstance. As already mentioned, this compiles OK. Here's the stack trace: Unhandled Exception: System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at Microsoft.ExtendedReflection.Collections.Indexable.ConvertAllToArray[TInput,TOutput](TInput[] array, Converter`2 converter) at Microsoft.Moles.Framework.Moles.MoleRuntime.SetMole(Delegate _stub, Type receiverType, Object _receiver, String name, MoleBindingFlags flags, Type[] parameterTypes) at Microsoft.Moles.Framework.Moles.MoleRuntime.SetMolePublicInstance(Delegate _stub, Type receiverType, Object _receiver, String name, Type[] parameterTypes) at DeqP.Deq.Replace[T](Func`1 stub, Type receiverType, Object objReceiver, String name) in C:\0VisProjects\DecP_04\DecP\DeqC.cs:line 38 at DeqPTest.DecCTest.StaticMethodUnitTestWithDeq() in C:\0VisProjects\DecP_04\DecPTest\DeqCTest.cs:line 28 at Starter.Start.Main(String[] args) in C:\0VisProjects\DecP_04\Starter\Starter.cs:line 14 Press any key to continue . . . To avoid the null parameter, I changed the final "null" to "parameterTypes" as in the following line: MoleRuntime.SetMolePublicInstance(stub, receiverType, objReceiver, name, parameterTypes); I then tried each of the following (before the line): int[] parameterTypes = null; // if this is null, I don't think the type will matter int[] parameterTypes = new int[0]; object[] parameterTypes = new object[0]; // this would allow for various parameter types All three attempts produce a red squiggly line under the entire line for SetMolePublicInstance Mouseover showed the following message: The best overloaded method match for 'Microsoft.Moles.Framework.Moles.MoleRuntime.SetMolePublicInstance(System.Delegate, System.Type, object, string, params System.Type[])' has some invalid arguments. I'm assuming that the first four arguments are OK, and that the problem is with the params array.

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  • one-to-many with criteria question

    - by brnzn
    enter code hereI want to apply restrictions on the list of items, so only items from a given dates will be retrieved. Here are my mappings: <class name="MyClass" table="MyTable" mutable="false" > <cache usage="read-only"/> <id name="myId" column="myId" type="integer"/> <property name="myProp" type="string" column="prop"/> <list name="items" inverse="true" cascade="none"> <key column="myId"/> <list-index column="itemVersion"/> <one-to-many class="Item"/> </list> </class> <class name="Item" table="Items" mutable="false" > <cache usage="read-only"/> <id name="myId" column="myId" type="integer"/> <property name="itemVersion" type="string" column="version"/> <property name="startDate" type="date" column="startDate"/> </class> I tried this code: Criteria crit = session.createCriteria(MyClass.class); crit.add( Restrictions.eq("myId", new Integer(1))); crit = crit.createCriteria("items").add( Restrictions.le("startDate", new Date()) ); which result the following quires: select ... from MyTable this_ inner join Items items1_ on this_.myId=items1_.myId where this_.myId=? and items1_.startDate<=? followed by select ... from Items items0_ where items0_.myId=? But what I need is something like: select ... from MyTable this_ where this_.myId=? followed by select ... from Items items0_ where items0_.myId=? and items0_.startDate<=? Any idea how I can apply a criteria on the list of items?

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  • Error with zoomStartTime and AnnotatedTimeLine

    - by user973025
    I'm a bit of a beginner with Javascript, but last month I had a working Google chart linked to a Google Docs file, which uses a start date for the graph at 90 days before the current date. I checked the page today and in Chrome I get the message "Object # has no method 'getTime'", and in Firefox I get the message "b.zoomStartTime[y] is not a function". Both stop the graph from loading. I have simplified the code to help me with the error, but I'm not getting anywhere... Here's the code: <script type="text/javascript"> var oldDate = new Date(); oldDate.setDate(oldDate.getDate() - 90); </script> <script type="text/javascript" src="//ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/static/modules/gviz/1.0/chart.js"> { "dataSourceUrl": "//docs.google.com/spreadsheet/tq?key=0AkQH6d2CUv_qdDhwd3gtZzdTVFlNX3AwX2xUSUVuclE&transpose=0&headers=-1&range=A1%3AB2436&gid=0&pub=1", "options": { "zoomStartTime": oldDate, "width": 650, "height": 371 }, "chartType": "AnnotatedTimeLine", } </script> Any ideas would be hugely appreciated. David.

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  • How to handle ctrl+arrow in Javascript?

    - by MartyIX
    I've noticed an problem when trying to catch keyboard shortcut: CTRL+an arrow. I've handled keydown event. Now when I hold CTRL key then keydown event is fired once. If I hold an arrow (so that now I'm holding CTRL+an arrow) it doesn't fire another event. Is it forbidden from any reason? I guess I've already encountered this problem in Opera a few years ago and there was an option for it in browser. My results: holding CTRL, press an arrow -- fires event for CTRL and doesn't fire an event for an arrow press CTRL + an arrow at once -- fires one event but only with keycode of CTRL. holding CTRL, press a letter (eg. S) -- works as expected press CTRL + letter (eg. S) -- works as expected (Results are identical in Chrome and Firefox. Is the behaviour described above a standard?) I'm using: function OnKeyDown(e) { } e.ctrlKey, e.which properties of event The question is: what might be the problem?

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  • Nhibernate Cannot delete the child object

    - by Daoming Yang
    I know it has been asked for many times, i also have found a lot of answers on this website, but i just cannot get out this problem. Can anyone help me with this piece of code? Many thanks. Here is my parent mapping file <set name="ProductPictureList" table="[ProductPicture]" lazy="true" order-by="DateCreated" inverse="true" cascade="all-delete-orphan" > <key column="ProductID"/> <one-to-many class="ProductPicture"/> </set> Here is my child mapping file <class name="ProductPicture" table="[ProductPicture]" lazy="true"> <id name="ProductPictureID"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="ProductID" type="Int32"></property> <property name="PictureName" type="String"></property> <property name="DateCreated" type="DateTime"></property> </class> Here is my c# code var item = _productRepository.Get(productID); var productPictrue = item.ProductPictureList .OfType<ProductPicture>() .Where(x => x.ProductPictureID == productPictureID); // reomve the finding item var ok = item.ProductPictureList.Remove(productPictrue); _productRepository.SaveOrUpdate(item); ok is false value and this child object is still in my database.

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  • Is it possible to auto update only selected properties on an existent entity object without touching the others

    - by LaserBeak
    Say I have a bunch of boolean properties on my entity class public bool isActive etc. Values which will be manipulated by setting check boxes in a web application. I will ONLY be posting back the one changed name/value pair and the primary key at a time, say { isActive : true , NewsPageID: 34 } and the default model binder will create a NewsPage object with only those two properties set. Now if I run the below code it will not only update the values for the properties that have been set on the NewsPage object created by the model binder but of course also attempt to null all the other non set values for the existent entity object because they are not set on NewsPage object created by the model binder. Is it possible to somehow tell entity framework not to look at the properties that are set to null and attempt to persist those changes back to the retrieved entity object and hence database ? Perhaps there's some code I can write that will only utilize the non-null values and their property names on the NewsPage object created by model binder and only attempt to update those particular properties ? [HttpPost] public PartialViewResult SaveNews(NewsPage Np) { Np.ModifyDate = DateTime.Now; _db.NewsPages.Attach(Np); _db.ObjectStateManager.ChangeObjectState(Np, System.Data.EntityState.Modified); _db.SaveChanges(); _db.Dispose(); return PartialView("MonthNewsData"); } I can of course do something like below, but I have a feeling it's not the optimal solution. Especially considering that I have like 6 boolean properties that I need to set. [HttpPost] public PartialViewResult SaveNews(int NewsPageID, bool isActive, bool isOnFrontPage) { if (isActive != null) { //Get entity and update this property } if (isOnFontPage != null) { //Get entity and update this property } }

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  • PHP | SQL syntax error when inserting array

    - by Philip
    Hi guys, I am having some trouble inserting an array into the sql database. my error is as follows: Unable to add : You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near '06:45:23,i want to leave a comment)' at line 1 My query var_dump is: string(136) "INSERT INTO news_comments (news_id,comment_by,comment_date,comment) VALUES (17263,Philip,2010-05-11 06:45:23,i want to leave a comment)" My question is how can i add an empty value to id as it is the primary key and not news_id my insert function looks like this: function insertQuery($tbl, &$data) { global $mysqli; $_SESSION['errors'] = array(); require_once '../config/mysqli.php'; $query = "INSERT INTO $tbl (".implode(',',array_keys($data)).") VALUES (".implode(',',array_values($data)).")"; var_dump($query); if($result = mysqli_query($mysqli, $query)) { //$id = mysqli_insert_id($mysqli); print 'Very well done sir!'; } else { array_push($_SESSION['errors'], 'Unable to add : ' . mysqli_error($mysqli)); } } Note: arrays are not my strong point so i may be using them in-correctly!

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  • VB6 ActiveX exe - what is the proper registration sequence?

    - by Timbuck
    I have recently updated a Visual Basic 6 application that is an ActiveX exe, running on Windows XP. I have a couple of testers for this application who have received a copy of the exe and are attempting to run it. However, they are getting an error message "Unexpected error;quitting" when trying to do so. A key difference between their testing and my testing is that on the machines I tested on, I have admin rights and was able to register the application using the appname.exe /regserver command line. Reading the details at MS Support about file registration appears unclear: Visual Basic ActiveX EXE files register themselves the first time you run the EXE. However, you cannot use the EXE as a COM server until it is registered. So does this mean that after the first time the users run the exe that the application should be correctly registered, and the error I am receiving is sign of something other than an incorrectly registered application? Or does this mean that the application will not work properly until such time as the file is explicitly registered using the appname.exe /regserver command line? nb - during a production distribution, the software would be sent out to client PCs using Systems Management Server, which isn't an option for this testing.

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  • I just discovered why all ASP.Net websites are slow, and I am trying to work out what to do about it

    - by James
    I just discovered that every request in an ASP.Net web application gets a Session lock at the begging of a request, and then releases it at the end of the request!!! I mean, WTF Microsoft! In case the implication is lost on you, as it was from me at first, this basically means the following: Anytime an ASP.Net webpage is taking a long time to load (maybe due to a slow database call or whatever), and the user decides they want to navigate to a different page because they are tired of waiting, THEY CANT! The ASP.Net session lock forces the new page request to wait until the original request has finished its painfully slow load. Arrrgh. Anytime an UpdatePanel is loading slowly, and the user decides to navigate to a different page before the UpdadePanel has finished updating... THEY CANT! The ASP.Net session lock forces the new page request to wait until the original request has finished its painfully slow load. Double Arrrgh! So what are the options? So far I have come up with: Implement a Custom SessionStateDataStore, which ASP.Net supports. I haven't found too many out there to copy, and it seems kind of high risk and easy to mess up. Keep track of all requests in progress, and if a request comes in from the same user, cancel the original request. Seems kind of extreme, but it would work (I think) Don't user Session! When I need some kind of state for the user, I could just user Cache instead, and key items on the authenticated user's name, or some such thing. Again seems kind of extreme I really can't believe that the ASP.Net Microsoft team would have left such a huge performance bottleneck in the framework at version 4.0! Am I missing something obvious? How hard would it be to use a ThreadSafe collection for the Session? Arrrrghhhhhh. Any advice much appreciated.

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