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  • WPF binding comboboxes to parent- child model

    - by PaulB
    I've got a model with a few tiers in it - something along the lines of ... Company Employees Phone numbers So I've got a ListBox showing all the companys in the model. Each ListBoxItem then contains two comboboxes ... one for employees, one for phone numbers. I can successfully get the employee combo to bind correctly and show the right people, but I'd like the phone combo to show the numbers for the selected employee. I'm just setting the DataContext of the ListBox to the model above and using the following data template for each item <DataTemplate x:Key="CompanyBody"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <Label Content="{Binding Path=CompanyName}"></Label> <ComboBox Name="EmployeesCombo" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=Company.Employees}"></ComboBox> <!-- What goes here --> <ComboBox DataContext="???" ItemsSource="??" ></ComboBox> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> I've tried (naively) <ComboBox ItemsSource="{Binding Path=Company.Employees.PhoneNumbers}" ></ComboBox> and <ComboBox DataContext="EmployeesCombo.SelectedValue" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=PhoneNumbers}" ></ComboBox> and all other manner of combinations ...

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  • DataTrigger not reevaluating after property changes

    - by frozen
    I have a listbox which has its itemssource (this is done in the code behind on as the window is created) databound to an observable collection. The List box then has the following data template assigned against the items: usercontrol.xaml ... <ListBox x:Name="communicatorListPhoneControls" ItemContainerStyle="{StaticResource templateForCalls}"/> ... app.xaml ... <Style x:Key="templateForCalls" TargetType="{x:Type ListBoxItem}"> <Setter Property="ContentTemplate" Value="{StaticResource templateRinging}"/> <Style.Triggers> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding Path=hasBeenAnswered}" Value="True"> <Setter Property="ContentTemplate" Value="{StaticResource templateAnswered}"/> </DataTrigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> ... When the observable collection is updated with an object, this appears in the listbox with the correct initial datatemplate, however when the "hasBeenAnswered" property is set to true (when debugging i can see the collection is correct) the datatrigger does not re-evaluate and then update the listbox to use the correct data template. I have implemented the INotifyPropertyChanged Event in my object, and if in the template i bind to a value, i can see the value update. Its just that the datatrigger will not re-evaluate and change to the correct template. I know the datatrigger binding is correct because if i close the window and open it again, it will correctly apply the second datatemplate, because the "hasBeenAnswered" is set to True.

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  • INSERT INTO ...SELECT syntax error in join operator

    - by user1477356
    I'm trying to write a shopping basket into a order + orderline in a sql database from C# asp.net. the orderline will contain a ordernumber, total price, productid, quantity etc. for every item in the basket. The order itself will contain the ordernumber as primary key and will be linked to the different lines through it. Everything worked fine yesterday, but now as i tried to use a SELECT command in the insert into statement to get things more dynamic i'm getting the above described syntax error. Does anybody know what's wrong with this statement: INSERT INTO [order] (klant_id,totaalprijs,btw,subtotaal,verzendkosten) SELECT klant.id , SUM(orderregel.totaalprijs) , SUM(orderregel.btw) , SUM(orderregel.totaalprijs) - SUM(orderregel.btw) , 7.50 FROM orderregel INNER JOIN klant ON [order].klant_id = klant.id WHERE klant.username = 'jerry' GROUP BY id; the ordernumber in the "order" table is on autonumber, in the asp codebehind there is a for each which handles the lines being written for every product, there's an index set on 0 outside of this loop and is heightened with 1 every end of it. The executenonquery of the order is only executed once at the beginning of the first loop and the lines are added after with MAX(ordernumber) as ordernumber. I hope i have provided enough information and somebody is capable of helping me. Thanks in advance!

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  • Get control in code from ControlTemplate By Name

    - by Polaris
    Hello. I have next control template in my WPF app. <Style TargetType="Label" x:Key="LabelStyle"> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="Label"> <Grid> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="40"/> <ColumnDefinition/> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <TextBox x:Name="MyTextBlock" Text="{TemplateBinding Content}" Height="20" HorizontalAlignment="Left" VerticalAlignment="Top" /> <Label Content="{TemplateBinding Content}" Grid.Column="1" Grid.Row="1"/> </Grid> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Style> TextBox "MyTextBlock" is invisible in C# code of window. How can I access to this textblock in code

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  • How to reset keyboard for an entry field?

    - by David.Chu.ca
    I am using tag field as a flag for text fields text view fields for auto-jumping to the next field: - (BOOL)findNextEntryFieldAsResponder:(UIControl *)field { BOOL retVal = NO; for (UIView* aView in mEntryFields) { if (aView.tag == (field.tag + 1)) { [aView becomeFirstResponder]; retVal = YES; break; } } return retVal; } It works fine in terms of auto-jumping to the next field when Next key is pressed. However, my case is that the keyboards are different some fields. For example, one fields is numeric & punctuation, and the next one is default (alphabetic keys). For the numeric & punctuation keyboard is OK, but the next field will stay as the same layout. It requires user to press 123 to go back ABC keyboard. I am not sure if there is any way to reset the keyboard for a field as its keyboard defined in xib? Not sure if there is any APIs available? I guess I have to do something is the following delegate? -(void)textFieldDidBegingEditing:(UITextField*) textField { // reset to the keyboard to request specific keyboard view? .... } OK. I found a solution close to my case by slatvik: -(void) textFieldDidBeginEditing:(UITextField*) textField { textField.keyboardType = UIKeybardTypeAlphabet; } However, in the case of the previous text fields is numeric, the keyboard stays numeric when auto-jumped to the next field. Is there any way to set keyboard to alphabet mode?

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  • Dom Traversal to Automate Keyboard Focus - Spatial Navigation

    - by Steve
    I'm going to start with a little background that will hopefully help my question make more sense. I am developing an application for a television. The concept is simple and basically works by overlaying a browser over the video plane of the TV. Now being a TV, there is no mouse or additional pointing device. All interaction is done through a remote control. Therefore, the user needs to be able to visually tell which element they are currently focused upon. To indicate that an element is focused, I currently append a colored transparent image over the element to indicate focus. Now, when a user hits the arrow keys, I need to respond by focusing on the correct elements according to the key pressed. So, if the down arrow is pressed I need to focus on the next focusable element in the DOM tree (which may be a child or sibling), and if they hit the up arrow, I need to respond to the previous element. This would essentially simulate spatial navigation within a browser. I am currently setting an attribute (focusable=true) on any DOM elements that should be able to receive focus. What I would like to do is determine the previous or next focusable element (i.e. attribute focusable=true) and apply focus to the element. I was hoping to traverse the DOM tree to determine the next and previously focusable elements, but I am not sure how to perform this in JQuery, or in general. I was leaning towards trying to use the JQuery tree travesal methods like next(), prev(), etc. What approach would you take to solve this type of issue? Thanks

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  • Always send certain values with an ajax request/post

    - by DZittersteyn
    I'm building a system that displays a list of user, and on selection of a user requests some form of password. These values are saved in a hidden field on the page, and need to be sent with every request as a form of authentication. (I'm aware of the MITM-vulnerability that lies herein, but it's a very low-key system, so security is not a large concern). Now I need to send these values with each and every request, to auth the currently 'logged in' user. I'd like to automate this, via ajaxSetup, however i'm running into some issues. My first try was: init_user_auth: function(){ $.ajaxSetup({ data: { 'user' : site_user.selected_user_id(), 'passcode': site_user.selected_user_pc(), 'barcode' : site_user.selected_user_bc() } }); }, However, as I should have known, this reads the values once, at the time of the call to ajaxSetup, and never rereads them. What I need is a way to actually call the functions every time an ajax-call is made. I'm currently trying to understand what is happening here: https://groups.google.com/forum/?fromgroups=#!topic/jquery-dev/OBcEfgvTJ9I, however through the flamewar and very low-level stuff going on there, I'm not exactly sure I get what is going on. Is this the way to proceed, or should I just face facts and manually add login-info to each ajax-call?

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  • Modeling Buyers & Sellers in a Rails Ecommerce App

    - by MikeH
    I'm building a Rails app that has Etsy.com style functionality. In other words, it's like a mall. There are many buyers and many sellers. I'm torn about how to model the sellers. Key facts: There won't be many sellers. Perhaps less than 20 sellers in total. There will be many buyers. Hopefully many thousands :) I already have a standard user model in place with account creation and roles. I've created a 'role' of 'seller', which the admin will manually apply to the proper users. Since we'll have very few sellers, this is not an issue. I'm considering two approaches: (1) Create a 'store' model, which will contain all the relevant store information. Products would :belong_to :store, rather than belonging to the seller. The relationship between the user and store models would be: user :has_one store. My main problem with this is that I've always found has_one associations to be a little funky, and I usually try to avoid them. The app is fairly complex, and I'm worried about running into a cascade of problems connected to the has_one association as I get further along into development. (2) Simply include the relevant 'store' information as part of the user model. But in this case, the store-related db columns would only apply to a very small percentage of users since very few users will also be sellers. I'm not sure if this is a valid concern or not. It's very possible that I'm thinking about this incorrectly. I appreciate any thoughts. Thanks.

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  • C++ ulong to class method pointer and back

    - by Simone Margaritelli
    Hi guys, I'm using a hash table (source code by Google Inc) to store some method pointers defined as: typedef Object *(Executor::*expression_delegate_t)( vframe_t *, Node * ); Where obviously "Executor" is the class. The function prototype to insert some value to the hash table is: hash_item_t *ht_insert( hash_table_t *ht, ulong key, ulong data ); So basically i'm doing the insert double casting the method pointer: ht_insert( table, ASSIGN, reinterpret_cast<ulong>( (void *)&Executor::onAssign ) ); Where table is defined as a 'hash_table_t *' inside the declaration of the Executor class, ASSIGN is an unsigned long value, and 'onAssign' is the method I have to map. Now, Executor::onAssign is stored as an unsigned long value, its address in memory I think, and I need to cast back the ulong to a method pointer. But this code: hash_item_t* item = ht_find( table, ASSIGN ); expression_delegate_t delegate = reinterpret_cast < expression_delegate_t > (item->data); Gives me the following compilation error : src/executor.cpp:45: error: invalid cast from type ‘ulong’ to type ‘Object* (Executor::*)(vframe_t*, Node*)’ I'm using GCC v4.4.3 on a x86 GNU/Linux machine. Any hints?

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  • Help on MySQL table indexing when GROUP BY is used in a query

    - by Silver Light
    Thank you for your attention. There are two INNODB tables: Table authors id INT nickname VARCHAR(50) status ENUM('active', 'blocked') about TEXT Table books author_id INT title VARCHAR(150) I'm running a query against these tables, to get each author and a count of books he has: SELECT a. * , COUNT( b.id ) AS book_count FROM authors AS a, books AS b WHERE a.status != 'blocked' AND b.author_id = a.id GROUP BY a.id ORDER BY a.nickname This query is very slow (takes about 6 seconds to execute). I have an index on books.author_id and it works perfectly, but I do not know how to create an index on authors table, so that this query could use it. Here is how current EXPLAIN looks: id select_type table type possible_keys key key_len ref rows Extra 1 SIMPLE a ALL PRIMARY,id_status_nickname NULL NULL NULL 3305 Using where; Using temporary; Using filesort 1 SIMPLE b ref key_author_id key_author_id 5 a.id 2 Using where; Using index I've looked at MySQL manual on optimizing queries with group by, but could not figure out how I can apply it on my query. I'll appreciate any help and hints on this - what must be the index structure, so that MySQL could use it?

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  • Mapping element via joining table with NHibernate

    - by NhibernateIdiot
    This is stuff ive done lots of times before but my mind is just blanking at the moment, i will try and give a simple overview of my current situation. I currently have 3 tables as shown below: Office > id, name Person > id, name Office_Personnel > office_id, person_id I then have a model for Person (id, name) and Office, however the Office model contains personnel information: public class Office { int Id {get;set;} string Name {get;set;} ICollection<Person> Personnel {get;set;} } Mapping person is easy, but now im a bit stumped as to why office wont map properly. I chose to use a set when I was mapping the Personnel as there shouldn't be any duplicates, however it doesn't seem to work as I would expect... <set name="Personnel" table="office_personnel" cascade="all"> <key column="office_id" /> <one-to-many class="Person"/> </set> Now one thing that strikes me as odd is that there is no indication as to what person should be binding to (person_id). It keeps trying to find *office_id* column within the Person table. I'm sure this is just some simple problem and im being an idiot, but any help would be great! On a side note, I was weighing up if I should even bother having a middle man table, as I could directly put an Office_Id column within the Person table, but im not 100% sure if in my real project the Person class could be in multiple Offices further down the line...

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  • Is there a Visual Studio (or freeware) equivalent for Expression Blend's "Edit Template" feature?

    - by DanM
    In Expression Blend, you can view and edit the control template of objects in the "Objects and Timeline" panel. I'm wondering if there's an equivalent feature in Visual Studio or if there's something free (or very inexpensive) I can download that will allow me to do this. Here's a screen cap from Expression Blend that shows what I'm talking about: Doing this for DataGrid results in the following: <Style x:Key="DataGridStyle1" TargetType="{x:Type Custom:DataGrid}"> ... <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type Custom:DataGrid}"> ... </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> <Style.Triggers> <Trigger Property="IsGrouping" Value="True"> <Setter Property="ScrollViewer.CanContentScroll" Value="False"/> </Trigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> (The ... is of course replaced with setters and the contents of the control template.) This is a very useful starting point if you want to create a custom style and template for a control. It seems like you can do pretty much anything you can do in Blend in Studio, but this one is eluding me. Any ideas? Edit I'm also curious if this feature will be in Visual Studio 2010. Anyone know?

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  • Android Google cloud messaging - not certain what parameters I should put when creating the push notification

    - by Genadinik
    I am working on a php script to send the notification to the CGM server and I am working from this example: public function send_notification($registatoin_ids, $message) { // include config include_once './config.php'; // Set POST variables $url = 'https://android.googleapis.com/gcm/send'; $fields = array( 'registration_ids' => $registatoin_ids, 'data' => $message, ); $headers = array( 'Authorization: key=' . GOOGLE_API_KEY, 'Content-Type: application/json' ); // Open connection $ch = curl_init(); // Set the url, number of POST vars, POST data curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HTTPHEADER, $headers); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, true); // Disabling SSL Certificate support temporarly curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER, false); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, json_encode($fields)); // Execute post $result = curl_exec($ch); if ($result === FALSE) { die('Curl failed: ' . curl_error($ch)); } // Close connection curl_close($ch); echo $result; } But I am not certain what the values should be for the variables: CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS , CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER , CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER , CURLOPT_HOST , CURLOPT_URL Would anyone happen to know what the values for these should be? Thank you!

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  • I can't get that `bus error` to stop sucking.

    - by Koning Baard XIV
    I have this a class called PPString: PPString.h #ifndef __CPP_PPString #define __CPP_PPString #include "PPObject.h" class PPString : public PPObject { char *stringValue[]; public: char *pointerToCharString(); void setCharString(char *charString[]); void setCharString(const char charString[]); }; #endif PPString.cpp #include "PPString.h" char *PPString::pointerToCharString() { return *stringValue; } void PPString::setCharString(char *charString[]) { *stringValue = *charString; } void PPString::setCharString(const char charString[]) { *stringValue = (char *)charString; } I'm trying to set the stringValue using std::cin: main.cpp PPString myString; myString.setCharString("LOLZ"); std::cout << myString.pointerToCharString() << std::endl; char *aa[1000]; std::cin >> *aa; myString.setCharString(aa); std::cout << myString.pointerToCharString() << std::endl; The first one, which uses a const char works, but the second one, with a char doesn't, and I get this output: copy and paste from STDOUT LOLZ im entering a string now... Bus error where the second line is what I entered, followed by pressing the return key. Can anyone help me fixing this? Thanks...

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  • How do I cast from int to generic type Integer?

    - by Rob Kent
    I'm relatively new to Java and am used to generics in C# so have struggled a bit with this code. Basically I want a generic method for getting a stored Android preference by key and this code, albeit ugly, works for a Boolean but not an Integer, when it blows up with a ClassCastException. Can anyone tell me why this is wrong and maybe help me improve the whole routine (using wildcards?)? public static <T> T getPreference(Class<T> argType, String prefKey, T defaultValue, SharedPreferences sharedPreferences) { ... try { if (argType == Boolean.class) { Boolean def = (Boolean) defaultValue; return argType.cast(sharedPreferences.getBoolean(prefKey, def)); } else if (argType == Integer.class) { Integer def = (Integer) defaultValue; return argType.cast(sharedPreferences.getInt(prefKey, def)); } else { AppGlobal.logWarning("getPreference: Unknown type '%s' for preference '%s'. Returning default value.", argType.getName(), prefKey); return defaultValue; } } catch (ClassCastException e) { AppGlobal.logError("Cast exception when reading pref %s. Using default value.", prefKey); return defaultValue; } } I've tried various ways - using the native int, casting to an Integer, but nothing works.

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  • What's the best practice for make username check like Twitter ?

    - by Space Cracker
    I develop registration form and it have username field, and it's required to be like twitter username check ( real time check ) .. i already develop as in every textbox key up I use jquery to pass textbox.Text to page that return if is username exist or not as following code : function Check() { var userName = $('#<%= TextBox1.ClientID %>').val(); if (userName.length < 3) { $('#checkUserNameDIV').html("user name must be between 3 and 20"); return; } $('#checkUserNameDIV').html('<img src="loader.gif" />'); //setTimeout("CheckExistance('" + userName + "')", 5000); CheckExistance(userName); } function CheckExistance(userName) { $.get( "JQueryPage.aspx", { name: userName }, function(result) { var msg = ""; if (result == "1") msg = "Not Exist " + '<img src="unOK.gif" />'; else if (result == "0") msg = "Exist" ; else if (result == "error") msg = "Error , try again"; $('#checkUserNameDIV').html(msg); } ); } but i don't know if is it the best way to do that ? specially i do check every keyup .. is there any design pattern for this problem or nay good practice for doing that ?

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  • Some ASP.NET and Access

    - by Fazleh
    Good Day all, I have a big problem but i think its minor for you guys in Stackoverflow. I am creating a web application that has two main parts. The Payment part and Requisition part. It backbone is using access and the script is in ASP.NET. I managed to sort out most of the application. But I have been having a few problems. I have pasted the link to the project in http://www.mediafire.com/download/p09fefreifidud3/Inyatsi.rar so it will be easy for someone to see what I am blabbing about. Now for my problems: The AddRequisition.aspx/AddPayment.aspx: both have a reference number. I wanted it to be unique number(but not a primary key). I wanted it to be in the following format: DDMMYY(TransactionNo)(UserID) eg: 24061101PK. I have tried and tried but have not been able to sort it out. The AmountINWords gets the value from Amount. It converts the Amount into words. Thats not all. It picks what currncy was picked in the CurrencyPaidIn and pust the respective currency inside. eg. 123.45 USD becomes One Hundred and twenty three dollars and forty five cents. I tried using queries but as you will see that went all wrong. Those are the only two things that I cant seem to get my head around. I do know that there are some things that are not conventional ASP.NET and some text boxes are not the right size. I was thinking of sorting out those after I get those two fixed because they are simple to do. I really need some help with this application please. If someone can just have a look at the code and add a few things here and there. Thanks in advance. Faz

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  • Custom progress bar label text via binding

    - by Alexander K
    I was playing with progress bar customization in Silverlight application. What I want to reach is to have progress bar label to show current its state in the following format: "Value / Maximum". So, user will see what is the current value, and what is the maximum possible value. Here is a style for progress bar I use: <Style x:Key="ProgressBarStyle" TargetType="ProgressBar"> <Setter Property="Width" Value="97.21" /> <Setter Property="Height" Value="19" /> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="ProgressBar"> <Canvas x:Name="LevelField" Width="99" Height="21"> ... <TextBlock ... DataContext="{TemplateBinding Value}" Text="{Binding Converter={StaticResource DecNumberToStringConverter}}"/> </Canvas> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Style> The way I want to implement this, is to have a value converter, that will convert current value and maximum possible into the proper string. It does work properly, if it is written like above. However, I also need to provide ConverterParameter for Convertor, but not sure how to make it. When I write like this: , ConvertParameter={Binding Maximum}, it shows error on start, that Text attribute is not found in TextBlock. I was also trying to set DataContext as {RelativeSource Self}, but then it didn't displays error that DataContext attribute is not found. How to make the described progress bar label properly?

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  • Automatically update php loop with data pulled from database

    - by John Svensson
    SQL STRUCTURE CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `map` ( `id` int(11) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `x` int(11) NOT NULL, `y` int(11) NOT NULL, `type` varchar(50) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 AUTO_INCREMENT=3 ; http://localhost/map.php?x=0&y=0 When I update the x and y via POST or GET, I would like to pull the new data from the database without refreshing the site, how would I manage that? Could someone give me some examples, because I am really stuck here. <?php mysql_connect('localhost', 'root', ''); mysql_select_db('hol'); $startX = $_GET['x']; $startY = $_GET['y']; $fieldHeight = 6; $fieldWidth = 6; $sql = "SELECT id, x, y, type FROM map WHERE x BETWEEN ".$startX." AND ".($startX+$fieldWidth). " AND y BETWEEN ".$startY." AND ".($startY+$fieldHeight); $result = mysql_query($sql); $positions = array(); while ($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($result)) { $positions[$row['x']][$row['y']] = $row; } echo "<table>"; for($y=$startY; $y<$startY+$fieldHeight; $y++) { echo "<tr>"; for($x=$startX; $x<$startX+$fieldWidth; $x++) { echo "<td>"; if(isset($positions[$x][$y])) { echo $positions[$x][$y]['type']; } else { echo "(".$x.",".$y.")"; } echo "</td>"; } echo "</tr>"; } echo "</table>"; ?>

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  • Is there a quality, file-size, or other benefit to JPEG sizes being multiples of 8px or 16px?

    - by davebug
    The JPEG compression encoding process splits a given image into blocks of 8x8 pixels, working with these blocks in future lossy and lossless compressions. [source] It is also mentioned that if the image is a multiple 1MCU block (defined as a Minimum Coded Unit, 'usually 16 pixels in both directions') that lossless alterations to a JPEG can be performed. [source] I am working with product images and would like to know both if, and how much benefit can be derived from using multiples of 16 in my final image size (say, using an image with size 480px by 360px) vs. a non-multiple of 16 (such as 484x362). In this example I am not interested in further alterations, editing, or recompression of the final image. To try to get closer to a specific answer where I know there must be largely generalities: Given a 480x360 image that is 64k and saved at maximum quality in Photoshop [example]: Can I expect any quality loss from an image that is 484x362 What amount of file size addition can I expect (for this example, the additional space would be white pixels) Are there any other disadvantages to growing larger than the 8px grid? I know it's arbitrary to use that specific example, but it would still be helpful (for me and potentially any others pondering an image size) to understand what level of compromise I'd be dealing with in breaking the non-8px grid. The key issue here is a debate I've had is whether 8-pixel divisible images are higher quality than images that are not divisible by 8-pixels.

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  • Querying using table-valued parameter

    - by antmx
    I need help please with writing a sproc, it takes a table-valued parameter @Locations, whose Type is defined as follows: CREATE TYPE [dbo].[tvpLocation] AS TABLE( [CountryId] [int] NULL, [ResortName] [nvarchar](100) NULL, [Ordinal] [int] NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [Ordinal] ASC )WITH (IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF) ) @Locations will contain at least 1 row. Each row WILL have a non-null CountryId, and MAY have a non-null ResortName. Each row will have a unique Ordinal, the first being 0. The combinations of CountryId and ResortName in @Locations will be unique. The sproc needs to search against the following table structure. The image can be seen better by right-clicking it and View Image, or similar depending on your browser. Now this is where I'm stuck, the sproc should be able to find Tours where: The Tour's 1st TourHotel (Ordinal 0) has the same CountryId (and ResortName if specified) of the 1st row of @Locations (Ordinal 0). And also if @Locations has 1 row, the Tour must have additional TourHotels, ALL of which must be in the remaining CountryIds (and ResortNames if specified) of these remaining @Locations rows. Edit This is the code I finally used, based on Anthony Faull's suggestion. Thank you so much Anthony: select distinct T.Id from tblTour T join tblTourHotel TH on TH.TourId = T.Id join tblHotel H ON H.Id = TH.HotelId JOIN @Locations L ON ( ( L.Ordinal = 0 AND TH.Ordinal = 0 ) OR ( L.Ordinal > 0 AND TH.Ordinal > 0 ) ) AND L.CountryId = H.CountryId AND ( L.ResortName = H.ResortName OR L.ResortName IS NULL ) cross apply( select COUNT(TH2.Id) AS [Count] FROM tblTourHotel TH2 where TH2.TourId = TH.TourId ) TourHotelCount where TourHotelCount.[Count] = @LocationCount group by T.Id, T.TourRef, T.Description, T.DepartureDate, T.NumNights, T.DepartureAirportId, T.DestinationAirportId, T.AirlineId, T.FEPrice having COUNT(distinct TH.Id) = @LocationCount

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  • Setting iphone to vibrate and setting iphone back to sound via app.

    - by Cadu
    Folks, I need your knowledge here. Think about the following sittuation - my app need to set my iphone to vibrate mode on a certain time and get it back to playing sounds mode (for call receiving, sms, email, all common sound notifications) some minutes later. I've already googled that, and didn't find a good, apple accetable way of doing that: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/736047/possible-to-programmatically-open-settings-app-from-iphone http://stackoverflow.com/questions/702319/is-it-possible-to-dynamically-alter-an-iphone-apps-settings-page-in-the-settings http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1141391/display-iphone-application-settings-within-your-application http://stackoverflow.com/questions/335965/how-do-i-launch-my-settings-bundle-from-my-application [This one here is interesting, as fas I as find a way to know what is the key for the settings I'm interested in] http://stackoverflow.com/questions/335965/how-do-i-launch-my-settings-bundle-from-my-application [It mentions I can do that, but does not give an idea of how =(] http://stackoverflow.com/questions/702319/is-it-possible-to-dynamically-alter-an-iphone-apps-settings-page-in-the-settings [If this is true, I wouldn't be able to do what I want...] Does anyone there has an idea of how do I do that via app? Many thanks in advance.

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  • Trouble managing events in Flex/actionscript

    - by Zaka
    Hello all, I'm doing some newbie tests, so I decided to capture the keyboard events to move a rectangle. But I don't get the desired result. Unless I click on the TextArea box, I'm not able to capture the event key code. After that, all goes pretty well. I'm using Eclipse 3.3 + Flex 3.0 on Linux. Here's my code: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" layout="absolute" enterFrame="enterFrame(event)" keyDown="onKeyDown(event)"> <mx:TextArea id="myText" x="200" y="200" width="100" height="100" /> <mx:Canvas id="myCanvas" x="0" y="0" width="100" height="100" /> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ public var clearColor : uint = 0xFF456798; public var myPoint : Point = new Point(0,0); public function enterFrame(event:Event):void { myCanvas.graphics.clear(); myCanvas.graphics.beginFill(0xFF344ff0); myCanvas.graphics.drawRect(myPoint.x,myPoint.y,40,40); myCanvas.graphics.endFill(); } public function onKeyDown(event:KeyboardEvent):void { myText.text = "Keycode is: " + event.keyCode + "\n"; switch(event.keyCode) { case 37: //Left myPoint.x -= 1; break; case 38: //Up myPoint.y -= 1; break; case 39: //Right myPoint.x += 1; break; case 40: //Down myPoint.y += 1; break; } } ]]> </mx:Script> </mx:Application>

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  • Followed the official android documentations but still could not use SQLite in app

    - by user366539
    My DBHelper class public class DBHelper extends SQLiteOpenHelper { public DBHelper(Context context) { super(context,"SIMPLE_DB",null,1); } @Override public void onCreate(SQLiteDatabase db) { db.execSQL("CREATE TABLE SIMPLE_TABLE ( " + "ID INTEGER PRIMARY KEY " + "DESC TEXT);"); } @Override public void onUpgrade(SQLiteDatabase db, int oldVersion, int newVersion) { } } Activity class public class SimpleDatabase extends Activity { /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); DBHelper dbHelper = new DBHelper(this); SQLiteDatabase db = dbHelper.getReadableDatabase(); db.execSQL("INSERT INTO SIMPLE_TABLE VALUES (NULL, 'test');"); Cursor cursor = db.rawQuery("SELECT * FROM SIMPLE_TABLE", null); TextView text = (TextView)findViewById(R.id.textbox); text.setText(cursor.getString(0)); } } I figure it crashed (application has stopped unexpectedly!) at SQLiteDatabase db = ... because if I commented the code out from there to the end then it worked fine. But I have no idea whatsoever why it does that. Any help would be appreciated.

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  • Formating a date field in the Model (Codeigniter)

    - by Landitus
    Hi, I', trying to re-format a date from a table in Codeigniter. The Controller is for a blog. I was succesfull when the date conversion happens in the View. I was hoping to convert the date in the Model to have things in order. This is the Model: class Novedades_model extends Model { function getAll() { $this->db->order_by('date','desc'); $query = $this->db->get('novedades'); if($query->num_rows() > 0) { foreach ($query->result() as $row) { $data[] = $row; } } return $data; } } This is part of the controller $this->load->model('novedades_model'); $data['records'] = $this->novedades_model->getAll(); Here's the date conversion as it happens in the View. This is inside the posts loop: <?php foreach($records as $row) : ?> <?php $fdate = "%d <abbr>%M</abbr> %Y"; $dateConv = mdate($fdate, mysql_to_unix($row->date)); ?> <div class="article section"> <span class="date"><?php echo $dateConv ;?></span> ... Keeps going ... How can I convert the date in the Model? Can I access the date key and refactor it?

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