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• Lightbox image / link URL

  - by GSTAR

  Basically I have a slightly non-standard implementation of FancyBox. By default you have to include a link to the large version of the image so that the Lightbox can display it. However, in my implementation, the image link URLs point to a script rather than directly to the image file. So for example, instead of: <a href="mysite/images/myimage.jpg" rel="gallery"> I have: <a href="mysite/photos/view/abc123" rel="gallery"> The above URL points to a function: public function actionPhotos($view) { $photo=Photo::model()->find('name=:name', array(':name'=>$view)); if(!empty($photo)) { $this->renderPartial('_photo', array('photo'=>$photo, true)); } } The "$this-renderPartial()" bit simply calls a layout file which includes a standard HTML tag to output. Now when the user clicks on a thumbnail, the above function is called and the large image is displayed in the Lightbox. Now if the user right clicks on the thumbnail and selects "open in new tab/window" then the image is displayed in the browser as per normal, i.e. just the image. I want to change this so that it displays the image within a layout. In the above code I can include the following and put it in an IF statement: $this->render('photos', array('photo'=>$photo)); This will call the layout file "photos" which contains the layout to display the image in. I have a specific limitation for this - the image URL must remain the same, i.e. no additional GET variables in the URL. However if we can pass in a GET variable in the background then that is OK. I will most likely need to change my function above so that it calls a different file for this functionality. EDIT: To demonstrate exactly what I am trying to do, check out the following: http://www.starnow.co.uk/KimberleyMarren Go to the photos tab and hover over a thumbnail - note the URL. Click the thumbnail and it will open up in the Lightbox. Next right click on that same thumbnail and select "open in new tab/new window". You will notice that the image is now displayed in a layout. So that same URL is used for displaying the image in the Lightbox and on its own page. The way StarNow have done this is using some crazy long JavaScript functionality, which I'm not too keen on replicating.

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• Getting results in a result set from dynamic SQL in Oracle

  - by msorens

  This question is similar to a couple others I have found on StackOverflow, but the differences are signficant enough to me to warrant a new question, so here it is: I want to obtain a result set from dynamic SQL in Oracle and then display it as a result set in a SqlDeveloper-like tool, just as if I had executed the dynamic SQL statement directly. This is straightforward in SQL Server, so to be concrete, here is an example from SQL Server that returns a result set in SQL Server Management Studio or Query Explorer: EXEC sp_executesql N'select * from countries' Or more properly: DECLARE @stmt nvarchar(100) SET @stmt = N'select * from countries' EXEC sp_executesql @stmt The question "How to return a resultset / cursor from a Oracle PL/SQL anonymous block that executes Dynamic SQL?" addresses the first half of the problem--executing dynamic SQL into a cursor. The question "How to make Oracle procedure return result sets" provides a similar answer. Web search has revealed many variations of the same theme, all addressing just the first half of my question. I found this post explaining how to do it in SqlDeveloper, but that uses a bit of functionality of SqlDeveloper. I am actually using a custom query tool so I need the solution to be self-contained in the SQL code. This custom query tool similarly does not have the capability to show output of print (dbms_output.put_line) statements; it only displays result sets. Here is yet one more possible avenue using 'execute immediate...bulk collect', but this example again renders the results with a loop of dbms_output.put_line statements. This link attempts to address the topic but the question never quite got answered there either. Assuming this is possible, I will add one more condition: I would like to do this without having to define a function or procedure (due to limited DB permissions). That is, I would like to execute a self-contained PL/SQL block containing dynamic SQL and return a result set in SqlDeveloper or a similar tool. So to summarize: I want to execute an arbitrary SQL statement (hence dynamic SQL). The platform is Oracle. The solution must be a PL/SQL block with no procedures or functions. The output must be generated as a canonical result set; no print statements. The output must render as a result set in SqlDeveloper without using any SqlDeveloper special functionality. Any suggestions?

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• T-SQL - Left Outer Joins - Filters in the where clause versus the on clause.

  - by Greg Potter

  I am trying to compare two tables to find rows in each table that is not in the other. Table 1 has a groupby column to create 2 sets of data within table one. groupby number ----------- ----------- 1 1 1 2 2 1 2 2 2 4 Table 2 has only one column. number ----------- 1 3 4 So Table 1 has the values 1,2,4 in group 2 and Table 2 has the values 1,3,4. I expect the following result when joining for Group 2: `Table 1 LEFT OUTER Join Table 2` T1_Groupby T1_Number T2_Number ----------- ----------- ----------- 2 2 NULL `Table 2 LEFT OUTER Join Table 1` T1_Groupby T1_Number T2_Number ----------- ----------- ----------- NULL NULL 3 The only way I can get this to work is if I put a where clause for the first join: PRINT 'Table 1 LEFT OUTER Join Table 2, with WHERE clause' select table1.groupby as [T1_Groupby], table1.number as [T1_Number], table2.number as [T2_Number] from table1 LEFT OUTER join table2 --****************************** on table1.number = table2.number --****************************** WHERE table1.groupby = 2 AND table2.number IS NULL and a filter in the ON for the second: PRINT 'Table 2 LEFT OUTER Join Table 1, with ON clause' select table1.groupby as [T1_Groupby], table1.number as [T1_Number], table2.number as [T2_Number] from table2 LEFT OUTER join table1 --****************************** on table2.number = table1.number AND table1.groupby = 2 --****************************** WHERE table1.number IS NULL Can anyone come up with a way of not using the filter in the on clause but in the where clause? The context of this is I have a staging area in a database and I want to identify new records and records that have been deleted. The groupby field is the equivalent of a batchid for an extract and I am comparing the latest extract in a temp table to a the batch from yesterday stored in a partioneds table, which also has all the previously extracted batches as well. Code to create table 1 and 2: create table table1 (number int, groupby int) create table table2 (number int) insert into table1 (number, groupby) values (1, 1) insert into table1 (number, groupby) values (2, 1) insert into table1 (number, groupby) values (1, 2) insert into table2 (number) values (1) insert into table1 (number, groupby) values (2, 2) insert into table2 (number) values (3) insert into table1 (number, groupby) values (4, 2) insert into table2 (number) values (4) EDIT: A bit more context - depending on where I put the filter I different results. As stated above the where clause gives me the correct result in one state and the ON in the other. I am looking for a consistent way of doing this. Where - select table1.groupby as [T1_Groupby], table1.number as [T1_Number], table2.number as [T2_Number] from table1 LEFT OUTER join table2 --****************************** on table1.number = table2.number --****************************** WHERE table1.groupby = 2 AND table2.number IS NULL Result: T1_Groupby T1_Number T2_Number ----------- ----------- ----------- 2 2 NULL On - select table1.groupby as [T1_Groupby], table1.number as [T1_Number], table2.number as [T2_Number] from table1 LEFT OUTER join table2 --****************************** on table1.number = table2.number AND table1.groupby = 2 --****************************** WHERE table2.number IS NULL Result: T1_Groupby T1_Number T2_Number ----------- ----------- ----------- 1 1 NULL 2 2 NULL 1 2 NULL Where (table 2 this time) - select table1.groupby as [T1_Groupby], table1.number as [T1_Number], table2.number as [T2_Number] from table2 LEFT OUTER join table1 --****************************** on table2.number = table1.number AND table1.groupby = 2 --****************************** WHERE table1.number IS NULL Result: T1_Groupby T1_Number T2_Number ----------- ----------- ----------- NULL NULL 3 On - select table1.groupby as [T1_Groupby], table1.number as [T1_Number], table2.number as [T2_Number] from table2 LEFT OUTER join table1 --****************************** on table2.number = table1.number --****************************** WHERE table1.number IS NULL AND table1.groupby = 2 Result: T1_Groupby T1_Number T2_Number ----------- ----------- ----------- (0) rows returned

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• LinearLayout - How to get text to be on the right of an icon?

  - by RED_

  Hi there, Bit of a newbie when it comes to android, only been working on it properly for a few days but even after all the searching I've done im stumped and nobody seems to know how to help me. I have this so far: http://img263.imageshack.us/i/sellscreen.jpg How can I move the text to be besides each icon rather than underneath it? Hoping the gallery won't be moved either. Here is the code i have: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <ScrollView xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:id="@+id/scroller" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:fillViewport="true" > <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:orientation="vertical" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" > <Gallery xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:id="@+id/gallery" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content"/> <ImageView android:id="@+id/test_image" android:src="@drawable/icon" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content"/> <TextView android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="The offcial UK driving theory test application. Over 190 questions." /> <ImageView android:id="@+id/test_image" android:src="@drawable/icon" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content"/> <TextView android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="The offcial UK driving theory test application. Over 190 questions."/> <ImageView android:id="@+id/test_image" android:src="@drawable/icon" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content"/> <TextView android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="The offcial UK driving theory test application. Over 190 questions."/> <ImageView android:id="@+id/test_image" android:src="@drawable/icon" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content"/> <TextView android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="The offcial UK driving theory test application. Over 190 questions."/> <ImageView android:id="@+id/test_image" android:src="@drawable/icon" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" /> <TextView android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="The offcial UK driving theory test application. Over 190 questions." /> </LinearLayout> </ScrollView> Top half of my code doesn't seem to be showing for some reason but it's just the opening of the linear layout. I will be forever grateful to anyone that can help, i've been racking my brains for days and getting nowhere. Really getting stressed out by it. Thanks in advance!!

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• Learning Treetop

  - by cmartin

  I'm trying to teach myself Ruby's Treetop grammar generator. I am finding that not only is the documentation woefully sparse for the "best" one out there, but that it doesn't seem to work as intuitively as I'd hoped. On a high level, I'd really love a better tutorial than the on-site docs or the video, if there is one. On a lower level, here's a grammar I cannot get to work at all: grammar SimpleTest rule num (float / integer) end rule float ( (( '+' / '-')? plain_digits '.' plain_digits) / (( '+' / '-')? plain_digits ('E' / 'e') plain_digits ) / (( '+' / '-')? plain_digits '.') / (( '+' / '-')? '.' plain_digits) ) { def eval text_value.to_f end } end rule integer (( '+' / '-' )? plain_digits) { def eval text_value.to_i end } end rule plain_digits [0-9] [0-9]* end end When I load it and run some assertions in a very simple test object, I find: assert_equal @parser.parse('3.14').eval,3.14 Works fine, while assert_equal @parser.parse('3').eval,3 raises the error: NoMethodError: private method `eval' called for # If I reverse integer and float on the description, both integers and floats give me this error. I think this may be related to limited lookahead, but I cannot find any information in any of the docs to even cover the idea of evaluating in the "or" context A bit more info that may help. Here's pp information for both those parse() blocks. The float: SyntaxNode+Float4+Float0 offset=0, "3.14" (eval,plain_digits): SyntaxNode offset=0, "" SyntaxNode+PlainDigits0 offset=0, "3": SyntaxNode offset=0, "3" SyntaxNode offset=1, "" SyntaxNode offset=1, "." SyntaxNode+PlainDigits0 offset=2, "14": SyntaxNode offset=2, "1" SyntaxNode offset=3, "4": SyntaxNode offset=3, "4" The Integer... note that it seems to have been defined to follow the integer rule, but not caught the eval() method: SyntaxNode+Integer0 offset=0, "3" (plain_digits): SyntaxNode offset=0, "" SyntaxNode+PlainDigits0 offset=0, "3": SyntaxNode offset=0, "3" SyntaxNode offset=1, "" Update: I got my particular problem working, but I have no clue why: rule integer ( '+' / '-' )? plain_digits { def eval text_value.to_i end } end This makes no sense with the docs that are present, but just removing the extra parentheses made the match include the Integer1 class as well as Integer0. Integer1 is apparently the class holding the eval() method. I have no idea why this is the case. I'm still looking for more info about treetop.

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• How to run an application as root without asking for an admin password?

  - by kvaruni

  I am writing a program in Objective-C (XCode 3.2, on Snow Leopard) that is capable of either selectively blocking certain sites for a duration or only allow certain sites (and thus block all others) for a duration. The reasoning behind this program is rather simple. I tend to get distracted when I have full internet access, but I do need internet access during my working hours to get to a number of work-related websites. Clearly, this is not a permanent block, but only helps me to focus whenever I find myself wandering a bit too much. At the moment, I am using a Unix script that is called via AppleScript to obtain Administrator permissions. It then activates a number of ipfw rules and clears those after a specific duration to restore full internet access. Simple and effective, but since I am running as a standard user, it gets cumbersome to enter my administrator password each and every time I want to go "offline". Furthermore, this is a great opportunity to learn to work with XCode and Objective-C. At the moment, everything works as expected, minus the actual blocking. I can add a number of sites in a list, specify whether or not I want to block or allow these websites and I can "start" the blocking by specifying a time until which I want to stay "offline". However, I find it hard to obtain clear information on how I can run a privileged Unix command from Objective-C. Ideally, I would like to be able to store information with respect to the Administrator account into the Keychain to use these later on, so that I can simply move into "offline" mode with the convenience of clicking a button. Even more ideally, there might be some class in Objective-C with which I can block access to some/all websites for this particular user without needing to rely on privileged Unix commands. A third possibility is in starting this program with root permissions and the reducing the permissions until I need them, but since this is a GUI application that is nested in the menu bar of OS X, the results are rather awkward and getting it to run each and every time with root permission is no easy task. Anyone who can offer me some pointers or advice? Please, no security-warnings, I am fully aware that what I want to do is a potential security threat.

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• C# Begin/EndReceive - how do I read large data?

  - by ryeguy

  When reading data in chunks of say, 1024, how do I continue to read from a socket that receives a message bigger than 1024 bytes until there is no data left? Should I just use BeginReceive to read a packet's length prefix only, and then once that is retrieved, use Receive() (in the async thread) to read the rest of the packet? Or is there another way? edit: I thought Jon Skeet's link had the solution, but there is a bit of a speedbump with that code. The code I used is: public class StateObject { public Socket workSocket = null; public const int BUFFER_SIZE = 1024; public byte[] buffer = new byte[BUFFER_SIZE]; public StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); } public static void Read_Callback(IAsyncResult ar) { StateObject so = (StateObject) ar.AsyncState; Socket s = so.workSocket; int read = s.EndReceive(ar); if (read > 0) { so.sb.Append(Encoding.ASCII.GetString(so.buffer, 0, read)); if (read == StateObject.BUFFER_SIZE) { s.BeginReceive(so.buffer, 0, StateObject.BUFFER_SIZE, 0, new AyncCallback(Async_Send_Receive.Read_Callback), so); return; } } if (so.sb.Length > 0) { //All of the data has been read, so displays it to the console string strContent; strContent = so.sb.ToString(); Console.WriteLine(String.Format("Read {0} byte from socket" + "data = {1} ", strContent.Length, strContent)); } s.Close(); } Now this corrected works fine most of the time, but it fails when the packet's size is a multiple of the buffer. The reason for this is if the buffer gets filled on a read it is assumed there is more data; but the same problem happens as before. A 2 byte buffer, for exmaple, gets filled twice on a 4 byte packet, and assumes there is more data. It then blocks because there is nothing left to read. The problem is that the receive function doesn't know when the end of the packet is. This got me thinking to two possible solutions: I could either have an end-of-packet delimiter or I could read the packet header to find the length and then receive exactly that amount (as I originally suggested). There's problems with each of these, though. I don't like the idea of using a delimiter, as a user could somehow work that into a packet in an input string from the app and screw it up. It also just seems kinda sloppy to me. The length header sounds ok, but I'm planning on using protocol buffers - I don't know the format of the data. Is there a length header? How many bytes is it? Would this be something I implement myself? Etc.. What should I do?

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• RSpec mocking a nested model in Rails - ActionController problem

  - by emson

  Hi All I am having a problem in RSpec when my mock object is asked for a URL by the ActionController. The URL is a Mock one and not a correct resource URL. I am running RSpec 1.3.0 and Rails 2.3.5 Basically I have two models. Where a subject has many notes. class Subject < ActiveRecord::Base validates_presence_of :title has_many :notes end class Note < ActiveRecord::Base validates_presence_of :title belongs_to :subject end My routes.rb file nests these two resources as such: ActionController::Routing::Routes.draw do |map| map.resources :subjects, :has_many => :notes end The NotesController.rb file looks like this: class NotesController < ApplicationController # POST /notes # POST /notes.xml def create @subject = Subject.find(params[:subject_id]) @note = @subject.notes.create!(params[:note]) respond_to do |format| format.html { redirect_to(@subject) } end end end Finally this is my RSpec spec which should simply post my mocked objects to the NotesController and be executed... which it does: it "should create note and redirect to subject without javascript" do # usual rails controller test setup here subject = mock(Subject) Subject.stub(:find).and_return(subject) notes_proxy = mock('association proxy', { "create!" => Note.new }) subject.stub(:notes).and_return(notes_proxy) post :create, :subject_id => subject, :note => { :title => 'note title', :body => 'note body' } end The problem is that when the RSpec post method is called. The NotesController correctly handles the Mock Subject object, and create! the new Note object. However when the NoteController#Create method tries to redirect_to I get the following error: NoMethodError in 'NotesController should create note and redirect to subject without javascript' undefined method `spec_mocks_mock_url' for #<NotesController:0x1034495b8> Now this is caused by a bit of Rails trickery that passes an ActiveRecord object (@subject, in our case, which isn't ActiveRecord but a Mock object), eventually to url_for who passes all the options to the Rails' Routing, which then determines the URL. My question is how can I mock Subject so that the correct options are passed so that I my test passes. I've tried passing in :controller = 'subjects' options but no joy. Is there some other way of doing this? Thanks...

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• Java Hardware Acceleration

  - by Freezerburn

  I have been spending some time looking into the hardware acceleration features of Java, and I am still a bit confused as none of the sites that I found online directly and clearly answered some of the questions I have. So here are the questions I have for hardware acceleration in Java: 1) In Eclipse version 3.6.0, with the most recent Java update for Mac OS X (1.6u10 I think), is hardware acceleration enabled by default? I read somewhere that someCanvas.getGraphicsConfiguration().getBufferCapabilities().isPageFlipping() is supposed to give an indication of whether or not hardware acceleration is enabled, and my program reports back true when that is run on my main Canvas instance for drawing to. If my hardware acceleration is not enabled now, or by default, what would I have to do to enable it? 2) I have seen a couple articles here and there about the difference between a BufferedImage and VolatileImage, mainly saying that VolatileImage is the hardware accelerated image and is stored in VRAM for fast copy-from operations. However, I have also found some instances where BufferedImage is said to be hardware accelerated as well. Is BufferedImage hardware accelerated as well in my environment? What would be the advantage of using a VolatileImage if both types are hardware accelerated? My main assumption for the advantage of having a VolatileImage in the case of both having acceleration is that VolatileImage is able to detect when its VRAM has been dumped. But if BufferedImage also support acceleration now, would it not have the same kind of detection built into it as well, just hidden from the user, in case that the memory is dumped? 3) Is there any advantage to using someGraphicsConfiguration.getCompatibleImage/getCompatibleVolatileImage() as opposed to ImageIO.read() In a tutorial I have been reading for some general concepts about setting up the rendering window properly (tutorial) it uses the getCompatibleImage method, which I believe returns a BufferedImage, to get their "hardware accelerated" images for fast drawing, which ties into question 2 about if it is hardware accelerated. 4) This is less hardware acceleration, but it is something I have been curious about: do I need to order which graphics get drawn? I know that when using OpenGL via C/C++ it is best to make sure that the same graphic is drawn in all the locations it needs to be drawn at once to reduce the number of times the current texture needs to be switch. From what I have read, it seems as if Java will take care of this for me and make sure things are drawn in the most optimal fashion, but again, nothing has ever said anything like this clearly. 5) What AWT/Swing classes support hardware acceleration, and which ones should be used? I am currently using a class that extends JFrame to create a window, and adding a Canvas to it from which I create a BufferStrategy. Is this good practice, or is there some other type of way I should be implementing this? Thank you very much for your time, and I hope I provided clear questions and enough information for you to answer my several questions.

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• Why does UIWebKit throw a structuralComplexityContribution exception?

  - by Axeva

  I've got a simple UIWebView in my iPhone app that's loading a XHTML document with some SGV embeded. This all works find on the desktop version of Safari, but it crashes in a UIWebView. Here is the Objective C: NSString *path = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"test" ofType:@"html"]; NSData *fileData = [NSData dataWithContentsOfFile: path]; [svgView loadData: fileData MIMEType: @"text/xml" textEncodingName: @"UTF-8" baseURL: [NSURL fileURLWithPath: path]]; I also tried a MIMEType of application/xhtml+xml, but it didn't help. Here is the HTML: <!DOCTYPE html> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <title>XTech SVG Demo</title> </head> <body> <svg xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg"> <g style="fill-opacity:0.7;"> <circle cx="6.5cm" cy="2cm" r="100" style="fill:red; stroke:black; stroke-width:0.1cm" transform="translate(0,50)" /> <circle cx="6.5cm" cy="2cm" r="100" style="fill:blue; stroke:black; stroke-width:0.1cm" transform="translate(70,150)" /> <circle cx="6.5cm" cy="2cm" r="100" style="fill:green; stroke:black; stroke-width:0.1cm" transform="translate(-70,150)"/> </g> </svg> </body> </html> All very basic stuff. When it loads on the iPhone, however, it crashes with this error: 2010-03-31 10:37:10.252 ColorDoodle[2014:20b] -[DOMElement structuralComplexityContribution]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x3e51b60 2010-03-31 10:37:10.253 ColorDoodle[2014:20b] Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: ' -[DOMElement structuralComplexityContribution]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x3e51b60' Any idea why? Is this a bug in the rendering engine of the UIWebView? I don't see anything too odd here. * Updated * There is definitely something screwy going on here. If I add this bit of code just inside the tag, it works fine: <form> </form> Take that code back out, and it crashes again.

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• SVN directories not showing up in localhost when using WAMP

  - by JsusSalv

  Hi: I recently installed WAMP for actual local use. I've worked on live development servers but now am working on localhost. I've managed to get multiple virtual hosts setup on my WAMP/Vista 64-bit box but am having difficulty with directories pulled from SVN. I have four vhosts setup. Two work well and they are not tied to any SVN just yet. I'm also using TortoiseSVN in case it makes any difference. However, the other projects are coming from SVN repositories. When I view these two projects I get the following error: Internal Server Error The server encountered an internal error or misconfiguration and was unable to complete your request. Please contact the server administrator, admin@localhost and inform them of the time the error occurred, and anything you might have done that may have caused the error. More information about this error may be available in the server error log. The way I setup the vhosts is as follows: httpd.conf # Multiple Virtual Hosts <VirtualHost 127.0.0.1> ServerName localhost DocumentRoot "C:/wamp/www/" </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost 127.0.1.0> ServerName testone.local DocumentRoot "C:/wamp/www/root/projectone/" </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost 127.0.2.0> ServerName testtwo.local DocumentRoot "C:/wamp/www/root/projecttwo/" </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost 127.0.3.0> ServerName testthree.local DocumentRoot "C:/wamp/www/root/projectthree/" </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost 127.0.3.1> ServerName testfour.local DocumentRoot "C:/wamp/www/root/projectfour/" </VirtualHost> And here's the 'hosts' file: # Localhost 127.0.0.1 localhost ::1 localhost # Project One 127.0.1.0 testone.local # Project Two 127.0.2.0 testtwo.local # Project Three 127.0.3.0 testthree.local # Project Four 127.0.3.1 testfour.local Everything works just fine. So if you want to tell me I'm doing something wrong then by all means point out a few things. But as it stands, it works and I'm content using different IPs and/or named-based vhosts. The problem comes in not being able to see the directories and files in the projects that are tied to an SVN. Whenever I visit http://testxxxx.local I get the error message at the top of this post. Please provide some suggestions. Thank you!

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• "Alert" and "if" changes behaviour of dom copying from iframe to div

  - by lowkey

  Hi guys! Tried to make a little old school ajax (iframe-javascript) script. A bit of mootools is used for DOM navigation Description: HTML: 1 iframe called "buffer" 1 div called "display" JAVASCRIPT: (short: copy iframe content into a div on the page) 1) onLoad on iframe triggers handler(), a counter makes sure it only run once (this is because otherwise firefox will go into feedback loop. What i think happens: iframe on load handler() copyBuffer change src of iframe , and firefox takes that as an onload again) 2) copybuffer() is called, it sets src of iframe then copies iframe content into div, then erases iframe content THE CODE: count=0; function handler(){ if (count==0){ copyBuffer(); count++; } } function copyBuffer(){ $('buffer').set('src','http://www.somelink.com/'); if (window.frames['buffer'] && $('display') ) { $('display').innerHTML = window.frames['buffer'].document.body.innerHTML; window.frames['buffer'].document.body.innerHTML=""; } } problems: QUESTION 1) nothing happens, the content is not loaded into the div. But if i either: A) remove the counter and let the script run in a feedback loop: the content is suddenly copied into the div, but off course there is a feedback loop going on, you can see it keeps loading in the status bar. OR B) insert an alert in the copyBuffer function. The content is copied, without the feedback loop. why does this happen? QUESTION 2) The If wrapped around the copying code i got from a source on the internet. I am not sure what it does? If i remove it the code does not work in: Safari and Chrome. Many thanks in advance! UPDATE: Like the answers said i have created an event handler. They used jQuery, i have made one in mootools: window.addEvent('domready', function() { $('buffer').addEvent('load', function(){ $('display').set('html',window.frames['buffer'].document.body.innerHTML) window.frames['buffer'].document.body.innerHTML=""; }).set('src','somelink'); }); Bonus question: 3) Im new at stackoverflow (what an amazing place!), is it better if i make new threads for follow up questions?

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• Event Listener in Google Charts API

  - by DeanGrobler

  I'm busy using Google Charts in one of my projects to display data in a table. Everything is working great. Except that I need to see what line a user selected once they click a button. This would obviously be done with Javascript, but I've been struggling for days now to no avail. Below I've pasted code for a simple example of the table, and the Javascript function that I want to use (that doesn't work). <html> <head> <script type='text/javascript' src='https://www.google.com/jsapi'></script> <script type='text/javascript'> google.load('visualization', '1', {packages:['table']}); google.setOnLoadCallback(drawTable); var table = ""; function drawTable() { var data = new google.visualization.DataTable(); data.addColumn('string', 'Name'); data.addColumn('number', 'Salary'); data.addColumn('boolean', 'Full Time Employee'); data.addRows(4); data.setCell(0, 0, 'Mike'); data.setCell(0, 1, 10000, '$10,000'); data.setCell(0, 2, true); data.setCell(1, 0, 'Jim'); data.setCell(1, 1, 8000, '$8,000'); data.setCell(1, 2, false); data.setCell(2, 0, 'Alice'); data.setCell(2, 1, 12500, '$12,500'); data.setCell(2, 2, true); data.setCell(3, 0, 'Bob'); data.setCell(3, 1, 7000, '$7,000'); data.setCell(3, 2, true); table = new google.visualization.Table(document.getElementById('table_div')); table.draw(data, {showRowNumber: true}); } function selectionHandler() { selectedData = table.getSelection(); row = selectedData[0].row; item = table.getValue(row,0); alert("You selected :" + item); } </script> </head> <body> <div id='table_div'></div> <input type="button" value="Select" onClick="selectionHandler()"> </body> </html> Thanks in advance for anyone taking the time to look at this. I've honestly tried my best with this, hope someone out there can help me out a bit.

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• SQL CLR Stored Procedure and Web Service

  - by Nathan

  I am current working on a task in which I am needing to call a method in a web service from a CLR stored procedure. A bit of background: Basically, I have a task that requires ALOT of crunching. If done strictly in SQL, it takes somewhere around 30-45 mins to process. If I pull the same process into code, I can get it complete in seconds due to being able to optimize the processing so much more efficiently. The only problem is that I have to have this process set as an automated task in SQL Server. In that vein, I have exposed the process as a web service (I use it for other things as well) and want the SQL CLR sproc to consume the service and execute the code. This allows me to have my automated task. The problem: I have read quite a few different topics regarding how to consume a web service in a CLR Sproc and have done so effectivly. Here is an example of what I have followed. http://blog.hoegaerden.be/2008/11/11/calling-a-web-service-from-sql-server-2005/ I can get this example working without any issues. However, whenever I pair this process w/ a Web Service method that involves a database call, I get the following exceptions (depending upon whether or not I wrap in a try / catch): Msg 10312, Level 16, State 49, Procedure usp_CLRRunDirectSimulationAndWriteResults, Line 0 .NET Framework execution was aborted. The UDP/UDF/UDT did not revert thread token. or Msg 6522, Level 16, State 1, Procedure MyStoredProc , Line 0 A .NET Framework error occurred during execution of user defined routine or aggregate 'MyStoredProc': System.Security.SecurityException: Request for the permission of type 'System.Security.Permissions.EnvironmentPermission, mscorlib, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089' failed. System.Security.SecurityException: at System.Security.CodeAccessSecurityEngine.Check(Object demand, StackCrawlMark& stackMark, Boolean isPermSet) at System.Security.CodeAccessPermission.Demand() at System.Net.CredentialCache.get_DefaultCredentials() at System.Web.Services.Protocols.WebClientProtocol.set_UseDefaultCredentials(Boolean value) at MyStoredProc.localhost.MPWebService.set_UseDefaultCredentials(Boolean Value) at MyStoredProclocalhost.MPWebService..ctor() at MyStoredProc.StoredProcedures.MyStoredProc(String FromPostCode, String ToPostCode) I am sure this is a permission issue, but I can't, for the life of me get it working. I have attempted using impersonation in the CLR sproc and a few other things. Any suggestions? What am I missing?

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• Using perl to parse a file and insert specific values into a database

  - by Sean

  Disclaimer: I'm a newbie at scripting in perl, this is partially a learning exercise (but still a project for work). Also, I have a much stronger grasp on shell scripting, so my examples will likely be formatted in that mindset (but I would like to create them in perl). Sorry in advance for my verbosity, I want to make sure I am at least marginally clear in getting my point across I have a text file (a reference guide) that is a Word document converted to text then swapped from Windows to UNIX format in Notepad++. The file is uniform in that each section of the file had the same fields/formatting/tables. What I have planned to do, in a basic way is grab each section, keyed by unique batch job names and place all of the values into a database (or maybe just an excel file) so all the fields can be searched/edited for each job much easier than in the word file and possibly create a web interface later on. So what I want to do is grab each section by doing something like: sed -n '/job_name_1_regex/,/job_name_2_regex/' file.txt --how would this be formatted within a perl script? (grab the section in total, then break it down further from there) To read the file in the script I have open FORMAT_FILE, 'test_format.txt'; and then use foreach $line (<FORMAT_FILE>) to parse the file line by line. --is there a better way? My next problem is that since I converted from a word doc with tables, which looks like: Table Heading 1 Table Heading 2 Heading 1/Value 1 Heading 2/Value 1 Heading 1/Value 2 Heading 2/Value 2 but the text file it looks like: Table Heading 1 Table Heading 2Heading 1/Value 1Heading 1/Value 2Heading 2/Value 1Heading 2/Value 2 So I want to have "Heading 1" and "Heading 2" as a columns name and then put the respective values there. I just am not sure how to get the values in relation to the heading from the text file. The values of Heading 1 will always be the line number of Heading 1 plus 2 (Heading 1, Heading 2, Values for heading 1). I know this can be done in awk/sed pretty easily, just not sure how to address it inside a perl script. After I have all the right values and such, linking it up to a database may be an issue as well, I haven't started looking at the way perl interacts with DBs yet. Sorry if this is a bit scatterbrained...it's still not fully formed in my head.

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• emulator crashes

  - by Dave

  I am setting up an Android environment for the first time on Eclipse. I have many years of Eclipse experience, but new to Android. This is being done on an Apple Mac Mini, running MacOSX 10.6.3. I am using the latest Eclipse Classic, version 3.5.2. I am trying to get the tiny hello world program running. When I run it, I get the following in the console window of Eclipse: [2010-06-12 13:48:08 - HelloAndroid] Automatic Target Mode: launching new emulator with compatible AVD 'Android2.2AVD' [2010-06-12 13:48:08 - HelloAndroid] Launching a new emulator with Virtual Device 'Android2.2AVD' [2010-06-12 13:48:11 - HelloAndroid] New emulator found: emulator-5554 [2010-06-12 13:48:11 - HelloAndroid] Waiting for HOME ('android.process.acore') to be launched... [2010-06-12 13:48:12 - Emulator] 2010-06-12 13:48:12.783 emulator[50495:903] Warning once: This application, or a library it uses, is using NSQuickDrawView, which has been deprecated. Apps should cease use of QuickDraw and move to Quartz. [2010-06-12 13:48:19 - HelloAndroid] emulator-5554 disconnected! Cancelling 'com.example.helloandroid.HelloAndroid activity launch'! The emulator crashes with the following info. I have followed all the instructions for running the hello world sample. Anyone have any ideas? Process: emulator [50398] Path: /Users/jeremy/android-sdk-mac_86/tools/emulator Identifier: emulator Version: ??? (???) Code Type: X86 (Native) Parent Process: eclipse [50388] Date/Time: 2010-06-12 13:28:38.595 -0400 OS Version: Mac OS X 10.6.3 (10D573) Report Version: 6 Interval Since Last Report: 363037 sec Crashes Since Last Report: 9 Per-App Crashes Since Last Report: 7 Exception Type: EXC_BAD_ACCESS (SIGSEGV) Exception Codes: KERN_INVALID_ADDRESS at 0x00000000007fd000 Crashed Thread: 4 Thread 0: Dispatch queue: com.apple.main-thread 0 emulator 0x000eed4e helper_set_cp15 + 30 Thread 1: 0 libSystem.B.dylib 0x9020bbd2 __workq_kernreturn + 10 1 libSystem.B.dylib 0x9020c168 _pthread_wqthread + 941 2 libSystem.B.dylib 0x9020bd86 start_wqthread + 30 Thread 2: Dispatch queue: com.apple.libdispatch-manager 0 libSystem.B.dylib 0x9020cb42 kevent + 10 1 libSystem.B.dylib 0x9020d25c _dispatch_mgr_invoke + 215 2 libSystem.B.dylib 0x9020c719 _dispatch_queue_invoke + 163 3 libSystem.B.dylib 0x9020c4be _dispatch_worker_thread2 + 240 4 libSystem.B.dylib 0x9020bf41 _pthread_wqthread + 390 5 libSystem.B.dylib 0x9020bd86 start_wqthread + 30 Thread 3: 0 libSystem.B.dylib 0x901e635a semaphore_timedwait_signal_trap + 10 1 libSystem.B.dylib 0x90213ea1 _pthread_cond_wait + 1066 2 libSystem.B.dylib 0x90242a28 pthread_cond_timedwait_relative_np + 47 3 com.apple.audio.CoreAudio 0x9056f965 CAGuard::WaitFor(unsigned long long) + 219 4 com.apple.audio.CoreAudio 0x90572997 CAGuard::WaitUntil(unsigned long long) + 289 5 com.apple.audio.CoreAudio 0x90570294 HP_IOThread::WorkLoop() + 1892 6 com.apple.audio.CoreAudio 0x9056fb2b HP_IOThread::ThreadEntry(HP_IOThread*) + 17 7 com.apple.audio.CoreAudio 0x9056fa42 CAPThread::Entry(CAPThread*) + 140 8 libSystem.B.dylib 0x90213a19 _pthread_start + 345 9 libSystem.B.dylib 0x9021389e thread_start + 34 Thread 4 Crashed: 0 emulator 0x00040380 audioInDeviceIOProc + 96 Thread 4 crashed with X86 Thread State (32-bit): eax: 0x00000000 ebx: 0x007fd000 ecx: 0x000001fe edx: 0x0198f3f0 edi: 0x00000200 esi: 0x01119850 ebp: 0x01119800 esp: 0xb020fad0 ss: 0x0000001f efl: 0x00010212 eip: 0x00040380 cs: 0x00000017 ds: 0x0000001f es: 0x0000001f fs: 0x0000001f gs: 0x00000037 cr2: 0x007fd000

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• What is the best way to archive data in a relational database?

  - by GenericTypeTea

  I have a bit of an issue with a particular aspect of a program I'm working on. I need the ability to archive (fix) a table so that a change anywhere in the system will not affect the results it returns. This is the basic structure of what I need to fix: Recipe --> Recipe (as sub recipe) Recipe --> Ingredients So, if I fix a Recipe, I need to ensure all the sub recipes (including all the sub recipes sub recipes and so forth) are fixed and all its ingredients are fixed. The problem is that the sub recipe and ingredients still need to be modifiable as they are used by other recipes that are not fixed. I came up with a solution whereby I serialize (with protobuf-net) a master object that deals with the recipe and all the sub recipes and ingredients and save the archive data to a table like follows: Archive{ ReferenceId, (i.e. RecipeId) ReferenceTypeId, (i.e. Recipe) ArchiveData varbinary(max) } Now, this works great and is almost perfect... however I totally forgot (I'd love to blame the agile development mentally, however this was just short sighted) that this information needs to be reported on. As far as I'm aware I can't think how I could inflate the serialized data back into my Recipe Object and use it in a Report. I'm using the standard SQL 2005 report services at the moment. Alternatively, I guess I could do the following: Duplicate every table and tag the word "Archive" on the end of the table name. This would then give me an area of specific archive data... but ignoring my simplified example, there'd actually be about 15 tables duplicated. Add a nullable, non-foreign key property called "CopiedFromId" to every table that contains fixed data and duplicate every record that the recipe (and all it's sub recipes and all their sub recipes) touches. Create some sort of denormalised structure that could be restored from at a later date to the original, unfixed recipe. Although I think this would be like option 1 and involve a lot of extra tables. Anyway, I'm at a total loss and do not like any of the ideas particularly. Can anyone please advise the best course of action? EDIT: Or 4) Create tables specific to what the report requires and populate them with the data when the user clicks the report button? This would cause about 4 extra tables for the report in question.

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• Htaccess rewrite rule .aspx to .php

  - by Markus Ossi

  Background: I have a website that has been built with ASP.NET 2.0 and is on Windows hosting. I now have to rewrite my site in PHP and move it into Linux hosting. I have a lot of incoming links to my site from around the web that point directly into the old .aspx-pages. The site itself is very simple, one dynamic page and five static ones. I saved the static .aspx pages as .php-pages and rewrote the dynamic page in PHP. The dynamic page is called City.aspx and I have written it in PHP and it is now called City.php. On my old Windows hosting, I used ASP.NET's URL mapping for friendly URL. For example, incoming URL request for Laajakaista/Ypaja.aspx was mapped into City.aspx?CityID=981. My goal: To redirect all human visitors and search engines looking for the old .aspx pages into the new .php pages. I am thinking that the easiest way to redirect visitors into new pages will be by making a redirect, where all requests for .aspx-files will be redirected into .php filetypes. So, if someone asks for MYSITE/City.aspx?CityID=5, they will be taken into MYSITE/City.php?CityID=5 instead. However, I am having a lot of trouble getting this to work. So far this is what I have found: rewriterule ^([.]+)\.aspx$ http://www.example.com/$1.php [R=301,L] However, I think this can not handle the parameters after the filetype and I am also not quite sure what to put on front. To make things a bit more complicated, at my previous site I used friendly URL's so that I had a huge mapping file with mappings like this: <add url="~/Laajakaista/Ypaja.aspx" mappedUrl="~/City.aspx?CityID=981" /> <add url="~/Laajakaista/Aetsa.aspx" mappedUrl="~/City.aspx?CityID=988" /> <add url="~/Laajakaista/Ahtari.aspx" mappedUrl="~/City.aspx?CityID=989" /> <add url="~/Laajakaista/Aanekoski.aspx" mappedUrl="~/City.aspx?CityID=992" /> I tried to make a simple redirect like this: Redirect 301 Laajakaista/Aanekoski.aspx City.php?CityID=992 but was not able to get it to work. I ended up with an internal server error and a 50k .htaccess-file... Any help is greatly appreciated.

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• How can I highlight empty fields in ASP.NET MVC 2 before model binding has occurred?

  - by Richard Poole

  I'm trying to highlight certain form fields (let's call them important fields) when they're empty. In essence, they should behave a bit like required fields, but they should be highlighted if they are empty when the user first GETs the form, before POST & model validation has occurred. The user can also ignore the warnings and submit the form when these fields are empty (i.e. empty important fields won't cause ModelState.IsValid to be false). Ideally it needs to work server-side (empty important fields are highlighted with warning message on GET) and client-side (highlighted if empty when losing focus). I've thought of a few ways of doing this, but I'm hoping some bright spark can come up with a nice elegant solution... Just use a CSS class to flag important fields Update every view/template to render important fields with an important CSS class. Write some jQuery to highlight empty important fields when the DOM is ready and hook their blur events so highlights & warning messages can be shown/hidden as appropriate. Pros: Quick and easy. Cons: Unnecessary duplication of importance flags and warning messages across views & templates. Clients with JavaScript disabled will never see highlights/warnings. Custom data annotation and client-side validator Create classes similar to RequiredAttribute, RequiredAttributeAdapter and ModelClientValidationRequiredRule, and register the adapter with DataAnnotationsModelValidatorProvider.RegisterAdapter. Create a client-side validator like this that responds to the blur event. Pros: Data annotation follows DRY principle (Html.ValidationMessageFor<T> picks up field importance and warning message from attribute, no duplication). Cons: Must call TryValidateModel from GET actions to ensure empty fields are decorated. Not technically validation (client- & server-side rules don't match) so it's at the mercy of framework changes. Clients with JavaScript disabled will never see highlights/warnings. Clone the entire validation framework It strikes me that I'm trying to achieve exactly the same thing as validation but with warnings rather than errors. It needs to run before model binding (and therefore validation) has occurred. Perhaps it's worth designing a similar framework with annotations like Required, RegularExpression, StringLength, etc. that somehow cause Html.TextBoxFor<T> etc. to render the warning CSS class and Html.ValidationMessageFor<T> to emit the warning message and JSON needed to enable client-side blur checks. Pros: Sounds like something MVC 2 could do with out of the box. Cons: Way too much effort for my current requirement! I'm swaying towards option 1. Can anyone think of a better solution?

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• Advice on logic circuits and serial communications

  - by Spencer Ruport

  As far as I understand the serial port so far, transferring data is done over pin 3. As shown here: There are two things that make me uncomfortable about this. The first is that it seems to imply that the two connected devices agree on a signal speed and the second is that even if they are configured to run at the same speed you run into possible synchronization issues... right? Such things can be handled I suppose but it seems like there must be a simpler method. What seems like a better approach to me would be to have one of the serial port pins send a pulse that indicates that the next bit is ready to be stored. So if we're hooking these pins up to a shift register we basically have: (some pulse pin)-clk, tx-d Is this a common practice? Is there some reason not to do this? EDIT Mike shouldn't have deleted his answer. This I2C (2 pin serial) approach seems fairly close to what I did. The serial port doesn't have a clock you're right nobugz but that's basically what I've done. See here: private void SendBytes(byte[] data) { int baudRate = 0; int byteToSend = 0; int bitToSend = 0; byte bitmask = 0; byte[] trigger = new byte[1]; trigger[0] = 0; SerialPort p; try { p = new SerialPort(cmbPorts.Text); } catch { return; } if (!int.TryParse(txtBaudRate.Text, out baudRate)) return; if (baudRate < 100) return; p.BaudRate = baudRate; for (int index = 0; index < data.Length * 8; index++) { byteToSend = (int)(index / 8); bitToSend = index - (byteToSend * 8); bitmask = (byte)System.Math.Pow(2, bitToSend); p.Open(); p.Parity = Parity.Space; p.RtsEnable = (byte)(data[byteToSend] & bitmask) > 0; s = p.BaseStream; s.WriteByte(trigger[0]); p.Close(); } } Before anyone tells me how ugly this is or how I'm destroying my transfer speeds my quick answer is I don't care about that. My point is this seems much much simpler than the method you described in your answer nobugz. And it wouldn't be as ugly if the .Net SerialPort class gave me more control over the pin signals. Are there other serial port APIs that do?

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• How to add CSS classes to Zend_Form_Element_Select option

  - by Jah Selassie

  Hi, I'm trying to add a CSS class to a Zend_Form_Element_Select option, but I just can't find a way to do it. The desired output would be something like this: <select name="hey" id="hey"> <option value="value1" style="parent">label1</option> <option value="value2" style="sibling">sublabel1</option> <option value="value3" style="sibling">sublabel2</option> <option value="value4" style="parent">label2</option> <option value="value5" style="sibling">sublabel3</option> <option value="value6" style="sibling">sublabel4</option> </select> But I'm getting this: <select name="hey" id="hey"> <option value="value1">label1</option> <option value="value2">sublabel1</option> <option value="value3">sublabel2</option> <option value="value4">label2</option> <option value="value5">sublabel3</option> <option value="value6">sublabel4</option> </select> I can't seem to pass a CSS class attribute to any of the options in the select element although I can style the select element itselft. My code: $sel = new Zend_Form_Element_Select('hey'); $sel->setRequired(true)->setLabel('Select an Option:'); $sel->addMultiOption('value1', 'label1', array('class' => 'parent')) ->addMultiOption('value2', 'sublabel1', array('class' => 'sibling')) (etc...); After researching a bit I found out that Element_Select doesn't have a method for adding CSS styles to the options in the select box, only for the select itself. So, how can I add them? Should I extend the form_element_select? Or would a custom decorator suffice? Can anyone give me a hint? I'm baffled with this. Thanks in advance!

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• SSIS DTS Package flat file error - "The file name specified in the connection was not valid"

  - by MisterZimbu

  I have a pretty basic SSIS package that is attempting to read a file hosted on a share, and import its contents to a database table. The package runs fine when I run it manually within SSIS. However, when I set up a SQL Agent job and attempt to execute it, I get the following error: Executed as user: DOMAIN\UserName. Microsoft (R) SQL Server Execute Package Utility Version 9.00.3042.00 for 64-bit Copyright (C) Microsoft Corp 1984-2005. All rights reserved. Started: 10:14:17 AM Error: 2010-05-03 10:14:17.75 Code: 0xC001401E Source: DataImport Connection manager "Data File Local" Description: The file name "\10.1.1.159\llpf\datafile.dat" specified in the connection was not valid. End Error Error: 2010-05-03 10:14:17.75 Code: 0xC001401D Source: DataAnimalImport Description: Connection "Data File Local" failed validation. End Error DTExec: The package execution returned DTSER_FAILURE (1). Started: 10:14:17 AM Finished: 10:14:17 AM Elapsed: 0.594 seconds. The package execution failed. The step failed. This leads me to believe it's a permissions issue, but every attempt I've made to fix it has failed. What I've tried so far: Run as the SQL Agent account (DOMAIN\SqlAgent) - yields same error. DOMAIN\SqlAgent has "Full Control" permissions on both the share and the uploaded file. Set up a proxy account with a different account's credentials (DOMAIN\Account) - yields same error. Like above, "Full Control" permissions were given over the share to that account. Gave "Everyone" full control permissions over the share (temporarily!). Yielded same error. Manually copied the file to a local path and tested with the SQL Agent account. Worked properly. Added an ActiveX script task that would first copy the remotely hosted file to a local path, and then have the DTS package reference the local file. Gave a completely nondescriptive (even by SSIS standards) error when trying to run the script. Set up a proxy account, using my own personal account's credentials - worked correctly. However, this is not an acceptable solution as there are password policies in place on my account, as well as being a bad practice to set things up this way in general. Any ideas? I'm still convinced it's a permissions issue. However, what I've read from various searches more or less says giving the executing account permissions on the share should work. However, this is not the case here (unless I'm missing something obscure when I'm setting up permissions on the share).

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• Visual Studio 2005 - Debugger stopped working.

  - by eric

  More fun and pain with Visual Studio. Visual Studio 2005. About two months ago, I started an assignment. In my role, I cannot install or configure development software. Trust me this has given me plenty of heartburn. No IIS is involved here, just File Sharing. That being said, when I first started I had a problem with my debugger not working. The debugger just stopped. I was able to get it working. Now the problem has returned and I am pulling every last hair on my head. Almost none of my symbols loads. It can't find the PDB files. In Debugger options, I checked the Symbol section. My symbol file location entry is completely blank. ? I don't know why. I did not touch this prior to the problem occurring. I have cleared the Temporary ASP.NET folders. Example: Here is my Module Output CppCodeProvider.dll C:\Windows\assembly\GAC_MSIL\CppCodeProvider\8.0.0.0__b03f5f7f11d50a3a\CppCodeProvider.dll No No Cannot find or open the PDB file. 17 8.0.50727.762 12/2/2006 4:23 AM 6A510000-6A52C000 [1844] WebDev.WebServer.EXE: Managed WebDev.WebHost.dll C:\Windows\assembly\GAC_32\WebDev.WebHost\8.0.0.0__b03f5f7f11d50a3a\WebDev.WebHost.dll No No Cannot find or open the PDB file. 3 8.0.50727.42 9/23/2005 4:20 AM 6D040000-6D050000 [1844] WebDev.WebServer.EXE: Managed So I enabled the SHFUSION.dll in my versio of the the Framework I am using... In my GAC, I can see this version of WebDev.WebHost.dll for example: ProcessArchitecture(x86) Public key token matches: b03f5f7f11d50a3a 8.0.50727.42 I then see some custom dlls. I should note, I created a new project. Recreated my files manually by importing them. The debugger worked 5 times and died. I'm at a loss of what to do next? The obvious has been checked: The project is set to Debug Configuration Manager Configuration Debug Platform .NET Build : checked. Web.Config: I have attempted to manually attach to the Webdev process from the Debug window and that doesn't work. I have googled this and this problem seems to occur quite a bit.

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• velocity vector

  - by wanderer

  Hi, I am trying to simulate a collision. The collision is shown here http://www.freeimagehosting.net/image.php?c5ae01b476.jpg A particle falls down on a sphere and a collision between sphere and particle takes place. The sphere always remain stationary and the collision itself is not elastic. So if the particle falls directly n top of sphere, the velocity of particle will become zero. I was trying to set the velocity of particle to be zero after the collision. But that does not give good simulation when the collision does not occur on top of sphere but along the side of sphere. So now after the collision i need to make sure that the particle has a velocity which is orthogonal to the vector of the point of collision from the center of sphere. The velocity along the vector from center of sphere to point of collision should become zero. How do i do that? I am a bit mathematically challenged but i think it has something to do with dot product of vectors. Or maybe i am wrong :) I have the initial velocity vector and 'radiusvector' say :- 1)velocity <-1.03054, -1.56563, 1.33341e-016 2) radius vector <2.04406, 2.19587, 1.0514 Pseudo code for the problem is: foreach( particle particle in particlesCollections) { //sphere.x, sphere.y sphere.z give the center of the sphere dist = particle.pos-vector(sphere.x,sphere.y,sphere.z); //detect if a collision has taken place. if (dist.mag < sphere.radius) { rVector=dist/dist.mag*sphere.radius; particle.pos=vector(sphere.x,sphere.y,sphere.z) + rVector; //particle.Velocity gives the velocity vector of the particle at the time of collision //i need to modify particle.Velocity so that the component of velocity that runs along // with the rvector becomes zero as i have a non elsatic collision. The remaining //velocity that the particle will have is the one which runs along with tangent to the //rVector. The sphere remains stationary. //example values: particle.Velocity == <-1.03054, -1.56563, .006> //and rVector = <2.04406, 2.19587, 1.0514> } } Thanks

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• Sql Server Compact 2005 on Visual Studio 2008

  - by Tim

  I'm working on a Windows Forms application that interacts with a Sql Compact database file created by SQL Server 2005. This application was originally developed in Visual Studio 2005 but was recently converted to a Visual Studio 2008 solution. In regards to Sql Compact, we made sure the references were all still set to the assemblies that handle the 2005 version of Sql Compact rather than Sql Compact 3.5. Having done this, the application still runs just as it should - it will still interact with the Compact database, perform synchronization operations, etc. However, I just discovered today that Visual Studio tools such as the DataSet Designer do not play well with a Sql Compact database file of an older version than 3.5. If I go to the New Connection... wizard, the only Sql Compact Data Source / Data Provider are for Sql Compact 3.5. I assume that Visual Studio 2008 just doesn't include the data provider for the older version of Sql Compact by default. Is there a way you can add the old version of Sql Compact to the list of "Data Sources" for the connection wizard? To see exactly what I'm referring to, click on the Tools menu of Visual Studio 2008 and click Connect to Database... In the window that comes up, click Change... next to the Data source setting. From this dialog there is no way I can select the earlier version of Sql Compact - only 3.5 is available. Maybe I need to add an assembly reference somewhere? Or copy some file(s) from my Visual Studio 2005 directory over to 2008? I would think there would have to be a way for Visual Studio 2008 to be able to interact with a Sql Compact database from Sql Server 2005. To provide one more bit of detail, I discovered this problem when I went to my DataSet, right-clicked and tried to add a TableAdapter. The first screen that comes up says, "Choose Your Data Connection". If I leave it set to the Sql Compact connection that we've always used, I now get the following error when clicking the Next button: Failed to open a connection to the database "The selected database was created with an earlier version of SQL Server Compact and needs to be upgraded to SQL Server Compact 3.5 before the connection can be opened or tested. Upgrade the database by creating a new data connection and completing the Add Connection dialog box." Check the connection and try again. The only problem here is that we still use Sql Server 2005, and if my understanding is correct, it does not produce subscription files that are compatible with Sql Compact 3.5. If I am wrong in this assumption, please correct me. Any help you can provide is greatly appreciated. Thank you.

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