Search Results

Search found 59381 results on 2376 pages for 'http request'.

Page 100/2376 | < Previous Page | 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107  | Next Page >

  • Windows Azure ASP.NET MVC Role behaves strangely when redirecting from HTTP to HTTPS

    - by Rinat Abdullin
    Subj. I've got an ASP.NET 2 MVC Worker Role Application, that does not differ much from the default template. When attempting redirect from HTTP to HTTPS (this happens when we access constroller secured by the usual RequireSSL attribute implementation) we get blank page with "Bad Request" message. IntelliTrace shows this: Thrown: "The file '/Views/Home/LogOnUserControl.aspx' does not exist." (System.Web.HttpException) Call stack is really short: [External Code] App_Web_vfahw7gz.dll!ASP.views_shared_site_master.__Render__control1(System.Web.UI.HtmlTextWriter __w = {unknown}, System.Web.UI.Control parameterContainer = {unknown}) [External Code] App_Web_bsbqxr44.dll!ASP.views_home_index_aspx.ProcessRequest(System.Web.HttpContext context = {unknown}) [External Code] User control reference is the usual one in /Views/Shared/Site.Master: <div id="logindisplay"> <% Html.RenderPartial("LogOnUserControl"); %> </div> And partial view LogOnUserControl.ashx is located in Views/Shared (and it is ASHX, not ASPX). Problem shows up, when we try to access site pages, that require auth and redirect. These pages are secured by RequireSSL attribute (Redirect == true): [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Method | AttributeTargets.Class, Inherited = true, AllowMultiple = false)] public sealed class RequireSslAttribute : FilterAttribute, IAuthorizationFilter { public bool Redirect { get; set; } // Methods public void OnAuthorization(AuthorizationContext filterContext) { // this get's messy, when we are running custom ports // within the local dev fabric. // hence we disable code in the debug #if !DEBUG if (filterContext == null) { throw new ArgumentNullException("filterContext"); } if (filterContext.HttpContext.Request.IsSecureConnection) return; var canRedirect = string.Equals(filterContext.HttpContext.Request.HttpMethod, "GET", StringComparison.OrdinalIgnoreCase); if (canRedirect && Redirect) { var builder = new UriBuilder { Scheme = "https", Host = filterContext.HttpContext.Request.Url.Host, Path = filterContext.HttpContext.Request.RawUrl }; filterContext.Result = new RedirectResult(builder.ToString()); } else { throw new HttpException(0x193, "Access forbidden. The requested resource requires an SSL connection."); } #endif } } Obviously we compile in RELEASE for this case. Does anybody have any idea, what could cause this strange exception and how to get rid of it?

    Read the article

  • asp.net mvc 2: SportsStore application: The current request for action is ambiguous

    - by dotnet-practitioner
    I am working on SportsStore example on chapter 4 from the following book and getting stuck... Pro Asp.net mvc framework I get the following error: The current request for action 'List' on controller type 'ProductsController' is ambiguous between the following action methods: System.Web.Mvc.ViewResult List() on type WebUI.Controllers.ProductsController System.Web.Mvc.ViewResult List(Int32) on type WebUI.Controllers.ProductsController .. My router code looks as follows: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.MapRoute( null, // Route name "", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Products", action = "List", page=1 } ); routes.MapRoute( null, // Route name "Page{page}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Products", action = "List" }, // Parameter defaults new { page = @"\d+" } ); } and controller code looks as follows: public ViewResult List() { return View(productsRepository.Products.ToList()); } public ViewResult List(int page) { return View(productsRepository.Products .Skip((page - 1) * PageSize) .Take(PageSize) .ToList()); } What am I missing? my url is as follows: http://localhost:1103/ or http://localhost:1103/Page1 or http://localhost:1103/Page2 thanks

    Read the article

  • is there a way using Ruby's net/http to post form data to an http proxy?

    - by Derek P.
    I have a basic Squid server setup and I am trying to use Ruby's Net::HTTP::Proxy class to send a POST of form data to a specified HTTP endpoint. I assumed I could do the following: Net::HTTP::Proxy(my_host, my_port).start(url.host) do |h| req = Net::HTTP::Post.new(url.path) req.form_data = { "xml" => xml } h.request(req) end But, alas, proxy vs. non-proxied Net::HTTP classes don't seem to use the proxy IP Address. my remote service responds telling me that it received a request from the wrong IP address, ie: not the proxy. I am looking for a specific way to write the procedure, so that I can successfully send a form post via a proxy. Help? :)

    Read the article

  • Error getting twitter request token using OAuth and PEAR Services_Twitter

    - by Onema
    Hello, I am moving from the basic authentication method using username and password to the OAuth based authentication. I was using an old version of the pear package Services_Twitter, that did not support OAuth. The latest version of this package supports OAuth authentications, it has a few dependencies (HTTP_Request2, HTTP_OAuth). It was very simple to install them and upgrade the package. I did all this my local machine and had no trouble getting the authentication up and running. I committed this code to the test site, but every time the code request a "request token" I get the following error message "Unable to connect to ssl://api.twitter.com:443. Error #0" I have spend 6 hours making sure that all the pear packages where up to date, checking the customer token and token secret, making sure port 443 is not closed... in addition to various other test. I have exhausted my resources and I come to you in hope to find some answers. Thank you PD: One of the things I do not understand is why does the message says that the url is ssl://api.twitter.com:443 rather than https://api.twitter.com/request_token? the former one is the one I am using to get the request token.

    Read the article

  • JSF : How to refresh required field in ajax request

    - by Tama
    Ok, here you are the core problem. The page. I have two required "input text". A command button that changes the bean value and reRenderes the "job" object. <a4j:form id="pervForm"> SURNAME:<h:inputText id="surname" label="Surname" value="#{prevManager.surname}" required="true" /> <br/> JOB:<h:inputText value="#{prevManager.job}" id="job" maxlength="10" size="10" label="#{msg.common_label_job}" required="true" /> <br/> <a4j:commandButton value="Set job to Programmer" ajaxSingle="true" reRender="job"> <a4j:actionparam name="jVal" value="Programmer" assignTo="#{prevManager.job}"/> </a4j:commandButton> <h:commandButton id="save" value="save" action="save" class="HATSBUTTON"/> </a4j:form> Here the simple manager: public class PrevManager { private String surname; private String job; public String getSurname() { return surname; } public void setSurname(String surname) { this.surname = surname; } public String getJob() { return job; } public void setJob(String job) { this.job = job; } public String save() { //do something } } Let's do this: Write something on the Job input text (such as "teacher"). Leave empty the surname. Save. Validation error appears (surname is mandatory). Press "Set job to Programmer": nothing happens. Checking the bean value, I discovered that it is correctly updated, indeed the component on the page is not updated! Well, according to the JBoss Docs I found: Ajax region is a key ajax component. It limits the part of the component tree to be processed on the server side when ajax request comes. Processing means invocation during Decode, Validation and Model Update phase. Most common reasons to use a region are: -avoiding the aborting of the JSF lifecycle processing during the validation of other form input unnecessary for given ajax request; -defining the different strategies when events will be delivered (immediate="true/false") -showing an individual indicator of an ajax status -increasing the performance of the rendering processing (selfRendered="true/false", renderRegionOnly="true/false") The following two examples show the situation when a validation error does not allow to process an ajax input. Type the name. The outputText component should reappear after you. However, in the first case, this activity will be aborted because of the other field with required="true". You will see only the error message while the "Job" field is empty. Here you are the example: <ui:composition xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xmlns:ui="http://java.sun.com/jsf/facelets" xmlns:h="http://java.sun.com/jsf/html" xmlns:f="http://java.sun.com/jsf/core" xmlns:a4j="http://richfaces.org/a4j" xmlns:rich="http://richfaces.org/rich"> <style> .outergridvalidationcolumn { padding: 0px 30px 10px 0px; } </style> <a4j:outputPanel ajaxRendered="true"> <h:messages style="color:red" /> </a4j:outputPanel> <h:panelGrid columns="2" columnClasses="outergridvalidationcolumn"> <h:form id="form1"> <h:panelGrid columns="2"> <h:outputText value="Name" /> <h:inputText value="#{userBean.name}"> <a4j:support event="onkeyup" reRender="outname" /> </h:inputText> <h:outputText value="Job" /> <h:inputText required="true" id="job2" value="#{userBean.job}" /> </h:panelGrid> </h:form> <h:form id="form2"> <h:panelGrid columns="2"> <h:outputText value="Name" /> <a4j:region> <h:inputText value="#{userBean.name}"> <a4j:support event="onkeyup" reRender="outname" /> </h:inputText> </a4j:region> <h:outputText value="Job" /> <h:inputText required="true" id="job1" value="#{userBean.job}" /> </h:panelGrid> </h:form> </h:panelGrid> <h:outputText id="outname" style="font-weight:bold" value="Typed Name: #{userBean.name}" /> <br /> </ui:composition> Form1: the behaviour is incorrect. I need to fill the job and then the name. Form2: the behaviour is correct. I do not need to fill the job to see the correct value. Unfortunately using Ajax region does not help (indeed I used it in a bad way ...) because my fields are both REQUIRED. That's the main different. Any idea? Many thanks.

    Read the article

  • Apache Reverse proxy Http to https

    - by Coppes
    I have a website which is fully running on Https. For some reason i did get the task to find a way to convert a url for example: http://www.domain.com/a/e-nc/youless to a https version of it, without losing HTTP POST header such as the POST values which are in it. So i thought (not even sure) let's try to make a reversed proxy in apache and see how that works. Anyway after a lot of struggling i came to the point to ask it here. So to be speicific my goal is: Convert the http://www.domain.com/a/e-nc/youless to https://www.domain.com/a/e-nc/youless without losing the POST conditions. What i have tried until now is the following: Created a file called: proxiedhosts in my apache2/sites-enabled folder with the following contents: SSLProxyEngine On SSLProxyCACertificateFile /etc/apache2/ssl/certificate****.pem ProxyRequests Off ProxyPreserveHost On <Proxy *> Order allow,deny Allow from all </Proxy> ProxyPass /a/e-nc/youless/ https://www.domain.com/a/e-nc/youless/ ProxyPassReverse /a/e-nc/youless/ https://www.domain.com/a/e-nc/youless/ Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • selecting href not starting with http

    - by sushil bharwani
    using jQuery i am trying to find out all the URLS that user has entered which are not starting with http or https and finally i want to prepend http to all such URLs so that when user clicks on them they are taken to a proper site instead of broken link caused due to entry of URLs without http or https. Also like to mention that User have a field "Websites they Like" where they enter websites of their interest. So if they like stackoverflow, they may end up writing www.stackoverflow.com which will be considered a relative link without http. Also my requirments are such that i cant prompt user to enter http or https before there urls

    Read the article

  • Why am I getting "(304) Not Modified" error on some links when using HttpWebRequest?

    - by Greg
    Hi, Any ideas why on some links that I try to access using HttpWebRequest I am getting "The remote server returned an error: (304) Not Modified." in the code? The code I'm using is from Jeff's post here. Note the concept of the code is a simple proxy server, so I'm pointing my browser at this locally running piece of code, which gets my browsers request, and then proxies it on by creating a new HttpWebRequest, as you'll see in the code. It works great for most sites/links, but for some this error comes up. You will see one key bit in the code is where it seems to copy the http header settings from the browser request to it's request out to the site, and it copies in the header attributes. Not sure if the issue is something to do with how it mimics this aspect of the request and then what happens as the result comes back? case "If-Modified-Since": request.IfModifiedSince = DateTime.Parse(listenerContext.Request.Headers[key]); break; I get the issue for example from http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Main_Page thanks

    Read the article

  • Slow Python HTTP server on localhost

    - by Abiel
    I am experiencing some performance problems when creating a very simple Python HTTP server. The key issue is that performance is varying depending on which client I use to access it, where the server and all clients are being run on the local machine. For instance, a GET request issued from a Python script (urllib2.urlopen('http://localhost/').read()) takes just over a second to complete, which seems slow considering that the server is under no load. Running the GET request from Excel using MSXML2.ServerXMLHTTP also feels slow. However, requesting the data Google Chrome or from RCurl, the curl add-in for R, yields an essentially instantaneous response, which is what I would expect. Adding further to my confusion is that I do not experience any performance problems for any client when I am on my computer at work (the performance problems are on my home computer). Both systems run Python 2.6, although the work computer runs Windows XP instead of 7. Below is my very simple server example, which simply returns 'Hello world' for any get request. from BaseHTTPServer import BaseHTTPRequestHandler, HTTPServer class MyHandler(BaseHTTPRequestHandler): def do_GET(self): print("Just received a GET request") self.send_response(200) self.send_header("Content-type", "text/html") self.end_headers() self.wfile.write('Hello world') return def log_request(self, code=None, size=None): print('Request') def log_message(self, format, *args): print('Message') if __name__ == "__main__": try: server = HTTPServer(('localhost', 80), MyHandler) print('Started http server') server.serve_forever() except KeyboardInterrupt: print('^C received, shutting down server') server.socket.close() Note that in MyHandler I override the log_request() and log_message() functions. The reason is that I read that a fully-qualified domain name lookup performed by one of these functions might be a reason for a slow server. Unfortunately setting them to just print a static message did not solve my problem. Also, notice that I have put in a print() statement as the first line of the do_GET() routine in MyHandler. The slowness occurs prior to this message being printed, meaning that none of the stuff that comes after it is causing a delay.

    Read the article

  • HTTPS/HTTP redirects via .htaccess

    - by Winston
    I have a somehow complicated problem I am trying to solve. I've used the following .htaccess directive to enable some sort of Pretty URLs, and that worked fine. For example, http://myurl.com/shop would be redirected to http://myurl.com/index.php/shop, and that was well working (note that stuff such as myurl.com/css/mycss.css) does not get redirected: RewriteEngine on RewriteCond ${REQUEST_URI} !^(index\.php$) RewriteCond %{SCRIPT_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{SCRIPT_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule ^/?(.*)$ index.php/$1 [L] But now, as I have introduced SSL to my webpage, I want the following behaviour: I basically want the above behaviour for all pages except admin.php and login.php. Requests to those two pages should be redirected to the HTTPS part, whereas all other requests should be processed as specified above. I have come up with the following .htaccess, but it does not work. h*tps://myurl.com/shop does not get redirected to h*tp://myurl.com/index.php/shop, and h*tp://myurl.com/admin.php does not get redirected to h*tps://myurl.com/admin.php. RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{HTTPS} on RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^(admin\.php$|login\.php$) RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://%{HTTP_HOST}/${REQUEST_URI} [R=301,L] RewriteCond %{HTTPS} off RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} ^(admin\.php$|login\.php$) RewriteRule ^(.*)$ https://myurl.com/%{REQUEST_URI} [R=301,L] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^(index\.php$) RewriteCond %{SCRIPT_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{SCRIPT_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule ^/?(.*)$ index.php/$1 [L] I know it has something to do with rules overwriting each other, but I am not sure since my knowledge of Apache is quite limited. How could I fix this apparently not that difficult problem, and how could I make my .htaccess more compact and elegant? Help is very much appreciated, thank you!

    Read the article

  • Facebook app request in java not working

    - by Arpit Solanki
    I am trying to send a facebook app request to a user through the code below.But it gives an IO Exception and HTTP status code 400 in running.I dont see a any app request being sent to a user on running this. StringBuffer buffer = new StringBuffer(); buffer.append("access_token").append('=').append(this.app_access_token); buffer.append('&').append("message=").append("sent an app request!"); String content = buffer.toString(); try{ URLConnection connection = new URL("https://graph.facebook.com/me/apprequests").openConnection(); connection.setDoOutput(true); connection.setRequestProperty("Content-Type","application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); connection.setRequestProperty("Content-Length",Integer.toString(content.length())); DataOutputStream outs = new DataOutputStream(connection.getOutputStream()); outs.writeBytes(content); outs.flush(); outs.close(); BufferedReader in = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(connection.getInputStream())); String inputLine; while ((inputLine = in.readLine()) != null) { System.out.println(inputLine); } in.close(); } catch(Exception e){ System.out.println(e); }

    Read the article

  • Decorator for determining HTTP response from a view

    - by polera
    I want to create a decorator that will allow me to return a raw or "string" representation of a view if a GET parameter "raw" equals "1". The concept works, but I'm stuck on how to pass context to my renderer. Here's what I have so far: from django.shortcuts import render_to_response from django.http import HttpResponse from django.template.loader import render_to_string def raw_response(template): def wrap(view): def response(request,*args,**kwargs): if request.method == "GET": try: if request.GET['raw'] == "1": render = HttpResponse(render_to_string(template,{}),content_type="text/plain") return render except Exception: render = render_to_response(template,{}) return render return response return wrap Currently, the {} is there just as a place holder. Ultimately, I'd like to be able to pass a dict like this: @raw_response('my_template_name.html') def view_name(request): render({"x":42}) Any assistance is appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Third party multipart request in playframework

    - by Brian
    I'm making an application to post photos to yfrog and twitpic and I am having a little trouble figuring out how to set the parameters. Here is my code: public static Result index() { HttpClient httpclient = new DefaultHttpClient(); WSRequestHolder holder = WS.url("http://api.twitpic.com/2/upload.json"); holder.setHeader("Authorization", ""); return async(holder.post("").map(new Function<WS.Response, Result>() { public Result apply(WS.Response response) { return ok(response.getBody()); } })); } Now, I don't expect this to actually get an ok response from the server, as I am just testing the responses that I get back from the server, and that is one that says I need to provide the api key. I figured as much, but I'm not sure of the syntax for providing that parameter, as I need to also give the name of the file and the file. I tried setting holder.post("key=somekey"), with the hope that I would get a different error message (like the key you provided is invalid) but I just get the same error. I'm assuming that I probably need to send it in the for of a multipart request, but I am not very experienced with this kind of request and can't find any play documentation on how to create a multipart request, other than in an html form. Any suggestions and help will be much appreciated. And fyi, I do know that there are yfrog and twitpic java classes to handle this kind of stuff, but I want to do it myself, more so for learning how to do this kind of stuff. Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Problem Rewriting URL's from HTTPS to HTTP using IIS7 URL Rewriter, when using Webforms ReturnURL=

    - by theminesgreg
    I took Jeff's Re-write rules from this post and the HTTP to HTTPS conversion works great. However, going back to HTTP is giving me problems because of the ReturnUrl= in the URL (I'm using webforms). Here's an example of the url: https://localhost/Login.aspx?ReturnUrl=%2f Here's the rewrite rule I'm using: <rule name="HTTPS to HTTP redirect for all other pages" stopProcessing="true"> <match url="^login\.aspx$" ignoreCase="true" negate="true" /> <conditions> <add input="{SERVER_PORT}" pattern="^443$" /> </conditions> <action type="Redirect" redirectType="Found" url="http://{HTTP_HOST}{REQUEST_URI}" /> </rule> Here's the resulting re-written URL: http://localhost/,/ Has anyone found a work around for this?

    Read the article

  • Fix a 404: missing parameters error from a GET request to CherryPy

    - by norabora
    I'm making a webpage using CherryPy for the server-side, HTML, CSS and jQuery on the client-side. I'm also using a mySQL database. I have a working form for users to sign up to the site - create a username and password. I use jQuery to send an AJAX POST request to the CherryPy which queries the database to see if that username exists. If the username exists, alert the user, if it doesn't, add it to the database and alert success. $.post('submit', postdata, function(data) { alert(data); }); Successful jQuery POST. I want to change the form so that instead of checking that the username exists on submit, a GET request is made as on the blur event from the username input. The function gets called, and it goes to the CherryPy, but then I get an error that says: HTTPError: (404, 'Missing parameters: username'). $.get('checkUsername', getdata, function(data) { alert(data); }); Unsuccessful jQuery GET. The CherryPy: @cherrypy.expose def submit(self, **params): cherrypy.response.headers['Content-Type'] = 'application/json' e = sqlalchemy.create_engine('mysql://mysql:pw@localhost/6470') c = e.connect() com1 = "SELECT * FROM `users` WHERE `username` = '" + params["username"] + "'" b = c.execute(com1).fetchall() if not len(b) > 0: com2 = "INSERT INTO `6470`.`users` (`username` ,`password` ,`website` ,`key`) VALUES ('" com2 += params["username"] + "', MD5( '" + params["password"] + "'), '', NULL);" a = c.execute(com2) c.close() return simplejson.dumps("Success!") #login user and send them to home page c.close() return simplejson.dumps("This username is not available.") @cherrypy.expose def checkUsername(self, username): cherrypy.response.headers['Content-Type'] = 'application/json' e = sqlalchemy.create_engine('mysql://mysql:pw@localhost/6470') c = e.connect() command = "SELECT * FROM `users` WHERE `username` = '" + username + "'" a = c.execute(command).fetchall(); c.close() sys.stdout.write(str(a)) return simplejson.dumps("") I can't see any differences between the two so I don't know why the GET request is giving me a problem. Any insight into what I might be doing wrong would be helpful. If you have ideas about the jQuery, CherryPy, config files, anything, I'd really appreciate it.

    Read the article

  • Request-local storage in ASP.NET (accessible to the code from IHttpModule implementation)

    - by IgorK
    I need to have some object hanging around between two events I'm interested in: PreRequestHandlerExecute (where I create an instance of my object and want to save it) and PostRequestHandlerExecute (where I want to get to the object). After the second event the object is not needed for my purposes and should be discarded either by storage or my explicit action. So the ideal context where my object should be stored is per request (with guaranteed no sharing issues when different threads are serving requests... or processes/servers :) ) Take into account that actual implementation I can do is being made from a HttpModule and is supposed to be a pluggable solution for already written web apps (so the option to provide some state using static/instance variables in Global.asax doesn't look good - I will have to modify Global.asax on every web application). Cache seems to be too broad for this use. I tried to see whether httpContext.Application (of type HttpApplicationState) is good for me or not, but cannot get whether it is exactly per HttpApplication instance or not (AFAIK you can have several instances of HttpApplications used on different threads and therefore serving several requests simultaneously - then using storage shared between threads will not work correctly; otherwise I would use it because one HttpApplication instance serves exactly one request at a time). Something could be done with storing state on the HttpModule instances if I know for sure that it's exactly bound 1-to-1 with every HttpApplication instance running (but again I need a proof that HttpApplication instance is 1-to-1 with my HttpModule's instance). Any valuable and reputable links on these topics are much appreciated... Would be great to find something particularly well-suited for per request situation (because otherwise I may end up with something ulgy... probably either some 'broader' scoped storage and some hacks to have different keys in the storage for different requests, OR using a thread-local thing and in this way commit to the theory that IIS/ASP.NET will not ever serve first event from one thread and the second event from the other thread and so on)

    Read the article

  • Why is Request not available for my PDF request?

    - by Beska
    We're trying to create a .NET aspx page that will have a PDF within it. Doing this by hardcoding it is easy. <object height="1250px" width="100%" type="application/pdf" data="our.pdf"> <param value="our.pdf" name="src" /> <param value="transparent" name="wmode" /> </object> (don't worry too much about the transparent thing...we're doing that for other reasons...but I include it here "just in case".) The problem is when we want to generate the PDF dynamically. Our code to populate the literal on the front end looks like this: ltrPDF.Text = String.Format("<object height=\"1250px\" width=\"100%\" type=\"application/pdf\" data=\"ourPdfGenerator.aspx?var0={0}&var1={1}&var2={2}\">", var0, var1, var2); ltrPDF.Text += String.Format("<param value=\"ourPdfGenerator.aspx?var0={0}&var1={1}&var2={2}\">", var0, var1, var2); ltrPDF.Text += "<param value=\"transparent\" name=\"wmode\"/>"; ltrPDF.Text += "</object>"; Kind of ugly, but it seems like it should work. But it doesn't. When I debug, and put a breakpoint on the first line of ourPdfGenerator.aspx.cs Page_Load method, I reach the breakpoint without any difficulty. However, the first thing we do is try to use Request.QueryString: string var0 = Request.QueryString["var0"]; which immediately throws an HttpException: "Request is not available in this context." I'm not clear on: Why isn't it available? What can I do about it?

    Read the article

  • Ajax request gets to server but page doesn't update - Rails, jQuery

    - by Jesse
    So I have a scenario where my jQuery ajax request is hitting the server, but the page won't update. I'm stumped... Here's the ajax request: $.ajax({ type: 'GET', url: '/jsrender', data: "id=" + $.fragment().nav.replace("_link", "") }); Watching the rails logs, I get the following: Processing ProductsController#jsrender (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-03-17 23:07:35) [GET] Parameters: {"action"=>"jsrender", "id"=>"products", "controller"=>"products"} ... Rendering products/jsrender.rjs Completed in 651ms (View: 608, DB: 17) | 200 OK [http://localhost/jsrender?id=products] So, it seems apparent to me that the ajax request is getting to the server. The code in the jsrender method is being executed, but the code in the jsrender.rjs doesn't fire. Here's the method, jsrender: def jsrender @currentview = "shared/#{params[:id]}" respond_to do |format| format.js {render :template => 'products/jsrender.rjs'} end end For the sake of argument, the code in jsrender.rjs is: page<<"alert('this works!');" Why is this? I see in the params that there is no authenticity_token, but I have tried passing an authenticity_token as well with the same result. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Ajax request (from .NET) give me unexpected results

    - by ironnailpiercethesky
    I wanted to learn a little more about web and .NET so i decided to write a program to download binaries, webpages and does a little ajax. The first download site i tried was too easy. So i went against uploading.com. It seemed good, no captcha, some ajax use required, you cant guess all the data, it was perfect. After 2hours of messing around i got frustrated. For the life of me i could not get the ajax response to give me what i was expecting. I decided to use tamper data clear my cookies, click on the entry for the ajax request. Copy the Referer, cookies and postdata and came up with this code. It does not work! I am shocked that copying those fields did not work. I even tried setting the user agent (not in code linked) and it still did not work. Why isnt this POST on the ajax request not giving me the correct file? I notice the JsHttpRequest=12719132559480-xml changes based on time so if you want to run the code you should grab a new snapshot with tamperdata (or at least update that url). I dont see any extra headers in tamper data so does anyone know why i might not be getting the response expected? I know disabling cookies or javascript will make the link 'expired' automatically. I dont think javascript will matter because i got the data from tamperdata at the moment of request so what gives? What am i forgetting or what data am i not submitting properly?

    Read the article

  • Manual Http error response code in non-existent folder via routing

    - by Slytherin
    Apache server running on ubuntu-like linux I am getting unexpected behaviour when i try to manually send error response. If my .htaccess is responsible for the error response , then appropriate error document is loaded and displayed , with according response code in browser console. However , if my router is origin of the response code , then i get blank screen , but correct response code. .htaccess looks like this RewriteEngine On # RewriteBase / RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule !\.(css|js|icon|zip|rar|png|jpg|gif|pdf)$ index.php [L] ErrorDocument 404 /err/404.html ErrorDocument 403 /err/403.html ErrorDocument 500 /err/500.html part of my router that sends the response is the following header("HTTP/1.1 403 Forbidden"); trying this format didnt help either header("HTTP/1.1 403 Forbidden", TRUE, 403); I also tried HTTP/1.0. Furthermore i was thinking that maybe relative path to error page might be an issue , but discarded this idea after attempting to access a document that is forbidden via .htaccess EDIT I should also point out , this scenario happens when URL for not-existing article is requested. Is it possible that Server is looking for a .htaccess file in a folder based on URL ? Eg: domain/blog/non-existent , is server looking for blog folder ? I am specifically asking this because there is no blog folder

    Read the article

  • Ensuring that all callbacks were completed before sending a new request through a DuplexChannel usin

    - by Etan
    I am experiencing some issues when using a Callback in a WCF project. First, the server invokes some function Foo on the client which then forwards the request to a Windows Forms GUI: GUI CLASS delegate void DoForward(); public void ForwardToGui() { if (this.cmdSomeButton.InvokeRequired) { DoForward d = new DoForward(ForwardToGui); this.Invoke(d); } else { Process(); // sets result variable in callback class as soon as done } } } CALLBACK CLASS object _m = new object(); private int _result; public int result { get { return _result; } set { _result = value; lock(_m) { Monitor.PulseAll(_m); } } } [OperationContract] public int Foo() { result = 0; Program.Gui.ForwardToGui(); lock(_m) { Monitor.Wait(_m, 30000); } return result; } The problem now is that the user should be able to cancel the process, which doesn't work properly: SERVER INTERFACE [OperationContract] void Cleanup(); GUI CLASS private void Gui_FormClosed(object sender, EventArgs e) { Program.callbackclass.nextAction = -1; // so that the monitor pulses and Foo() returns Program.server.Cleanup(); } The problem with this is that Cleanup() hangs. However, when I close the form when Process() is not running, it works properly. The source seems to be that the Cleanup() is called before the monitor pulses etc and therefore a new request is sent to the server before the last request from the server has not yet been responded. How can I solve this problem? How can I ensure before calling Cleanup() that no Foo() is currently being executed?

    Read the article

  • Ajax Request using jQuery in Rails

    - by Steve
    Hi... I am sending an Ajax Request using jQuery. What happens is that I am getting an "405 Method Not Allowed" Error. I am just posting a form, which would get the detail from the form and insert it into the DB. Just the usual stuff.I am using WEBrick that comes as default with the rails package. Can somebody please tell me how to fix this. This is the code that triggers the Ajax Request $.post($(this).attr("action") + ".js",$(this).serialize(),null,"script"); Response Headers Cache-Control no-cache Allow GET, PUT, DELETE Content-Type text/html; charset=utf-8 Content-Length 9502 Server WEBrick/1.3.1 (Ruby/1.9.1/2009-12-07) Date Wed, 02 Jun 2010 20:41:33 GMT Connection Keep-Alive Request Headers Host localhost:3000 User-Agent Mozilla/5.0 (Macintosh; U; Intel Mac OS X 10.6; en-US; rv:1.9.2.3) Gecko/20100401 Firefox/3.6.3 Accept application/json, text/javascript, */* Accept-Language en-us,en;q=0.5 Accept-Encoding gzip,deflate Accept-Charset ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive 115 Connection keep-alive Content-Type application/x-www-form-urlencoded; charset=UTF-8 X-Requested-With XMLHttpRequest Referer http://localhost:3000/viewspot/3 Content-Length 141 Pragma no-cache Cache-Control no-cache

    Read the article

  • IIS doesn't send two responses to the same client at the same time (only for ASP)

    - by dr. evil
    I've got 2 ASP pages. I do a request to the first page from Firefox (which takes 30 seconds to process on server-side), and during the execution of 30 seconds I do another request from Firefox to the second page (takes less than 1 second in server-side), but it does come after 31 second. Because it waits first requests to finish. When I request to the first page from Firefox and then request the second page from IE it's just instant. So basically ASP - IIS 6 somehow limiting every client to one request (long processing request) at a time. I need to get around this problem in my .NET client application. This is tested in 3 different systems. If you want to test you can try the ASP scripts at the end. This behaviour is same in a long SQL execution or just in a time consuming ASP operation. Note: It's not about HTTP Keep Alive It's not about persistent connection limit (we tried to increase this in firefox and in .NET with Net.ServicePointManager.DefaultConnectionLimit) It's not about User Agent This doesn't happen in ASP.NET so I assume it's something to the with ASP.dll I'm trying to solve this on the client not the server. I don't have direct control over the server it's a 3rd party solution. Is there any way to get around this? Sample ASP Code: First ASP: <% Set cnn = Server.CreateObject("Adodb.Connection") cnn.Open "Provider=sqloledb;Data Source=.;Initial Catalog=master;User Id=sa;Password=;" cnn.Execute("WAITFOR DELAY '0:0:30'") cnn.Close %> Second ASP: <% Response.Write "bla bla" %>

    Read the article

  • Serve web application error messages from Http server

    - by licorna
    I have nginx as a http server with tomcat as a backend (using proxy_pass). It works great but I want to define my own error pages (404, 500, etc.) and that they are served by nginx and not tomcat. For example I have the following resource: https://domain.com/resource which doesn't exist. If I [GET] that URL then I get a Not Found message from Tomcat and not from nginx. What I want is that every time Tomcat responds with a 404 (or any other error message) nginx sends itself a message to the user: some html file accessible by nginx. The way I have my nginx server configured is very easy, just: location / { proxy_pass http://localhost:8080/<webapp-name>/; } And I've configured port 8080, which is tomcat, as not accessible from outside this machine. I don't think that using different location directives in nginx configuration will work, because there are some resources that depend on the URL: https://domain.com/customer/<non-existent-customer-name>/[GET] Will always return 404 (or any other error message), while: https://domain.com/customer/<existent-customer>/[GET] Will return anything different from 404 (the customer exists). Is there any way of serving Tomcat (Application Server) error messages with Nginx (http Server)? To check the message sent by the proxy_pass directive and act upon it?

    Read the article

  • .htaccess redirect https to http not working

    - by Ira Rainey
    I am trying to catch any https traffic to the front of my site so: https://www.domain.com is redirected to: http://www.domain.com However other subdomains need to be redirected elsewhere. For the most part this is all working, apart from the https - http redirection. Here's my .htaccess file at the moment: RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{HTTPS} on RewriteRule (.*) http://%{HTTP_HOST}%{REQUEST_URI} RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^domain\.com [NC] RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://www.domain.com/$1 [L,R=301] RewriteCond "%{HTTP_HOST}" !^www.* [NC] RewriteCond "%{HTTP_HOST}" ^([^\.]+).*$ RewriteRule ^(.*)$ https://secure.domain.com/a/login/%1 [L,R=301] It would seem that this bit: RewriteCond %{HTTPS} on RewriteRule (.*) http://%{HTTP_HOST}%{REQUEST_URI} isn't working as I would imagine. In fact it doesn't seem to redirect at all. In another subdirectory I have the opposite in effect which works fine: RewriteCond %{HTTPS} off RewriteRule (.*) https://%{HTTP_HOST}%{REQUEST_URI} so my thinking is the opposite should have done the job, but seemingly not. Any thoughts anyone?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107  | Next Page >