Search Results

Search found 16162 results on 647 pages for 'property attribute'.

Page 105/647 | < Previous Page | 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112  | Next Page >

  • Does the DataAnnotations.DisplayAttribute.Order property not work with ASP.NET MVC 2?

    - by Zack Peterson
    I set values for the Order property of the Display attribute in my model metadata. [MetadataType(typeof(OccasionMetadata))] public partial class Occasion { private class OccasionMetadata { [ScaffoldColumn(false)] public object Id { get; set; } [Required] [DisplayName("Title")] [Display(Order = 0)] public object Designation { get; set; } [Required] [DataType(DataType.MultilineText)] [Display(Order = 3)] public object Summary { get; set; } [Required] [DataType(DataType.DateTime)] [Display(Order = 1)] public object Start { get; set; } [Required] [DataType(DataType.DateTime)] [Display(Order = 2)] public object Finish { get; set; } } } I present my models in strongly-typed views using the DisplayForModel and EditorForModel methods. <%= Html.DisplayForModel() %> and <%= Html.EditorForModel() %> But, ASP.NET MVC 2 displays the fields out of order! What might I have wrong?

    Read the article

  • How to deal with calculated values with Dependency Properties on a custom WPF control

    - by jpierson
    To summarize what I'm doing, I have a custom control that looks like a checked listbox and that has two dependency properties one that provides a list of available options and the other that represents a enum flag value that combines the selection options. So as I mentioned my custom control exposes two different DependencyProperties, one of which is a list of options called Options and the other property called SelectedOptions is of a specific Enum type that uses the [Flags] attribute to allow combinations of values to be set. My UserControl then contains an ItemsControl similar to a ListBox that is used to display the options along with a checkbox. When the check box is checked or unchecked the SelectedOptions property should be updated accordingly by using the corresponding bitwise operation. The problem I'm experiencing is that I have no way other than resorting to maintaining private fields and handling property change events to update my properties which just feels unatural in WPF. I have tried using ValueConverters but have run into the problem that I can't really using binding with the value converter binding so I would need to resort to hard coding my enum values as the ValueConverter parameter which is not acceptable. If anybody has seen a good example of how to do this sanely I would greatly appreciate any input. Side Note: This has been a problem I've had in the past too while trying to wrap my head around how dependency properties don't allow calculated or deferred values. Another example is when one may want to expose a property on a child control as a property on the parent. Most suggest in this case to use binding but that only works if the child controls property is a Dependency Property since placing the binding so that the target is the parent property it would be overwritten when the user of the parent control wants to set their own binding for that property.

    Read the article

  • Visualforce dataTable: is there a way to stop it from rendering cellpadding attribute?

    - by codeulike
    In Visualforce, I'm using an <apex:dataTable> component as follows: <apex:dataTable value="{!Qualifications}" var="qual" styleClass="cv_table" > <!-- etc... --> ... and then I'm using CSS to style the table, via the class name. Trouble is, VisualForce renders HTML like this: <table class="cv_table" id="j_id0:j_id26" border="0" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0"> <!-- etc... --> The class attribute is there as I wanted, but there's also cellpadding and cellspacing specified, that interfere with my CSS. Is there a way to stop Visualforce from rendering the cellpadding and cellspacing attributes for an <apex:dataTable>?

    Read the article

  • How can I test to see if a class contains a particular attribute?

    - by BryanWheelock
    How can I test to see if a class contains a particular attribute? In [14]: user = User.objects.get(pk=2) In [18]: user.__dict__ Out[18]: {'date_joined': datetime.datetime(2010, 3, 17, 15, 20, 45), 'email': u'[email protected]', 'first_name': u'', 'id': 2L, 'is_active': 1, 'is_staff': 0, 'is_superuser': 0, 'last_login': datetime.datetime(2010, 3, 17, 16, 15, 35), 'last_name': u'', 'password': u'sha1$44a2055f5', 'username': u'DickCheney'} In [25]: hasattr(user, 'username') Out[25]: True In [26]: hasattr(User, 'username') Out[26]: False I'm having a weird bug where more attributes are showing up than I actually define. I want to conditionally stop this. e.g. if not hasattr(User, 'karma'): User.add_to_class('karma', models.PositiveIntegerField(default=1))

    Read the article

  • Why do properties behave this way?

    - by acidzombie24
    from http://csharpindepth.com/Articles/Chapter8/PropertiesMatter.aspx using System; struct MutableStruct { public int Value { get; set; } public void SetValue(int newValue) { Value = newValue; } } class MutableStructHolder { public MutableStruct Field; public MutableStruct Property { get; set; } } class Test { static void Main(string[] args) { MutableStructHolder holder = new MutableStructHolder(); // Affects the value of holder.Field holder.Field.SetValue(10); // Retrieves holder.Property as a copy and changes the copy holder.Property.SetValue(10); Console.WriteLine(holder.Field.Value); Console.WriteLine(holder.Property.Value); } } 1) Why is a copy (of Property?) being made? 2) When changing the code to holder.Field.value and holder.Property.value = 10 i get the error below. That just blew my mind Error 1 Cannot modify the return value of 'MutableStructHolder.Property' because it is not a variable Why would i ever not be allowed to assign a value inside of a property!?! both property are get/set! and finally WHY would you EVER want behavior mentioned in 1 and 2. (It never came up for me, i always used get only properties). Please explain well, i cant imagine ever wanting the 2nd much less then the first. It is just so weird to me.

    Read the article

  • Why is the form action attribute empty on production server?

    - by Ozzy
    After deploying a ASP.NET WebForms application to a production server some of the ajax calls has stopped working for me. After some debugging I found out that the following statement (in the internal client-method WebForm_DoCallback) was causing the problem: xmlRequest.open("POST", action, true); The problem seemed to be that the action-variable was empty so after checking the rendered html I found out that the form-tag rendered on the production server looks like: <form method="post" action="" id="Form1"> However, on my developer machine I get the following: <form method="post" action="default.aspx" id="Form1"> So, why would the action-attibute render on my dev.machine but not on the production server? This seems to be the case only for one specific web form, when I look on other pages the action-attribute renders correctly. Any suggestions or ideas would be helpful!

    Read the article

  • New asp "showat" attribute required inconsistently in VS2010. Why?

    - by Patrick Karcher
    When I generate code using T4 templates in Visual Studio 2010, I get the following error for each of my asp controls when I try to compile: Control "ddState" is missing required attribute "showat". I have never gotten this error in previous versions of .NET. Further, I don't get this error when I manually construct my pages either by dragging/dropping, nor do I get it when I type out the control text myself. When I generate code, I have to manually add showat="client" to my tag for the compiler to be happy. It was my understanding that I never had to explicitly specify this tag. The following: <asp:dropdownlist id="ddState" runat="server" showat="client" /> solves the problem. Why do I have to add this to generated code but not other times? (It's a VS-2010 webforms project, using VB, in case that makes a difference.)

    Read the article

  • Will CSS attribute selector work to style this element?

    - by morktron
    Hi, I have the following html: <div class="bf_form_row"> <label for="findout">Text goes here</label> <textarea class="findOut" cols="40" id="findout" name="findout" rows="10"></textarea> </div> I trying to work out how to style the 'label' element without being able to change the html. Ideally I'd like to style all 'label' elements that come before 'textarea' elements but I don't think it is possible using just CSS. I thought this attribute selector would work: label[for="findout"] { width: 100%; } but no, any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Why does an onclick property set with setAttribute fail to work in IE?

    - by Aeon
    Ran into this problem today, posting in case someone else has the same issue. var execBtn = document.createElement('input'); execBtn.setAttribute("type", "button"); execBtn.setAttribute("id", "execBtn"); execBtn.setAttribute("value", "Execute"); execBtn.setAttribute("onclick", "runCommand();"); Turns out to get IE to run an onclick on a dynamically generated element, we can't use setAttribute. Instead, we need to set the onclick property on the object with an anonymous function wrapping the code we want to run. execBtn.onclick = function() { runCommand() }; BAD IDEAS: You can do execBtn.setAttribute("onclick", function() { runCommand() }); but it will break in IE in non-standards mode according to @scunliffe. You can't do this at all execBtn.setAttribute("onclick", runCommand() ); because it executes immediately, and sets the result of runCommand() to be the onClick attribute value, nor can you do execBtn.setAttribute("onclick", runCommand);

    Read the article

  • How can I override an HTML "rules" attribute using CSS?

    - by ajoten
    The DITA Open Toolkit automatically inflicts some inline table attributes when one publishes to HTML, including frame="border" and rules="all". I need to override this "rules" attribute using CSS styles for cells, and while I can get the desired result in IE and Chrome, Firefox puts solid black gridlines in the table and refuses to budge on the matter. Obviously I can't edit the HTML, company policy is to not edit the XSLT, so how can I remove these gridlines using CSS alone? I've tried various cunning combinations of border-xxxxxx styles and given them !important declarations to no effect. Thanks, Andrew

    Read the article

  • Is there a standard .NET exception to throw when a class doesn't implement a required attribute?

    - by a typing monkey
    Suppose I want to throw a new exception when invoking a generic method with a type that doesn't have a required attribute. Is there a .NET exception that's appropriate for this situation, or, more likely, one that would be a suitable ancestor for a custom exception? For example: public static class ClassA { public static T DoSomething<T>(string p) { Type returnType = typeof(T); object[] typeAttributes = returnType.GetCustomAttributes(typeof(SerializableAttribute), true); if ((typeAttributes == null) || (typeAttributes.Length == 0)) { // Is there an exception type in the framework that I should use/inherit from here? throw new Exception("This class doesn't support blah blah blah"); // Maybe ArgumentException? That doesn't seem to fit right. } } } Thanks.

    Read the article

  • VB.NET class inherits a base class and implements an interface issue (works in C#)

    - by 300 baud
    I am trying to create a class in VB.NET which inherits a base abstract class and also implements an interface. The interface declares a string property called Description. The base class contains a string property called Description. The main class inherits the base class and implements the interface. The existence of the Description property in the base class fulfills the interface requirements. This works fine in C# but causes issues in VB.NET. First, here is an example of the C# code which works: public interface IFoo { string Description { get; set; } } public abstract class FooBase { public string Description { get; set; } } public class MyFoo : FooBase, IFoo { } Now here is the VB.NET version which gives a compiler error: Public Interface IFoo Property Description() As String End Interface Public MustInherit Class FooBase Private _Description As String Public Property Description() As String Get Return _Description End Get Set(ByVal value As String) _Description = value End Set End Property End Class Public Class MyFoo Inherits FooBase Implements IFoo End Class If I make the base class (FooBase) implement the interface and add the Implements IFoo.Description to the property all is good, but I do not want the base class to implement the interface. The compiler error is: Class 'MyFoo' must implement 'Property Description() As String' for interface 'IFoo'. Implementing property must have matching 'ReadOnly' or 'WriteOnly' specifiers. Can VB.NET not handle this, or do I need to change my syntax somewhere to get this to work?

    Read the article

  • Using unmanaged code, how can I find a type that has a given custom attribute assigned to it?

    - by Andrew
    I had thought I could enumerate the types using IMetaDataImport.EnumTypeDefs and for each of the tokens returned, call IMetaDataImport.EnumCustomAttributes. This works, in so much as I get an array of mdCustomAttribute tokens. Using these tokens I can get a metadata token representing the Type of the returned custom attribute, by calling IMetaDataImport.GetCustomAttributeProps. Comparing my results against ILDASM, I can see that this matches the "CustomAttribute Type" that ILDASM reports. However, I cannot work out how to determine the "CustomAttributeName" that ILDASM reports. This is what I really want! While I would be interested in knowing how to get the CustomAttributeName, I would settle for an alternate approach to solving the problem.

    Read the article

  • How to set up precision attribute used by @Collumn annotation ???

    - by Arthur Ronald F D Garcia
    I often use java.lang.Integer as primary key. Here you can see some piece of code @Entity private class Person { private Integer id; @Id @Column(precision=8, nullable=false) public Integer getId() { } } I need to set up its precision attribute value equal to 8. But, when exporting The schema (Oracle), it does not work as expected. AnnotationConfiguration configuration = new AnnotationConfiguration(); configuration .addAnnotatedClass(Person.class) .setProperty(Environment.DIALECT, "org.hibernate.dialect.OracleDialect") .setProperty(Environment.DRIVER, "oracle.jdbc.driver.OracleDriver"); SchemaExport schema = new SchemaExport(configuration); schema.setOutputFile("schema.sql"); schema.create(true, false); schema.sql outputs create table Person (id number(10,0) not null) Always i get 10. Is There some workaround to get 8 instead of 10 ?

    Read the article

  • Should my validator have access to my entire model?

    - by wb
    As the title states I'm wondering if it's a good idea for my validation class to have access to all properties from my model. Ideally, I would like to do that because some fields require 10+ other fields to verify whether it is valid or not. I could but would rather not have functions with 10+ parameters. Or would that make the model and validator too coupled with one another? Here is a little example of what I mean. This code however does not work because it give an infinite loop! Class User Private m_UserID Private m_Validator Public Sub Class_Initialize() End Sub Public Property Let Validator(value) Set m_Validator = value m_Validator.Initialize(Me) End Property Public Property Get Validator() Validator = m_Validator End Property Public Property Let UserID(value) m_UserID = value End property Public Property Get UserID() UserID = m_Validator.IsUserIDValid() End property End Class Class Validator Private m_User Public Sub Class_Initialize() End Sub Public Sub Initialize(value) Set m_User = value End Sub Public Function IsUserIDValid() IsUserIDValid = m_User.UserID > 13 End Function End Class Dim mike : Set mike = New User mike.UserID = 123456 mike.Validator = New Validator Response.Write mike.UserID If I'm right and it is a good idea, how can I go a head and fix the infinite loop with the get property UserID? Thank you.

    Read the article

  • How do I get property injection working in Ninject for a ValidationAttribute in MVC?

    - by jaltiere
    I have a validation attribute set up where I need to hit the database to accomplish the validation. I tried setting up property injection the same way I do elsewhere in the project but it's not working. What step am I missing? public class ApplicationIDValidAttribute : ValidationAttribute { [Inject] protected IRepository<MyType> MyRepo; public override bool IsValid(object value) { if (value == null) return true; int id; if (!Int32.TryParse(value.ToString(), out id)) return false; // MyRepo is null here and is never injected var obj= MyRepo.LoadById(id); return (obj!= null); } One other thing to point out, I have the Ninject kernel set up to inject non-public properties, so I don't think that is the problem. I'm using Ninject 2, MVC 2, and the MVC 2 version of Ninject.Web.MVC. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • ASP MVC C#: Is it possible to pass dynamic values into an attribute?

    - by wh0emPah
    Okay I'm very new to C# and i'm trying to create a little website using ASP MVC2. I want to create my own authorization attribute. but i need to pass some values if this is possible. For example: [CustomAuthorize(GroupID = Method Parameter?] public ActionResult DoSomething(int GroupID) { return View(""); } I want to authorize the access to a page. but it depends on the value passed to the controller. So the authorization depends on the groupID. Is this possible to achieve this in any way?. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Spring validation has error in XML document from ServletContext resource

    - by user1441404
    I applied spring validation in my registration page .but the follwing error are shown in my server log of my app engine server. javax.servlet.UnavailableException: org.springframework.beans.factory.xml.XmlBeanDefinitionStoreException: Line 22 in XML document from ServletContext resource [/WEB-INF/spring/appServlet/servlet-context.xml] is invalid; nested exception is org.xml.sax.SAXParseException; lineNumber: 22; columnNumber: 30; cvc-complex-type.2.4.c: The matching wildcard is strict, but no declaration can be found for element 'property'. My code is given below : <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <beans:beans xmlns="http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:beans="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans" xmlns:context="http://www.springframework.org/schema/context" xsi:schemaLocation="http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc/spring-mvc-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans/spring-beans-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/context http://www.springframework.org/schema/context/spring-context-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/aop http://www.springframework.org/schema/aop/spring-aop-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/jee http://www.springframework.org/schema/jee/spring-jee-3.0.xsd > <beans:bean name="/register" class="com.my.registration.NewUserRegistration"> <property name="validator"> <bean class="com.my.validation.UserValidator" /> </property> <beans:property name="formView" value="newuser"></beans:property> <beans:property name="successView" value="home"></beans:property> </beans:bean> <beans:bean class="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.InternalResourceViewResolver"> <beans:property name="prefix" value="/WEB-INF/views/" /> <beans:property name="suffix" value=".jsp" /> </beans:bean> </beans:beans>

    Read the article

  • C# - Custom Attributes - Setting an attribute property to the type of the decorated class.

    - by cmaduro
    Is it possible to get the decorated class' type inside of the custom attribute's class? For example: [MetadataAttribute] [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Class | AttributeTargets.Property, AllowMultiple = false)] public class ViewAttribute : ExportAttribute { public object TargetRegion { get; set; } public Type ViewModel { get; set; } public Type Module { get; set; } public ViewAttribute() : base(typeof(UserControl)) { Module = GetDecoratedClassType(); //I need this method } } In the following example GetDecoratedClassType() would return HomeView [View] HomeView MyHomeView { get; set; }

    Read the article

  • Stop invalid data in a attribute with foreign key constraint using triggers?

    - by Eternal Learner
    How to specify a trigger which checks if the data inserted into a tables foreign key attribute, actually exists in the references table. If it exist no action should be performed , else the trigger should delete the inserted tuple. Eg: Consider have 2 tables R(A int Primary Key) and S(B int Primary Key , A int Foreign Key References R(A) ) . I have written a trigger like this : Create Trigger DelS BEFORE INSERT ON S FOR EACH ROW BEGIN Delete FROM S where New.A <> ( Select * from R;) ); End; I am sure I am making a mistake while specifying the inner sub query within the Begin and end Blocks of the trigger. My question is how do I make such a trigger ?

    Read the article

  • Why is new showat attribute required when using code generation?

    - by Patrick Karcher
    When I generate code using T4 templates in Visual Studio 2010, I get the following error for each of my asp controls when I try to compile: Control "ddState" is missing required attribute "showat". I have never gotten this error in previous versions of .NET. Further, I don't get this error when I manually construct my pages either by dragging/dropping, nor do I get it when I type out the control text myself. When I generate code, I have to manually add showat="client" to my tag for the compiler to be happy. It was my understanding that I never had to explicitly specify this tag. The following: <asp:dropdownlist id="ddState" runat="server" showat="client" /> solves the problem. Why do I have to add this to generated code but not other times? (It's a VS-2010 webforms project, using VB, in case that makes a difference.)

    Read the article

  • What is the role of name="..." attribute in input?

    - by metal-gear-solid
    In this form code what is the role of name="" attribute? name="s" and name="submit". Is it necessary to add? <form action="/index.php" method="get"> <fieldset> <legend>Search</legend> <label for="s"><span>Search WaSP</span> <input value="" name="s" id="s"></label> <input type="submit" value="Go!" name="submit" > </fieldset> </form>

    Read the article

  • SvcUtil and /dconly generates XSD's for data types NOT marked with the DataContract attribute.

    - by Bellerephon
    Has anyone ever encountered a problem with Svcutil and the /dconly option where it generates metadata for EVERY data type in an Assembly, even if it is NOT marked with with the [DataContract()] attribute? It also appears to be generating metadata for types only referenced in the code, such as XmlDictionaryReaderQuotas even though these are not a part of the physical assembly that I generated metadata on. Some info: Using the .NET 4.0 version of SvcUtil. Does not matter if class is empty or not. No references are specified in the command line for SvcUtil. Command line: "C:\In Progress Work (Prospective)\Prospective Server\Prospective Server\Management\Prospective.Server.Server.NET40.Debug.AnyCPU.dll" /nologo /t:metadata /d:"C:\In Progress Work (Prospective)\Prospective Server\Prospective Server\Management" /dconly

    Read the article

  • How can I make an aggregated property support ActiveRecord::Dirty semantics?

    - by Eric
    I have an aggregated attribute which I want to be able ask about its _changed? ness, etc. composed_of :range, :class_name => 'Range', :mapping => [ %w(range_begin begin), %w(range_end end)], :allow_nil => true If I use the aggregation: foo.range = 1..10 This is what I get: foo.range # => 1..10 foo.range_changed? # NoMethodError foo.range_was # ditto foo.changed # ['range_begin', 'range_end'] So basically, I'm not getting ActiveRecord::Dirty semanitcs on aggregated attributes. Is there any way to do that? I'm not having a lot of luck with alias_attribute_with_dirty, etc.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112  | Next Page >