Search Results

Search found 2991 results on 120 pages for 'actions'.

Page 107/120 | < Previous Page | 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114  | Next Page >

  • What benefits are there to storing Javascript in external files vs in the <head>?

    - by RenderIn
    I have an Ajax-enabled CRUD application. If I display a record from my database it shows that record's values for each column, including its primary key. For the Ajax actions tied to buttons on the page I am able to set up their calls by printing the ID directly into their onclick functions when rendering the HTML server-side. For example, to save changes to the record I may have a button as follows, with '123' being the primary key of the record. <button type="button" onclick="saveRecord('123')">Save</button> Sometimes I have pages with Javascript generating HTML and Javascript. In some of these cases the primary key is not naturally available at that place in the code. In these cases I took a shortcut and generate buttons like so, taking the primary key from a place it happens to be displayed on screen for visual consumption: ... <td>Primary Key: </td> <td><span id="PRIM_KEY">123</span></td> ... <button type="button" onclick="saveRecord(jQuery('#PRIM_KEY').text())">DoSomething</button> This definitely works, but it seems wrong to drive database queries based on the value of text whose purpose was user consumption rather than method consumption. I could solve this by adding a series of additional parameters to various methods to usher the primary key along until it is eventually needed, but that also seems clunky. The most natural way for me to solve this problem would be to simply situate all the Javascript which currently lives in external files, in the <head> of the page. In that way I could generate custom Javascript methods without having to pass around as many parameters. Other than readability, I'm struggling to see what benefit there is to storing Javascript externally. It seems like it makes the already weak marriage between HTML/DOM and Javascript all the more distant. I've seen some people suggest that I leave the Javascript external, but do set various "custom" variables on the page itself, for example, in PHP: <script type="text/javascript"> var primaryKey = <?php print $primaryKey; ?>; </script> <script type="text/javascript" src="my-external-js-file-depending-on-primaryKey-being-set.js"></script> How is this any better than just putting all the Javascript on the page in the first place? There HTML and Javascript are still strongly dependent on each other.

    Read the article

  • Symfony : ajax call cause server to queue next queries

    - by Remiz
    Hello, I've a problem with my application when an ajax call on the server takes too much time : it queue all the others queries from the user until it's done server side (I realized that canceling the call client side has no effect and the user still have to wait). Here is my test case : <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery-1.4.1.min.js"></script> <a href="another-page.php">Go to another page on the same server</a> <script type="text/javascript"> url = 'http://localserver/some-very-long-complex-query'; $.get(url); </script> So when the get is fired and then after I click on the link, the server finish serving the first call before bringing me to the other page. My problem is that I want to avoid this behavior. I'm on a LAMP server and I'm looking in a way to inform the server that the user aborted the query with function like connection_aborted(), do you think that's the way to go ? Also, I know that the longest part of this PHP script is a MySQL query, so even if I know that connection_aborted() can detect that the user cancel the call, I still need to check this during the MySQL query... I'm not really sure that PHP can handle this kind of "event". So if you have any better idea, I can't wait to hear it. Thank you. Update : After further investigation, I found that the problem happen only with the Symfony framework (that I omitted to precise, my bad). It seems that an Ajax call lock any other future call. It maybe related to the controller or the routing system, I'm looking into it. Also for those interested by the problem here is my new test case : -new project with Symfony 1.4.3, default configuration, I just created an app and a default module. -jquery 1.4 for the ajax query. Here is my actions.class.php (in my unique module) : class defaultActions extends sfActions { public function executeIndex(sfWebRequest $request) { //Do nothing } public function executeNewpage() { //Do also nothing } public function executeWaitingaction(){ // Wait sleep(30); return false; } } Here is my indexSuccess.php template file : <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery-1.4.1.min.js"></script> <a href="<?php echo url_for('default/newpage');?>">Go to another symfony action</a> <script type="text/javascript"> url = '<?php echo url_for('default/waitingaction');?>'; $.get(url); </script> For the new page template, it's not very relevant... But with this, I'm able to reproduce the lock problem I've on my real application. Is somebody else having the same issue ? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Precise explanation of JavaScript <-> DOM circular reference issue

    - by Joey Adams
    One of the touted advantages of jQuery.data versus raw expando properties (arbitrary attributes you can assign to DOM nodes) is that jQuery.data is "safe from circular references and therefore free from memory leaks". An article from Google titled "Optimizing JavaScript code" goes into more detail: The most common memory leaks for web applications involve circular references between the JavaScript script engine and the browsers' C++ objects' implementing the DOM (e.g. between the JavaScript script engine and Internet Explorer's COM infrastructure, or between the JavaScript engine and Firefox XPCOM infrastructure). It lists two examples of circular reference patterns: DOM element → event handler → closure scope → DOM DOM element → via expando → intermediary object → DOM element However, if a reference cycle between a DOM node and a JavaScript object produces a memory leak, doesn't this mean that any non-trivial event handler (e.g. onclick) will produce such a leak? I don't see how it's even possible for an event handler to avoid a reference cycle, because the way I see it: The DOM element references the event handler. The event handler references the DOM (either directly or indirectly). In any case, it's almost impossible to avoid referencing window in any interesting event handler, short of writing a setInterval loop that reads actions from a global queue. Can someone provide a precise explanation of the JavaScript ↔ DOM circular reference problem? Things I'd like clarified: What browsers are effected? A comment in the jQuery source specifically mentions IE6-7, but the Google article suggests Firefox is also affected. Are expando properties and event handlers somehow different concerning memory leaks? Or are both of these code snippets susceptible to the same kind of memory leak? // Create an expando that references to its own element. var elem = document.getElementById('foo'); elem.myself = elem; // Create an event handler that references its own element. var elem = document.getElementById('foo'); elem.onclick = function() { elem.style.display = 'none'; }; If a page leaks memory due to a circular reference, does the leak persist until the entire browser application is closed, or is the memory freed when the window/tab is closed?

    Read the article

  • JPA entity design / cannot delete entity

    - by timaschew
    I though its simple what I want, but I cannot find any solution for my problem. I'm using playframework 1.2.3 and it's using Hibernate as JPA. So I think playframework has nothing to do with the problem. I have some classes (I omit the nonrelevant fields) public class User { ... } public class Task { public DataContainer dataContainer; } public class DataContainer { public Session session; public User user; } public class Session { ... } So I have association from Task to DataContainer and from DataContainer to Sesssion and the DataContainer belongs to a User. The DataContainers can have always the same User, but the Session have to be different for each instance. And the DataContainer of a Task have also to be different in each instance. A DataContainer can have a Sesesion or not (it's optinal). I use only unidirectional assoc. It should be sufficient. In other words: Every Task must has one DataContainer. Every DataContainer must has one/the same User and can have one Session. To create a DB schema I use JPA annotations: @Entity public class User extends Model { ... } @Entity public class Task extends Model { @OneToOne(optional = false, cascade = CascadeType.ALL) public DataContainer dataContainer; } @Entity public class DataContainer extends Model { @OneToOne(optional = true, cascade = CascadeType.ALL) public Session session; @ManyToOne(optional = false, cascade = CascadeType.ALL) public User user; } @Entity public class Session extends Model { ... } BTW: Model is a play class and provides the primary id as long type. When I create some for each entity a object and 'connect them', I mean the associations, it works fine. But when I try to delete a Session, I get a constraint violation exception, because a DataContainer still refers to the Session I want to delete. I want that the Session (field) of the DataContainer will be set to null respectively the foreign key (session_id) should be unset in the database. This will be okay, because its optional. I don't know, I think I have multiple problems. Am I using the right annotation @OneToOne ? I found on the internet some additional annotation and attributes: @JoinColumn and a mappedBy attribute for the inverse relationship. But I don't have it, because its not bidirectional. Or is a bidirectional assoc. essentially? Another try was to use @OnDelete(action = OnDeleteAction.CASCADE) the the contraint changed from NO ACTIONs when update or delete to: ADD CONSTRAINT fk4745c17e6a46a56 FOREIGN KEY (session_id) REFERENCES annotation_session (id) MATCH SIMPLE ON UPDATE NO ACTION ON DELETE CASCADE; But in this case, when I delete a session, the DataContainer and User is deleted. That's wrong for me. EDIT: I'm using postgresql 9, the jdbc stuff is included in play, my only db config is db=postgres://app:app@localhost:5432/app

    Read the article

  • Consolidating coding styles: Funcs, private method, single method classes

    - by jdoig
    Hi all, We currently have 3 devs with, some, conflicting styles and I'm looking for a way to bring peace to the kingdom... The Coders: Foo 1: Likes to use Func's & Action's inside public methods. He uses actions to alias off lengthy method calls and Func's to perform simple tasks that can be expressed in 1 or 2 lines and will be used frequently through out the code Pros: The main body of his code is succinct and very readable, often with only one or 2 public methods per class and rarely any private methods. Cons: The start of methods contain blocks of lambda rich code that other developers don't enjoy reading; and, on occasion, can contain higher order functions that other dev's REALLY don't like reading. Foo 2: Likes to create a private method for (almost) everything the public method will have to do . Pros: Public methods remain small and readable (to all developers). Cons: Private methods are numerous. With private methods that call into other private methods, that call into... etc, etc. Making code hard to navigate. Foo 3: Likes to create a public class with a, single, public method for every, non-trivial, task that needs performing, then dependency inject them into other objects. Pros: Easily testable, easy to understand (one object, one responsibility). Cons: project gets littered by classes, opening multiple class files to understand what code does makes navigation awkward. It would be great to take the best of all these techniques... Foo-1 Has really nice, readable (almost dsl-like) code... for the most part, except for all the Action and Func lambda shenanigans bulked together at the start of a method. Foo-3 Has highly testable and extensible code that just feels a bit "belt-&-braces" for some solutions and has some code-navigation niggles (constantly hitting F12 in VS and opening 5 other .cs files to find out what a single method does). And Foo-2... Well I'm not sure I like anything about the one-huge .cs file with 2 public methods and 12 private ones, except for the fact it's easier for juniors to dig into. I admit I grossly over-simplified the explanations of those coding styles; but if any one knows of any patterns, practices or diplomatic-manoeuvres that can help unite our three developers (without just telling any of them to just "stop it!") that would be great. From a feasibility standpoint : Foo-1's style meets with the most resistance due to some developers finding lambda and/or Func's hard to read. Foo-2's style meets with a less resistance as it's just so easy to fall into. Foo-3's style requires the most forward thinking and is difficult to enforce when time is short. Any ideas on some coding styles or conventions that can make this work?

    Read the article

  • How does Sentry aggregate errors?

    - by Hugo Rodger-Brown
    I am using Sentry (in a django project), and I'd like to know how I can get the errors to aggregate properly. I am logging certain user actions as errors, so there is no underlying system exception, and am using the culprit attribute to set a friendly error name. The message is templated, and contains a common message ("User 'x' was unable to perform action because 'y'"), but is never exactly the same (different users, different conditions). Sentry clearly uses some set of attributes under the hood to determine whether to aggregate errors as the same exception, but despite having looked through the code, I can't work out how. Can anyone short-cut my having to dig further into the code and tell me what properties I need to set in order to manage aggregation as I would like? [UPDATE 1: event grouping] This line appears in sentry.models.Group: class Group(MessageBase): """ Aggregated message which summarizes a set of Events. """ ... class Meta: unique_together = (('project', 'logger', 'culprit', 'checksum'),) ... Which makes sense - project, logger and culprit I am setting at the moment - the problem is checksum. I will investigate further, however 'checksum' suggests that binary equivalence, which is never going to work - it must be possible to group instances of the same exception, with differenct attributes? [UPDATE 2: event checksums] The event checksum comes from the sentry.manager.get_checksum_from_event method: def get_checksum_from_event(event): for interface in event.interfaces.itervalues(): result = interface.get_hash() if result: hash = hashlib.md5() for r in result: hash.update(to_string(r)) return hash.hexdigest() return hashlib.md5(to_string(event.message)).hexdigest() Next stop - where do the event interfaces come from? [UPDATE 3: event interfaces] I have worked out that interfaces refer to the standard mechanism for describing data passed into sentry events, and that I am using the standard sentry.interfaces.Message and sentry.interfaces.User interfaces. Both of these will contain different data depending on the exception instance - and so a checksum will never match. Is there any way that I can exclude these from the checksum calculation? (Or at least the User interface value, as that has to be different - the Message interface value I could standardise.) [UPDATE 4: solution] Here are the two get_hash functions for the Message and User interfaces respectively: # sentry.interfaces.Message def get_hash(self): return [self.message] # sentry.interfaces.User def get_hash(self): return [] Looking at these two, only the Message.get_hash interface will return a value that is picked up by the get_checksum_for_event method, and so this is the one that will be returned (hashed etc.) The net effect of this is that the the checksum is evaluated on the message alone - which in theory means that I can standardise the message and keep the user definition unique. I've answered my own question here, but hopefully my investigation is of use to others having the same problem. (As an aside, I've also submitted a pull request against the Sentry documentation as part of this ;-)) (Note to anyone using / extending Sentry with custom interfaces - if you want to avoid your interface being use to group exceptions, return an empty list.)

    Read the article

  • Possible bug with tabified QDockWidget and setFloating()

    - by krunk
    I've run into some odd behavior with tabified QDockWidgets, below is an example program with comments that demonstrates the behavior. Is this a bug or is it expected behavior and I'm missing some nuance in QDockWidget that causes this? Directly, since this does not work, how would one properly "undock" a hidden QDockWidget then display it? #include <QApplication> #include <QMainWindow> #include <QAction> #include <QDockWidget> #include <QMenu> #include <QSize> #include <QMenuBar> using namespace std; int main (int argc, char* argv[]) { QApplication app(argc, argv); QMainWindow window; QDockWidget dock1(&window); QDockWidget dock2(&window); QMenu menu("View"); dock1.setAllowedAreas(Qt::LeftDockWidgetArea | Qt::RightDockWidgetArea); dock2.setAllowedAreas(Qt::LeftDockWidgetArea | Qt::RightDockWidgetArea); dock1.setWindowTitle("Dock One"); dock2.setWindowTitle("Dock Two"); window.addDockWidget(Qt::RightDockWidgetArea, &dock1); window.addDockWidget(Qt::RightDockWidgetArea, &dock2); window.menuBar()->addMenu(&menu); window.setMinimumSize(QSize(800, 600)); window.tabifyDockWidget(&dock1, &dock2); dock1.hide(); dock2.hide(); menu.addAction(dock1.toggleViewAction()); menu.addAction(dock2.toggleViewAction()); window.show(); // Below is where the oddness starts. It seems to only exhibit the // behavior if the dock widgets are tabified. // Odd behavior here // This does not work. the window never shows, though its menu action shows // checked. Not only does this window not show up, but all toggle actions // for all dock windows (e.g. dock1 and dock2) are broken for the duration // of the application loop. // dock1.setFloating(true); // dock1.show(); // This does work. . . of course only if you do _not_ run the above first. // however, you can often get a little lag or "blip" in the rendering as // the dock is shown docked before setFloating is set to true. dock1.show(); dock1.setFloating(true); return app.exec(); }

    Read the article

  • Grouping php array items based on user and created time

    - by Jim
    This is an array of objects showing a user uploading photos: Array ( [12] => stdClass Object ( [type] => photo [created] => 2010-05-14 23:36:41 [user] => stdClass Object ( [id] => 760 [username] => mrsmith ) [photo] => stdClass Object ( [id] => 4181 ) ) [44] => stdClass Object ( [type] => photo [created] => 2010-05-14 23:37:15 [user] => stdClass Object ( [id] => 760 [username] => mrsmith ) [photo] => stdClass Object ( [id] => 4180 ) ) ) However instead of showing: mr smith uploaded one photo mr smith uploaded one photo I'd like to display: mr smith uploaded two photos by grouping similar items, grouping by user ID and them having added them within, let's say 15 minutes of each other. So I'd like to get the array in this sort of shape: Array ( [12] => stdClass Object ( [type] => photo [created] => 2010-05-14 23:36:41 [user] => stdClass Object ( [id] => 760 [username] => mrsmith ) [photos] => Array ( [0] => stdClass Object ( [id] => 4181 ) [1] => stdClass Object ( [id] => 4180 ) ) ) ) preserving the first item of the group and it's created time, and supplementing it with any other groupable photos and then unsetting any items that were grouped (so the final array doesn't have key 44 anymore as it was grouped in with 12). The array contains other actions than just photos, hence the original keys of 12 and 44. I just can't figure out a way to do this efficiently. I used to use MySQL and PHP to do this but am trying to just use pure PHP for caching reasons. Can anyone shed any insights? I thought about going through each item and seeing if I can group it with the previous one in the array but the previous one might not necessarily be relevant or even a photo. I've got total brain freeze :(

    Read the article

  • How not to abort http response c#

    - by user194076
    I need to run several methods after sending file to a user for a download. What happens is that after I send a file to a user, response is aborted and I can no longer do anything after response.end(). for example, this is my sample code: Response.Clear(); Response.AddHeader("content-disposition", "attachment; filename=test.pdf"); Response.ContentType = "application/pdf"; byte[] a = System.Text.Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes("test"); Response.BinaryWrite(a); Response.End(); StartNextMethod(); Response.Redirect(URL); So, in this example StartNextMethod and Response.Redirect are not executing. What I tried is I created a separate handler(ashx) with the following code: public void ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) { context.Response.Clear(); context.Response.AddHeader("content-disposition", "attachment; filename=test.pdf"); context.Response.ContentType = "application/pdf"; byte[] a = System.Text.Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes("test"); context.Response.BinaryWrite(a); context.Response.End(); } and call it like this: Download d = new Download(); d.ProcessRequest(HttpContext.Current); StartNextMethod(); Response.Redirect(URL); but the same error happen. I've tryied to replace Response.End with CompleteRequest but it doesn't help. I guess the problem is that I'm using HttpContext.Current but should use a separate response stream. Is that correct? how do I do that in a separate method generically (Assume that I want my handler to accept byte array of data and content type and be downloadable from a separate response. I really do not want to use a separate page for a response. UPDATE I still didn't find a good solution. I'd like to do some actions after user has downloaded a file, but without using a separate page for a response\request thing.

    Read the article

  • MVC pattern implementation. What is the n-relation between its components

    - by Srodriguez
    Dear all, I'm working in a C# project and we are , in order to get some unity across the different parts of our UI, trying to use the MVC pattern. The client is windows form based and I'm trying to create a simple MVC pattern implementation. It's been more challenging than expected, but I still have some questions regarding the MVC pattern. The problem comes mostly from the n-n relationships between its components: Here is what I've understood, but I'm not sure at all of it. Maybe someone can correct me? Model: can be shared among different Views. 1-n relationship between Model-View View: shows the state of the model. only one controller (can be shared among different views?). 1-1 relationship with the Model, 1-1 relationship with the controller Controller: handles the user actions on the view and updates the model. One controller can be shared among different views, a controller interacts only with one model? I'm not sure about the two last ones: Can a view have several controller? Or can a view share a controller with another view? Or is it only a 1:1 relationship? Can a controller handle several views? can it interact with several models? Also, I take advantage of this question to ask another MVC related question. I've suppressed all the synchronous calls between the different members of the MVC, making use of the events and delegates. One last call is still synchronous and is actually the most important one: The call between the view and the controller is still synchronous, as I need to know rather the controller has been able to handle the user's action or not. This is very bad as it means that I could block the UI thread (hence the client itself) while the controller is processing or doing some work. How can I avoid this? I can make use of the callback but then how do i know to which event the callback comes from? PS: I can't change the pattern at this stage, so please avoid answers of type "use MVP or MVVC, etc ;) Thanks!

    Read the article

  • MVC pattern implementation. What is the n-relation between its components

    - by Srodriguez
    Dear all, I'm working in a C# project and we are , in order to get some unity across the different parts of our UI, trying to use the MVC pattern. The client is windows form based and I'm trying to create a simple MVC pattern implementation. It's been more challenging than expected, but I still have some questions regarding the MVC pattern. The problem comes mostly from the n-n relationships between its components: Here is what I've understood, but I'm not sure at all of it. Maybe someone can correct me? Model: can be shared among different Views. 1-n relationship between Model-View View: shows the state of the model. only one controller (can be shared among different views?). 1-1 relationship with the Model, 1-1 relationship with the controller Controller: handles the user actions on the view and updates the model. One controller can be shared among different views, a controller interacts only with one model? I'm not sure about the two last ones: Can a view have several controller? Or can a view share a controller with another view? Or is it only a 1:1 relationship? Can a controller handle several views? can it interact with several models? Also, I take advantage of this question to ask another MVC related question. I've suppressed all the synchronous calls between the different members of the MVC, making use of the events and delegates. One last call is still synchronous and is actually the most important one: The call between the view and the controller is still synchronous, as I need to know rather the controller has been able to handle the user's action or not. This is very bad as it means that I could block the UI thread (hence the client itself) while the controller is processing or doing some work. How can I avoid this? I can make use of the callback but then how do i know to which event the callback comes from? PS: I can't change the pattern at this stage, so please avoid answers of type "use MVP or MVVC, etc ;) Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Multiple checkbox values search javascript

    - by JV10
    I have a list of keywords, and I've created a checkbox for each. My template has a form wrapping the content, so I can't have a nested form around the checkbox list. How can I send the selected checkbox values to my search results page? The form that wraps the content doesn't have any actions or methods applied: <form id="BoostMasterForm" runat="server"> This the HTML markup of my checkbox list: <div class="checkboxes"> <ul> <li> <input type="checkbox" name="search" class="options" value="one"> <label>one</label> </li> <li> <input type="checkbox" name="search" class="options" value="two"> <label>two</label> </li> <li> <input type="checkbox" name="search" class="options" value="three"> <label>three</label> </li> </ul> <input type="submit" value="Submit"/> </div> How can I use javascript or jQuery to submit the values of the multiple checkbox selections and on submit action them to the following URL: '/imagery/image-search.aspx' The resulting URL for a search where option 1 and 3 are submitted should be: '/imagery/image-search.aspx?search=one%20three' I'm using this javascript that I found on another post, however I need it to append the form an the action and the method. My website is ASP, where this post is for a PHP site: Sending multiple checkbox options $('.options').click(function() { var selectedItems = new Array(); $(".checkboxes input:checkbox[name=search]:checked").each(function() {selectedItems.push($(this).val());}); var data = selectedItems.join('|'); $("#opts").val(data); }); If anyone can help, it'd be greatly appreciated. Cheers, JV

    Read the article

  • Java app makes screen display unresponsive after 10 minutes of user idle time

    - by Ross
    I've written a Java app that allows users to script mouse/keyboard input (JMacro, link not important, only for the curious). I personally use the application to automate character actions in an online game overnight while I sleep. Unfortunately, I keep coming back to the computer in the morning to find it unresponsive. Upon further testing, I'm finding that my application causes the computer to become unresponsive after about 10 minutes of user idle time (even if the application itself it simulating user activity). I can't seem to pin-point the issue, so I'm hoping somebody else might have a suggestion of where to look or what might be causing the issue. The relevant symptoms and characteristics: Unresponsiveness occurs after user is idle for 10 minutes User can still move the mouse pointer around the screen Everything but the mouse appears frozen... mouse clicks have no effect and no applications update their displays, including the Windows 7 desktop I left the task manager up along the with the app overnight so I could see the last task manager image before the screen freezes... the Java app is at normal CPU/Memory usage and total CPU usage is only ~1% After moving the mouse (in other words, the user comes back from being idle), the screen image starts updating again within 30 minutes (this is very hit and miss... sometimes 10 minutes, sometimes no results after two hours) User can CTRL-ALT-DEL to get to Windows 7's CTRL-ALT-DEL screen (after a 30 second pause). User is still able to move mouse pointer, but clicking any of the button options causes the screen to appear to freeze again On some very rare occasions, the system never freezes, and I come back to it in the morning with full responsiveness The Java app automatically stops input scripting in the middle of the night, so Windows 7 detects "real" idleness and turns the monitors into Standby mode... which they successfully come out of upon manually moving the mouse in the morning when I wake up, even though the desktop display still appears frozen Given the symptoms and characteristics of the issue, it's as if the Java app is causing the desktop display of the logged in user to stop updating, including any running applications. Programming concepts and Java packages used: Multi-threading Standard out and err are rerouted to a javax.swing.JTextArea The application uses a Swing GUI awt.Robot (very heavily used) awt.PointerInfo awt.MouseInfo System Specs: Windows 7 Professional Java 1.6.0 u17 In conclusion, I should stress that I'm not looking for any specific solutions, as I'm not asking a very specific question. I'm just wondering if anybody has run into a similar problem when using the Java libraries that I'm using. I would also gladly appreciate any suggestions for things to try to attempt to further pinpoint what is causing my problem. Thanks! Ross PS, I'll post an update/answer if I manage to stumble across anything else while I continue to debug this.

    Read the article

  • Runtime.exec causes duplicate JVM to hang indefinitely until killed (Solaris 10)

    - by John
    All, We are running a J2EE application on WebLogic server 9.2 MP2 with a jrockit 64-bit JVM (27.3.1) on Solaris 10. We call use runtime.exec to call an executable called jfmerge to create PDF documents. We have found that in Solaris, when runtime.exec is called, a duplicate JVM is temporarily spawned to kick off the jfmerge process. While this is inefficient (our JVM is 5 GB, thus the duplicated shell JVM is also 5 GB), the major problem lies in the fact that when there is heavy load on this functionality (PDF generation) in our application, sometimes the duplicated JVM never exits. When the JVM hangs, the servers create large issues (extreme application slowness and terminated user sessions) as the entire duplicate JVM get's all of its 5 GB of process size written to disk swap. We have noted the following hung thread correlated with a hung JVM process until the process is manually killed: "[STUCK] ExecuteThread: '17' for queue: 'weblogic.kernel.Default (self-tuning)'" id=3463 idx=0x158 tid=3460 prio=1 alive, in native, daemon at jrockit/io/FileNativeIO.readBytesPinned(Ljava/io/FileDescriptor;[BII)I(Native Method) at jrockit/io/FileNativeIO.readBytes(FileNativeIO.java:30) at java/io/FileInputStream.readBytes([BII)I(FileInputStream.java) at java/io/FileInputStream.read(FileInputStream.java:194) at java/lang/UNIXProcess$DeferredCloseInputStream.read(UNIXProcess.java:227) at java/io/BufferedInputStream.fill(BufferedInputStream.java:218) at java/io/BufferedInputStream.read(BufferedInputStream.java:235) ^-- Holding lock: java/io/BufferedInputStream@0xfffffffec6510470[thin lock] at gov/v3/common/formgeneration/sessionbean/FormsBean.getProcessStatus(FormsBean.java:809) at gov/v3/common/formgeneration/sessionbean/FormsBean.createPDF(FormsBean.java:750) at gov/v3/common/formgeneration/sessionbean/FormsBean.getTemplateDetails(FormsBean.java:450) at gov/v3/common/formgeneration/sessionbean/FormsBean.generateSinglePDF(FormsBean.java:1371) at gov/v3/common/formgeneration/sessionbean/FormsBean.generatePDF(FormsBean.java:263) at gov/v3/common/formgeneration/sessionbean/FormsBean.endorseDocument(FormsBean.java:2377) at gov/v3/common/formgeneration/sessionbean/Forms_qaco28_EOImpl.endorseDocument(Forms_qaco28_EOImpl.java:214) at gov/v3/delegates/common/FormsAndNoticesDelegate.endorseDocument(FormsAndNoticesDelegate.java:128) at gov/v3/actions/common/EndorseDocumentAction.executeRequest(EndorseDocumentAction.java:68) at gov/v3/fwk/controller/struts/action/V3CommonDispatchAction.dispatchToExecuteMethod(V3CommonDispatchAction.java:532) at gov/v3/fwk/controller/struts/action/V3CommonDispatchAction.executeBaseAction(V3CommonDispatchAction.java:336) at gov/v3/fwk/controller/struts/action/V3BaseDispatchAction.execute(V3BaseDispatchAction.java:69) at org/apache/struts/action/RequestProcessor.processActionPerform(RequestProcessor.java:484) at gov/v3/fwk/controller/struts/requestprocessor/V3TilesRequestProcessor.processActionPerform(V3TilesRequestProcessor.java:384) at org/apache/struts/action/RequestProcessor.process(RequestProcessor.java:274) at org/apache/struts/action/ActionServlet.process(ActionServlet.java:1482) at org/apache/struts/action/ActionServlet.doGet(ActionServlet.java:507) at gov/v3/fwk/controller/struts/servlet/V3ControllerServlet.doGet(V3ControllerServlet.java:110) at javax/servlet/http/HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:743) at javax/servlet/http/HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:856) at weblogic/servlet/internal/StubSecurityHelper$ServletServiceAction.run(StubSecurityHelper.java:227) at weblogic/servlet/internal/StubSecurityHelper.invokeServlet(StubSecurityHelper.java:125) at weblogic/servlet/internal/ServletStubImpl.execute(ServletStubImpl.java:283) at weblogic/servlet/internal/ServletStubImpl.execute(ServletStubImpl.java:175) at weblogic/servlet/internal/WebAppServletContext$ServletInvocationAction.run(WebAppServletContext.java:3231) at weblogic/security/acl/internal/AuthenticatedSubject.doAs(AuthenticatedSubject.java:321) at weblogic/security/service/SecurityManager.runAs(SecurityManager.java:121) at weblogic/servlet/internal/WebAppServletContext.securedExecute(WebAppServletContext.java:2002) at weblogic/servlet/internal/WebAppServletContext.execute(WebAppServletContext.java:1908) at weblogic/servlet/internal/ServletRequestImpl.run(ServletRequestImpl.java:1362) at weblogic/work/ExecuteThread.execute(ExecuteThread.java:209) at weblogic/work/ExecuteThread.run(ExecuteThread.java:181) at jrockit/vm/RNI.c2java(JJJJJ)V(Native Method) -- end of trace We would like to do a couple of things: 1.) Prevent the spawning of a duplicate JVM, as we do not need any of it's functions when executing the simple jfmerge executable, and it creates massive overhead. 2.) In the short term at least prevent this duplicate JVM from handing indefinitely.

    Read the article

  • .Net Remote Log Querying

    - by jlafay
    I have a Win Service that I'm working on that consists of the service, WF Service (using WorkflowServiceHost), a Workflow (WorkflowApplication) that queries/processes data from a SQL Server DB, and a Comm Marshall class that handles data flow between the service and the WF. The WF does a lot of heavy data processing and the original app (early VB6) logged all the processing and displayed the results on the screen of the host machine. Critical events will be committed to eventlog because I strongly believe that should be common practice because admins naturally will look there and because it already has support for remote viewing. The workflow will also need to write logging events as it processes and iterates according to our business logic. Such as: records queried, records returned, processed records, etc. The data is very critical and we need to log actions as they occur. The logs are currently kept as text files on disk and I think that is ok. Ideally I would like to record log events in XML so it's easier to query and because it is less costly than a DB, especially since our DB servers do a lot of heavy processing anyways. Since we are replacing essentially a VB6 application with a robust windows service (taking advantage of WF 4.0), it has been requested that a remote client also be created. It receives callbacks from the service after subscribing to it and being added to a collection of subscribers. Basic statistics and summaries are updated client side after receiving basic monitoring data of what is going on with the service. We would like to also provide a way to provide details when we need to examine what is going on further because this is a long running data processing service and issues need to be addressed immediately. What is the best way to implement some type of query from the client that is sent to the service and returned to the client? Would it be efficient to implement another method to expose on the service and then have that pass that off to some querying class/object to examine the XML files by whichever specification and then return it to the client? That's the main concern. I don't want the service to processing to bottleneck much while this occurs. It seems that WF already auto-magically threads well for the most part but I want to make sure this is the right way to go about it. Any suggestions/recommendations on how to architect and implement a small log querying framework for a remote service would be awesome.

    Read the article

  • How to stream semi-live audio over internet

    - by Thomas Tempelmann
    I want to write something like Skype, i.e. I have a constant audio stream on one computer and then recompress it in a format that's suitable for a latent internet connection, receive it on the other end and play it. Let's also assume that the internet connection is fairly modern and fast, i.e. DSL or alike, no slow connections over phone and such. The involved computers will also be rather modern (Dual Core Intel CPUs at 2GHz or more). I know how to handle the audio on the machines. What I don't know is how to transmit the audio in an efficient way. The challenges are: I'd like get good audio quality across the line. The stream should be received without drops. The stream may, however, be received with a little delay (a second delay is acceptable). I imagine that the transport software could first determine the average (and max) latency, then start the stream and tell the receiver to wait for that max latency before starting to play the audio. With that, if the latency doesn't get any higher, the entire stream will be playable on the other side without stutter or drops. If, due to unexpected IP latencies or blockages, the stream does get cut off, I want to be able to notice this so that I can take actions (e.g. abort the stream) and eventually start a new transmission. What are my options if I want do use ready-made software for the compression and tranmission? I have no intention to write my own audio compression engine, really. OTOH, I plan to sell the solution in a vertical market, meaning I can afford a few dollars of license fees per copy, but not $100s. I guess the simplest solution would be to just open a TCP stream, send a few packets back and forth to determine their running time (or even use UDP for that), then use the results as the guide for my max latency value, then simply fire the audio data in its raw form (uncompressed 16 bit stereo), along with a timing code over the TCP connection. The receiver reads the data and plays it with the pre-determined delay. That might just work with the type of fast connection I expect. I just wonder if there are better solutions to reach this goal, with better performance (lower latency) and less data (compressed). BTW, I first try to implement this on OS X, but might want to do it on Windows, too, if it proves successful.

    Read the article

  • how to design this relation in a DB schema

    - by raticulin
    I have a table Car in my db, one of the columns is purchaseDate. I want to be able to tag every car with a number of Policies (limited to 10 policies). Each policy has a time to life (ttl, a duration of time, like '5 years', '10 months' etc), that is, for how long since the car's purchaseDate the policy can be applied. I need to perform the following actions: when inserting a Car, it will be set with a number of Policies (at least one is set) sometimes a Car will be updated to add/remove a Policy searches must be done taking into account date/policies, for example: 'select all cars that are not covered by any policy as of today' My current design is (pol0..pol9 are the policies): CREATE TABLE Car ( id int NOT NULL IDENTITY(1,1), purchaseDate datetime NOT NULL, //more stuff... pol0 smallint default NULL, pol1 smallint default NULL, pol2 smallint default NULL, pol3 smallint default NULL, pol4 smallint default NULL, pol5 smallint default NULL, pol6 smallint default NULL, pol7 smallint default NULL, pol8 smallint default NULL, pol9 smallint default NULL, PRIMARY KEY (id) ) CREATE TABLE Policy ( id smallint NOT NULL, name varchar(50) collate Latin1_General_BIN NOT NULL, ttl varchar(100) collate Latin1_General_BIN NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (id) ) The problem I am facing is that the sql to perform the query above is a nightmare to write. As I don't know in which column each policy can be, so I have to check all columns for every policy etc etc. So I am wondering wether it is worth changing this. My questions are: The smallint as Policy id was chosen instead of an 'int IDENTITY' in order to save some space as there are going to be millions of Car records. It just adds complexity when creating a Policy as we must handle the id etc. Was it worth doing this? I am thinking that maybe there is a much better design? Obviously we could move the policy/car relation to its own table CarPolicy, benefits would be: no limit on 10 policies per car adding/removing etc much easier when only the default policy is applied (when no others are applied one called Default policy is applied), we could signal that by not having any entry in CarPolicy, now this is just done inserting the Default policy id in one of the columns. The cons are that we would need to change the DB, ORM classes etc. What would you recommend? Maybe there is another smart way to implement this that we are not aware without using the CarPolicy table?

    Read the article

  • DRY-ing very similar specs for ASP.NET MVC controller action with MSpec (BDD guidelines)

    - by spapaseit
    Hi all, I have two very similar specs for two very similar controller actions: VoteUp(int id) and VoteDown(int id). These methods allow a user to vote a post up or down; kinda like the vote up/down functionality for StackOverflow questions. The specs are: VoteDown: [Subject(typeof(SomeController))] public class When_user_clicks_the_vote_down_button_on_a_post : SomeControllerContext { Establish context = () => { post = PostFakes.VanillaPost(); post.Votes = 10; session.Setup(s => s.Single(Moq.It.IsAny<Expression<Func<Post, bool>>>())).Returns(post); session.Setup(s => s.CommitChanges()); }; Because of = () => result = controller.VoteDown(1); It should_decrement_the_votes_of_the_post_by_1 = () => suggestion.Votes.ShouldEqual(9); It should_not_let_the_user_vote_more_than_once; } VoteUp: [Subject(typeof(SomeController))] public class When_user_clicks_the_vote_down_button_on_a_post : SomeControllerContext { Establish context = () => { post = PostFakes.VanillaPost(); post.Votes = 0; session.Setup(s => s.Single(Moq.It.IsAny<Expression<Func<Post, bool>>>())).Returns(post); session.Setup(s => s.CommitChanges()); }; Because of = () => result = controller.VoteUp(1); It should_increment_the_votes_of_the_post_by_1 = () => suggestion.Votes.ShouldEqual(1); It should_not_let_the_user_vote_more_than_once; } So I have two questions: How should I go about DRY-ing these two specs? Is it even advisable or should I actually have one spec per controller action? I know I Normally should, but this feels like repeating myself a lot. Is there any way to implement the second It within the same spec? Note that the It should_not_let_the_user_vote_more_than_once; requires me the spec to call controller.VoteDown(1) twice. I know the easiest would be to create a separate spec for it too, but it'd be copying and pasting the same code yet again... I'm still getting the hang of BDD (and MSpec) and many times it is not clear which way I should go, or what the best practices or guidelines for BDD are. Any help would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • ActionResult - Service

    - by cem
    I bored, writing same code for service and ui. Then i tried to write a converter for simple actions. This converter, converting Service Results to MVC result, seems like good solution for me but anyway i think this gonna opposite MVC pattern. So here, I need help, what you think about algorithm - is this good or not? Thanks ServiceResult - Base: public abstract class ServiceResult { public static NoPermissionResult Permission() { return new NoPermissionResult(); } public static SuccessResult Success() { return new SuccessResult(); } public static SuccessResult<T> Success<T>(T result) { return new SuccessResult<T>(result); } protected ServiceResult(ServiceResultType serviceResultType) { _resultType = serviceResultType; } private readonly ServiceResultType _resultType; public ServiceResultType ResultType { get { return _resultType; } } } public class SuccessResult<T> : ServiceResult { public SuccessResult(T result) : base(ServiceResultType.Success) { _result = result; } private readonly T _result; public T Result { get { return _result; } } } public class SuccessResult : SuccessResult<object> { public SuccessResult() : this(null) { } public SuccessResult(object o) : base(o) { } } Service - eg. ForumService: public ServiceResult Delete(IVUser user, int id) { Forum forum = Repository.GetDelete(id); if (!Permission.CanDelete(user, forum)) { return ServiceResult.Permission(); } Repository.Delete(forum); return ServiceResult.Success(); } Controller: public class BaseController { public ActionResult GetResult(ServiceResult result) { switch (result.ResultType) { case ServiceResultType.Success: var successResult = (SuccessResult)result; return View(successResult.Result); break; case ServiceResultType.NoPermission: return View("Error"); break; default: return View(); break; } } } [HandleError] public class ForumsController : BaseController { [ValidateAntiForgeryToken] [Transaction] [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Delete(int id) { ServiceResult result = ForumService.Delete(WebUser.Current, id); /* Custom result */ if (result.ResultType == ServiceResultType.Success) { TempData[ControllerEnums.GlobalViewDataProperty.PageMessage.ToString()] = "The forum was successfully deleted."; return this.RedirectToAction(ec => Index()); } /* Custom result */ /* Execute Permission result etc. */ TempData[ControllerEnums.GlobalViewDataProperty.PageMessage.ToString()] = "A problem was encountered preventing the forum from being deleted. " + "Another item likely depends on this forum."; return GetResult(result); } }

    Read the article

  • Play! Framework - Can my view template be localised when rendering it as an AsyncResult?

    - by avik
    I've recently started using the Play! framework (v2.0.4) for writing a Java web application. In the majority of my controllers I'm following the paradigm of suspending the HTTP request until the promise of a web service response has been fulfilled. Once the promise has been fulfilled, I return an AsyncResult. This is what most of my actions look like (with a bunch of code omitted): public static Result myActionMethod() { Promise<MyWSResponse> wsResponse; // Perform a web service call that will return the promise of a MyWSResponse... return async(wsResponse.map(new Function<MyWSResponse, Result>() { @Override public Result apply(MyWSResponse response) { // Validate response... return ok(myScalaViewTemplate.render(response.data())); } })); } I'm now trying to internationalise my app, but hit the following error when I try to render a template from an async method: [error] play - Waiting for a promise, but got an error: There is no HTTP Context available from here. java.lang.RuntimeException: There is no HTTP Context available from here. at play.mvc.Http$Context.current(Http.java:27) ~[play_2.9.1.jar:2.0.4] at play.mvc.Http$Context$Implicit.lang(Http.java:124) ~[play_2.9.1.jar:2.0.4] at play.i18n.Messages.get(Messages.java:38) ~[play_2.9.1.jar:2.0.4] at views.html.myScalaViewTemplate$.apply(myScalaViewTemplate.template.scala:40) ~[classes/:na] at views.html.myScalaViewTemplate$.render(myScalaViewTemplate.template.scala:87) ~[classes/:na] at views.html.myScalaViewTemplate.render(myScalaViewTemplate.template.scala) ~[classes/:na] In short, where I've got a message bundle lookup in my view template, some Play! code is attempting to access the original HTTP request and retrieve the accept-languages header, in order to know which message bundle to use. But it seems that the HTTP request is inaccessible from the async method. I can see a couple of (unsatisfactory) ways to work around this: Go back to the 'one thread per request' paradigm and have threads block waiting for responses. Figure out which language to use at Controller level, and feed that choice into my template. I also suspect this might not be an issue on trunk. I know that there is a similar issue in 2.0.4 with regards to not being able to access or modify the Session object which has recently been fixed. However I'm stuck on 2.0.4 for the time being, so is there a better way that I can resolve this problem?

    Read the article

  • Action Cache for root URL not working

    - by askegg
    Here's the setup. I have web site which is essentially a simple CMS. Here is the routes file: map.connect ':url', :controller => :pages, :action => :show map.root :controller => :pages, :action => :show, :url => "/" The page controller is thus: class PagesController < ApplicationController before_filter :verify_access, :except => [:show] # Cache show action if we are not logged in. caches_action :show, :layout => false, :unless => Proc.new { |controller| controller.logged_in? } def update @page = Page.find(params[:id]) respond_to do |format| expire_action :action => :show, :url => @page.url So when a visitor hits "/" it maps to :controller = "pages, :action = "show, :url = "/". This generates a cached version on first try, then returns the appropriate result there after. The log files show: Processing PagesController#show (for 127.0.0.1 at 2009-08-02 14:15:01) [GET] Parameters: {"action"=>"show", "url"=>"/", "controller"=>"pages"} Cached fragment hit: views/out.local// (0.1ms) Rendering template within layouts/application Filter chain halted as [#<ActionController::Filters::AroundFilter:0x23eb03c @identifier=nil, @method=#<Proc:0x01904858@/Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/actionpack-2.3.3/lib/action_controller/caching/actions.rb:64>, @kind=:filter, @options={:only=>#<Set: {"show"}>, :if=>nil, :unless=>#<Proc:0x025137ac@/Users/askegg/Sites/out/app/controllers/pages_controller.rb:6>}>] did_not_yield. Completed in 2ms (View: 1, DB: 0) | 200 OK [http://out.local/] OK - all good so far. When I update the page, it should expire the cache (see above). The logs show: Page Load (0.2ms) SELECT * FROM "pages" WHERE ("pages"."id" = 3) Page Load (0.1ms) SELECT "pages".id FROM "pages" WHERE ("pages"."url" = '/' AND "pages".domain_id = 1 AND "pages".id <> 3) LIMIT 1 Expired fragment: views/out.local/index (0.1ms) Redirected to http://out.local/pages/3 Completed in 9ms (DB: 0) | 302 Found [http://out.local/pages/3] See the problem? Rails is clearing the cache named "index", but it sets it as "/". Naturally this results in the cache NOT being cleared, so visitors are now seeing the old version.

    Read the article

  • Approaches for Content-based Item Recommendations

    - by PartlyCloudy
    Hello, I'm currently developing an application where I want to group similar items. Items (like videos) can be created by users and also their attributes can be altered or extended later (like new tags). Instead of relying on users' preferences as most collaborative filtering mechanisms do, I want to compare item similarity based on the items' attributes (like similar length, similar colors, similar set of tags, etc.). The computation is necessary for two main purposes: Suggesting x similar items for a given item and for clustering into groups of similar items. My application so far is follows an asynchronous design and I want to decouple this clustering component as far as possible. The creation of new items or the addition of new attributes for an existing item will be advertised by publishing events the component can then consume. Computations can be provided best-effort and "snapshotted", which means that I'm okay with the best result possible at a given point in time, although result quality will eventually increase. So I am now searching for appropriate algorithms to compute both similar items and clusters. At important constraint is scalability. Initially the application has to handle a few thousand items, but later million items might be possible as well. Of course, computations will then be executed on additional nodes, but the algorithm itself should scale. It would also be nice if the algorithm supports some kind of incremental mode on partial changes of the data. My initial thought of comparing each item with each other and storing the numerical similarity sounds a little bit crude. Also, it requires n*(n-1)/2 entries for storing all similarities and any change or new item will eventually cause n similarity computations. Thanks in advance! UPDATE tl;dr To clarify what I want, here is my targeted scenario: User generate entries (think of documents) User edit entry meta data (think of tags) And here is what my system should provide: List of similar entries to a given item as recommendation Clusters of similar entries Both calculations should be based on: The meta data/attributes of entries (i.e. usage of similar tags) Thus, the distance of two entries using appropriate metrics NOT based on user votings, preferences or actions (unlike collaborative filtering). Although users may create entries and change attributes, the computation should only take into account the items and their attributes, and not the users associated with (just like a system where only items and no users exist). Ideally, the algorithm should support: permanent changes of attributes of an entry incrementally compute similar entries/clusters on changes scale something better than a simple distance table, if possible (because of the O(n²) space complexity)

    Read the article

  • What web platform is right for me?

    - by egervari
    I've been looking at web frameworks like Rails, Grails, etc. I'm used to doing applications in Spring Framework with Hibernate... and I want something more productive. One of the things I realized is that while some of the things in Grails is sexy, there are some serious problems with it. Grails' controllers: 1) are implemented awfully. They don't seem to be able to extend from super classes at runtime. I tried this to add base actions and helper methods, and this seems to cause grails to blow up. 2) are based on an obsolete request parameters model (rather than form backing objects, which are much nicer). 3) are hard to test. Command objects are treated totally differently... and it's actually MUCH harder to write the test than it is to write the controller code. 4) Command objects operate totally differently. They are pre-validated and bound, which causes a lot of inconsistencies than basic parameter model. 5) Command objects are not reusable, and it's a pain in the rear to reuse most of the stuff from the domain classes, like constraints and fields. This is TRIVIAL to do in basic Spring. Why the hell was it not trivial to do in Grails? 6) The scaffolding that is generated is pure crap. It doesn't generalize inserts and updates... and it actually copy/pastes a pile of code in two views: create.gsp and edit.gsp. The views themselves are gargantuan piles of doggie do-do. This is further compounded by the fact that it uses low-level parameters and not objects. Integration tests are 30x slower than a Spring integration test. It is disgusting. Some mocking tests are so hard to write and aren't guaranteed to work when it's deployed, that I think it discourages fast, tdd test cycles. Most things seem to screw up grails while it's running, like adding a taglib, or anything really. The server restart problem wasn't solved at all. I'm starting to think going with Spring/Hibernate/Java is the only way to go. While there is a pretty big cost at startup, I know it'll eventually smooth out. It sucks I can't use a language like Scala... because idiomatically, it is so incompatible with Hibernate. This app is also not a run-of-the-mill UI over a database. It's got some of that, but it's not going to be a slouch. I am deathly scared of Grails now because of how crap it is in the Controller layer. Suggestions on what I can do?

    Read the article

  • Rails nested form for belongs_to

    - by user1232533
    I'm new to rails and have some troubles with creating a nested form. My models: class User < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :company accepts_nested_attributes_for :company, :reject_if => :all_blank end class Company < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :users end Now i would like to create a new company from the user sign_up page (i use Devise btw) by given only a company name. And have a relation between the new User and new Company. In the console i can create a company for a existing User like this: @company = User.first.build_company(:name => "name of company") @company.save That works, but i can't make this happen for a new user, in my new user sign_up form i tried this (i know its wrong by creating a new User fist but im trying to get something working here..): <%= simple_form_for(resource, :as => resource_name, :html => { :class => 'form-horizontal' }, :url => registration_path(resource_name)) do |f| %> <%= f.error_notification %> <div class="inputs"> <% @user = User.new company = @user.build_company() %> <% f.fields_for company do |builder| %> <%= builder.input :name, :required => true, :autofocus => true %> <% end %> <%= f.input :email, :required => true, :autofocus => true %> <%= f.input :password, :required => true %> <%= f.input :password_confirmation, :required => true %> </div> <div class="form-actions"> <%= f.button :submit, :class => 'btn-primary', :value => 'Sign up' %> </div> I did my best to google for a solution/ example.. found some nested form examples but it's just not clear to me how to do this. Really hope somebody can help me with this. Any help on this would be appreciated. Thanks in advance! Greets, Daniel

    Read the article

  • Passing ViewModel for backbone.js from MVC3 Server-Side

    - by Roman
    In ASP.NET MVC there is Model, View and Controller. MODEL represents entities which are stored in database and essentially is all the data used in a application (for example, generated by EntityFramework, "DB First" approach). Not all data from model you want to show in the view (for example, hashs of passwords). So you create VIEW MODEL, each for every strongly-typed-razor-view you have in application. Like this: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; namespace MyProject.ViewModels.SomeController.SomeAction { public class ViewModel { public ViewModel() { Entities1 = new List<ViewEntity1>(); Entities2 = new List<ViewEntity2>(); } public List<ViewEntity1> Entities1 { get; set; } public List<ViewEntity2> Entities2 { get; set; } } public class ViewEntity1 { //some properties from original DB-entity you want to show } public class ViewEntity2 { } } When you create complex client-side interfaces (I do), you use some pattern for javascript on client, MVC or MVVM (I know only these). So, with MVC on client you have another model (Backbone.Model for example), which is third model in application. It is a bit much. Why don`t we use the same ViewModel model on a client (in backbone.js or another framework)? Is there a way to transfer CS-coded model to JS-coded? Like in MVVM pattern, with knockout.js, when you can do like this: in SomeAction.cshtml: <div style="display: none;" id="view_model">@Json.Encode(Model)</div> after that in Javascript-code var ViewModel = ko.mapping.fromJSON($("#view_model").get(0).innerHTML); now you can extend your ViewModel with some actions, event handlers, etc: ko.utils.extend(ViewModel, { some_function: function () { //some code } }); So, we are not building the same view model on the client again, we are transferring existing view model from server. At least, data. But knockout.js is not suitable for me, you can`t build complex UI with it, it is just data-binding. I need something more structural, like backbone.js. The only way to build ViewModel for backbone.js I can see now is re-writing same ViewModel in JS from server with hands. Is there any ways to transfer it from server? To reuse the same viewmodel on server view and client view?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114  | Next Page >