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• Using git (or some other VCS) at your company

  - by supercheetah

  Some friends of mine and I were talking recently about version control, and how they were using VSS at their jobs, and were probably going to be moving off of that soon. One of them said that his company will likely be going with Team Foundation Server. Eventually, the conversation did get around to talking about some of the open source VCSes out there, including git and SVN. None of us really knew about any companies that use either of these internally, although we imagined that a number of them did so for SVN, but we weren't too sure about git. I brought up Google and Android using it, but my friend figured that's only for the public facing source code, and that they may use something different for internal projects. Apparently it's more than just SCM that makes TFS so intriguing: Microsoft Sales people and support (although my friend did point out somethings to his managers that he thought might be misleading on MS' part) Integration of things beyond SCM, including project management (I'm just finding out that there are geared towards the same things for git) Again, it's Microsoft, and the transition from VSS to TFS seems logical (or does it?) I'm not much of a fan of SVN, so I didn't really bring it up much, but I am curious about whether or not git is used at your company for internal projects. Have you thought about it, and decided against it? Any reason why?

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• Is this method of static file serving safe in node.js? (potential security hole?)

  - by MikeC8

  I want to create the simplest node.js server to serve static files. Here's what I came up with: fs = require('fs'); server = require('http').createServer(function(req, res) { res.end(fs.readFileSync(__dirname + '/public/' + req.url)); }); server.listen(8080); Clearly this would map http://localhost:8080/index.html to project_dir/public/index.html, and similarly so for all other files. My one concern is that someone could abuse this to access files outside of project_dir/public. Something like this, for example: http://localhost:8080/../../sensitive_file.txt I tried this a little bit, and it wasn't working. But, it seems like my browser was removing the ".." itself. Which leads me to believe that someone could abuse my poor little node.js server. I know there are npm packages that do static file serving. But I'm actually curious to write my own here. So my questions are: Is this safe? If so, why? If not, why not? And, if further, if not, what is the "right" way to do this? My one constraint is I don't want to have to have an if clause for each possible file, I want the server to serve whatever files I throw in a directory.

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• $_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER'] not working with Header

  - by EmmyS

  I have a site that allows public access to some pages, but requires a login for others. I have a link to the login from all pages, and what I'd like to do after a successful login is send the user back to the page they were on when they clicked the login link. I know the HTTP_REFERER can be spoofed, and sometimes stripped out by certain hosts and proxies, but since it's strictly within my own site, and only a convenience for users, I'm not too worried about it. I am curious about why it isn't working in conjunction with a redirect, though. I've set a visible field to contain the value of the http referer, and it displays correctly. So the page is getting the value of the referrer variable. But when I try this: $home_url = $_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER']; header('Location: ' . $home_url); it doesn't work. This, on the other hand, does: $home_url = 'http://' . $_SERVER['HTTP_HOST'].dirname($_SERVER['PHP_SELF']).'/discussions.php'; header('Location: ' . $home_url); So I know the header location part works. Any idea why it doesn't want to work in conjunction with the http_referer variable? (Also, does it drive anyone else nuts that referer is spelled incorrectly? I keep mistyping it using the OED spelling, silly me...)

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• At what point is it worth using a database?

  - by radix07

  I have a question relating to databases and at what point is worth diving into one. I am primarily an embedded engineer, but I am writing an application using QT to interface with our controller. We are at an odd point where we have enough data that it would be feasible to implement a database (around 700+ items and growing) to manage everything, but I am not sure it is worth the time right now to deal with. I have no problems implementing the GUI with files generated from excel and parsed in, but it gets tedious and hard to track even with VBA scripts. I have been playing around with converting our data into something more manageable for the application side with Microsoft Access and that seems to be working well. If that works out I am only a step (or several) away from using an SQL database and using the QT library to access and modify it. I don't have much experience managing data at this level and am curious what may be the best way to approach this. So what are some of the real benefits of using a database if any in this case? I realize much of this can be very application specific, but some general ideas and suggestions on how to straddle the embedded/application programming line would be helpful. Thanks

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• What is the XSLT to write certain node attributes one-to-a-line?

  - by Scott Stafford

  I want an XML stylesheet (XSLT) that will put the attributes of a few, specific, child nodes one-to-a-line. What is the XSLT for this? I recently asked a related question that someone offered a stylesheet to solve but their stylesheet didn't work for some reason, and I am curious why -- the attributes simply didn't end up one-per-line. By way of example, my XML might look like this: <MyXML> <NodeA> <ChildNode value1='5' value2='6' /> </NodeA> <NodeB> <AnotherChildNode value1='5' value2='6' /> </NodeB> <NodeC> <AnotherChildNode value1='5' value2='6' /> </NodeC> </MyXML> And I want a stylesheet that will expand all NodeA's and NodeB's but not NodeCs and make it look like this: <MyXML> <NodeA> <ChildNode value1='5' value2='6' /> </NodeA> <NodeB> <AnotherChildNode value1='5' value2='6' /> </NodeB> <NodeC> <AnotherChildNode value1='5' value2='6' /> </NodeC> </MyXML>

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• Optimized 2D Tile Scrolling in OpenGL

  - by silicus

  Hello, I'm developing a 2D sidescrolling game and I need to optimize my tiling code to get a better frame rate. As of right now I'm using a texture atlas and 16x16 tiles for 480x320 screen resolution. The level scrolls in both directions, and is significantly larger than 1 screen (thousands of pixels). I use glTranslate for the actual scrolling. So far I've tried: Drawing only the on-screen tiles using glTriangles, 2 per square tile (too much overhead) Drawing the entire map as a Display List (great on a small level, way to slow on a large one) Partitioning the map into Display Lists half the size of the screen, then culling display lists (still slows down for 2-directional scrolling, overdraw is not efficient) Any advice is appreciated, but in particular I'm wondering: I've seen Vertex Arrays/VBOs suggested for this because they're dynamic. What's the best way to take advantage of this? If I simply keep 1 screen of vertices plus a bit of overdraw, I'd have to recopy the array every few frames to account for the change in relative coordinates (shift everything over and add the new rows/columns). If I use more overdraw this doesn't seem like a big win; it's like the half-screen display list idea. Does glScissor give any gain if used on a bunch of small tiles like this, be it a display list or a vertex array/VBO Would it be better just to build the level out of large textures and then use glScissor? Would losing the memory saving of tiling be an issue for mobile development if I do this (just curious, I'm currently on a PC)? This approach was mentioned here Thanks :)

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• What does an object look like in memory?

  - by NeilMonday

  This is probably a really dumb question, but I will ask anyway. I am curious what an object looks like in memory. Obviously it would have to have all of its member data in it. I assume that functions for an object would not be duplicated in memory (or maybe I am wrong?). It would seem wasteful to have 999 objects in memory all with the same function defined over and over. If there is only 1 function in memory for all 999 objects, then how does each function know who's member data to modify (I specifically want to know at the low level). Is there an object pointer that gets sent to the function behind the scenes? Perhaps it is different for every compiler? Also, how does the static keyword affect this? With static member data, I would think that all 999 objects would use the exact same memory location for their static member data. Where does this get stored? Static functions I guess would also just be one place in memory, and would not have to interact with instantiated objects, which I think I understand.

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• What happens if I just add a second IP to a domain?

  - by tntu

  We have two servers that are in constant sync. We have two applications that connect to them. Each app to different server. We devised a new version of those apps that will read a dns entry and get a list of IP addresses and try them in order. Now problem is old apps. We have noticed that some ppl still use the old ones even if we have released the new. If we were to add two IP's to each domain would they receive the IP's in the order we set them or random? Either way it will still work for us but I'm just curious. If first server goes offline will the client application try the other? To be noted for old version: Interruption does not affect in any way the continuation once connection is reestablished. Each communication is independent of previous ones. Applications connect at set intervals of time anywhere between 5 seconds to 1 hour. Connection is done simply using an http post to the URL in question.

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• Why "Content-Length: 0" in POST requests?

  - by stesch

  A customer sometimes sends POST requests with Content-Length: 0 when submitting a form (10 to over 40 fields). We tested it with different browsers and from different locations but couldn't reproduce the error. The customer is using Internet Explorer 7 and a proxy. We asked them to let their system administrator see into the problem from their side. Running some tests without the proxy, etc.. In the meantime (half a year later and still no answer) I'm curious if somebody else knows of similar problems with a Content-Length: 0 request. Maybe from inside some Windows network with a special proxy for big companies. Is there a known problem with Internet Explorer 7? With a proxy system? The Windows network itself? Google only showed something in the context of NTLM (and such) authentication, but we aren't using this in the web application. Maybe it's in the way the proxy operates in the customer's network with Windows logins? (I'm no Windows expert. Just guessing.) I have no further information about the infrastructure.

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• What's the best practice for handling system-specific information under version control?

  - by Joe

  I'm new to version control, so I apologize if there is a well-known solution to this. For this problem in particular, I'm using git, but I'm curious about how to deal with this for all version control systems. I'm developing a web application on a development server. I have defined the absolute path name to the web application (not the document root) in two places. On the production server, this path is different. I'm confused about how to deal with this. I could either: Reconfigure the development server to share the same path as the production Edit the two occurrences each time production is updated. I don't like #1 because I'd rather keep the application flexible for any future changes. I don't like #2 because if I start developing on a second development server with a third path, I would have to change this for every commit and update. What is the best way to handle this? I thought of: Using custom keywords and variable expansion (such as setting the property $PATH$ in the version control properties and having it expanded in all the files). Git doesn't support this because it would be a huge performance hit. Using post-update and pre-commit hooks. Possibly the likely solution for git, but every time I looked at the status, it would report the two files as being changed. Not really clean. Pulling the path from a config file outside of version control. Then I would have to have the config file in the same location on all servers. Might as well just have the same path to begin with. Is there an easy way to deal with this? Am I over thinking it?

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• C++ - Distributing different headers than development

  - by Ben

  I was curious about doing this in C++: Lets say I have a small library that I distribute to my users. I give my clients both the binary and the associated header files that they need. For example, lets assume the following header is used in development: #include <string> ClassA { public: bool setString(const std::string & str); private: std::string str; }; Now for my question. For deployment, is there anything fundamentally wrong with me giving a 'reduced' header to my clients? For example, could I strip off the private section and simply give them this: #include <string> ClassA { public: bool setString(const std::string & str); }; My gut instinct says "yes, this is possible, but there are gotchas", so that is why I am asking this question here. If this is possible and also safe, it looks like a great way to hide private variables, and thus even avoid forward declaration in some cases. I am aware that the symbols will still be there in the binary itself, and that this is just a visibility thing at the source code level. Thanks!

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• Stopping at my Front-End abilities... good career move?

  - by R. H.

  Just curious about what other front-end and back-end people think, career wise. Here's the details: I'm a 30 yr old mom who is pretty good at front end development - that's my day job at an interactive agency. Don't have the money or time to go back to school or lots of high priced training sessions. I started out as a graphic designer ten years ago or so, then moved into database-backed web stuff, like CMS. I'm great at transforming PSD to a working html and css structure, especially for Wordpress themes. I enjoy this part of the process, probably because it's easy and fun, and as I learn a little more about jQuery and PHP, I can make it even better if I want or need. I'm not sure where I should stop though, as far as my career goes. I don't know that I'll ever get to the point that I'm a great PHP developer or jQuery master. Is it lame to just be a front-end designer/developer? Can that be a successful career all its own? Or, should I obligate myself to learning the harder programming, if I'm capable? Any advice or points any of you may have is appreciated!

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• The HTTP verb POST used to access path '[my path]' is not allowed.

  - by Jed

  I am receiving an error that states: "The HTTP verb POST used to access path '[my path]' is not allowed.". The error is being caused by the fact that I am implementing an HTML form element that uses the POST method and does not explicitly define an .aspx page in its ACTION parameter. For example: <form action="" method="post"> <input type="submit" /> </form> The HTML above is on a file at "/foo/default.aspx". Now, if the user points the URL to the root directory "foo" without specifying the aspx file (i.e. "http://localhost/foo") and then submits the form, the error "The HTTP verb POST used to access path '/foo' is not allowed." will be thrown. However, if the user goes to "http://localhost/foo/default.aspx" and then submits the form, all goes well (even if the ACTION parameter is left empty). Note: If I explicitly add the name of the .aspx (default.aspx) page to the ACTION parameter, no errors are thrown. So the example below works fine regardless if the user defines the name of the file in the URL or not. <form action="default.aspx" method="post"> <input type="submit" /> </form> I was curious as to why the error was being thrown, so I read a Microsoft KB that states This problem occurs because a client makes an HTTP request by sending the POST method to a static HTML page. Static HTML pages do not support the POST method. I suppose the core of the explanation makes sense, however in my case, my form is not being sent to a static html page - it's being sent to the same page that the html form lives on (default.aspx)... this is implicit to an ACTION param that is left empty. Is it possible to configure IIS (or otherwise) that will allow us to do form POSTing and keep the ACTION param empty?

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• Wordpress jQuery Post Attachment Image Gallery?

  - by LearnWebCode

  Hi everyone, Curious if any of you have a good solution for the following situation... because I've never thought of anything myself and usually have to resort to custom fields like "post-image-1" through "post-image-10" and manually paste the file name of a jpg in. Which is a horrible solution and only works for tech savvy posters. Basically I want non-tech savvy users to be able to upload / attach (but not insert into the actual post content) multiple images to a post, which will be turned into a makeshift gallery. Then I want to output these attachments in a list down the page after the post, using basic jQuery lightbox gallery functionality. It doesn't have to be through attachments, it could be a stand alone plugin, as long as it offers customizable markup. Basically any solution that would achieve the same thing would be incredible. Has anyone done this before? Am I missing something terribly obvious? I don't even know what exactly to call this, so I haven't had much luck with my Google research so far :( Thanks!

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• Is it possible to have a mysql table accept a null value for a primary_key column referencing a diff

  - by Dr.Dredel

  I have a table that has a column which holds the id of a row in another table. However, when table A is being populated, table B may or may not have a row ready for table A. My question is, is it possible to have mysql prevent an invalid value from being entered but be ok with a NULL? or does a foreign key necessitate a valid related value? So... what I'm looking for (in pseudo code) is this: Table "person" id | name Table "people" id | group_name | person_id (foreign key id from table person) insert into person (1, 'joe'); insert into people (1, 'foo', 1)//kosher insert into people (1, 'foo', NULL)//also kosher insert into people(1, 'foo', 7)// should fail since there is no id 7 in the person table. The reason I need this is that I'm having a chicken and egg issue where it makes perfect sense for the rows in the people table to be created before hand (in this example, I'm creating the groups and would like them to pre-exist the people who join them). And I realize that THIS example is silly and I would just put the group id in the person table rather than vice-versa, but in my real-world problem that is not workable. Just curious if I need to allow any and all values in order to make this work, or if there's some way to allow for null.

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• JavaScript for loop index strangeness

  - by pythonBOI

  I'm relatively new to JS so this may be a common problem, but I noticed something strange when dealing with for loops and the onclick function. I was able to replicate the problem with this code: <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript"> window.onload = function () { var buttons = document.getElementsByTagName('a'); for (var i=0; i<2; i++) { buttons[i].onclick = function () { alert(i); return false; } } } </script> </head> <body> <a href="">hi</a> <br /> <a href="">bye</a> </body> </html> When clicking the links I would expect to get '0' and '1', but instead I get '2' for both of them. Why is this? BTW, I managed to solve my particular problem by using the 'this' keyword, but I'm still curious as to what is behind this behavior.

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• Implementing a Version check between an Abstract class and it's implementation

  - by Michael Stum

  I have this abstract class and concrete implementation (they are in different assemblies): public abstract class MyAbstractClass { private static readonly int MyAbstractClassVersion = 1; public abstract int ImplementedVersion { get; } protected MyAbstractClass() { CheckVersion(); } private void CheckVersion() { var message = string.Format( "MyAbstractClass implements Version {0}, concrete is Version {1}", RepositoryVersion, ImplementedVersion); if (!MyAbstractClassVersion.Equals(ImplementedVersion)) throw new InvalidOperationException(message); } } public class ConcreteClass : MyAbstractClass { public ConcreteClass() : base() { // ConcreteClass is guaranteed to have // a constructor that calls the base constructor // I just simplified the example } public override int ImplementedVersion { get { return 2; } } } As you see, I call CheckVersion() from the abstract constructor, to get rid of the "virtual member call in base constructor" message, but I am not sure if that's really the way to do it. Sure, it works, but that doesn't mean it will always work, will it? Also, I wonder if I can get the name of the Concrete Type from the CheckVersion() function? I know that adding new abstract members will force an error anyway (System.TypeLoadException) and I'm not sure if I want this type of strict Versioning, but I'm just curious how it would be done properly given only the abstract class and an implementation (I know I could do it by using interfaces and/or a Factory pattern).

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• Is there a Visual Studio (or freeware) equivalent for Expression Blend's "Edit Template" feature?

  - by DanM

  In Expression Blend, you can view and edit the control template of objects in the "Objects and Timeline" panel. I'm wondering if there's an equivalent feature in Visual Studio or if there's something free (or very inexpensive) I can download that will allow me to do this. Here's a screen cap from Expression Blend that shows what I'm talking about: Doing this for DataGrid results in the following: <Style x:Key="DataGridStyle1" TargetType="{x:Type Custom:DataGrid}"> ... <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type Custom:DataGrid}"> ... </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> <Style.Triggers> <Trigger Property="IsGrouping" Value="True"> <Setter Property="ScrollViewer.CanContentScroll" Value="False"/> </Trigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> (The ... is of course replaced with setters and the contents of the control template.) This is a very useful starting point if you want to create a custom style and template for a control. It seems like you can do pretty much anything you can do in Blend in Studio, but this one is eluding me. Any ideas? Edit I'm also curious if this feature will be in Visual Studio 2010. Anyone know?

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• DCI: How to implement Context with Dependency Injection?

  - by ciscoheat

  Most examples of a DCI Context are implemented as a Command pattern. When using Dependency Injection though, it's useful to have the dependencies injected in the constructor and send the parameters into the executing method. Compare the Command pattern class: public class SomeContext { private readonly SomeRole _someRole; private readonly IRepository<User> _userRepository; // Everything goes into the constructor for a true encapsuled command. public SomeContext(SomeRole someRole, IRepository<User> userRepository) { _someRole = someRole; _userRepository = userRepository; } public void Execute() { _someRole.DoStuff(_userRepository); } } With the Dependency injected class: public class SomeContext { private readonly IRepository<User> _userRepository; // Only what can be injected using the DI provider. public SomeContext(IRepository<User> userRepository) { _userRepository = userRepository; } // Parameters from the executing method public void Execute(SomeRole someRole) { someRole.DoStuff(_userRepository); } } The last one seems a bit nicer, but I've never seen it implemented like this so I'm curious if there are any things to consider.

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• RichTextBox text is not shown C#

  - by user271077

  using richtextbox control programatically i'm appending text to the richtextbox . richTextBox1.AppendText("hello"); somehow the text appears in the richTextBox1.Text but is not shown in the form. any idea of what might be the problem? (I checked the forecolor seems ok). Thanks in advance Edit: found the root cause (had by mistake the initializeComponent() twice. ) private void InitializeComponent() { this.richTextBox1 = new System.Windows.Forms.RichTextBox(); this.SuspendLayout(); // // richTextBox1 // this.richTextBox1.Location = new System.Drawing.Point(114, 104); this.richTextBox1.Name = "richTextBox1"; this.richTextBox1.Size = new System.Drawing.Size(100, 96); this.richTextBox1.TabIndex = 0; this.richTextBox1.Text = ""; // // Form1 // this.AutoScaleDimensions = new System.Drawing.SizeF(6F, 13F); this.AutoScaleMode = System.Windows.Forms.AutoScaleMode.Font; this.ClientSize = new System.Drawing.Size(284, 262); this.Controls.Add(this.richTextBox1); this.Name = "Form1"; this.Text = "Form1"; this.Load += new System.EventHandler(this.Form1_Load); this.ResumeLayout(false); } public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); InitializeComponent(); } private void Form1_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { richTextBox1.AppendText("hello world"); }` but still curious about why did this cause this weird behavior?

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• Why can a public class not inherit from a less visible one?

  - by Dan Tao

  I apologize if this question has been asked before. I've searched SO somewhat and wasn't able to find it. I'm just curious what the rationale behind this design was/is. Obviously I understand that private/internal members of a base type cannot, nor should they, be exposed through a derived public type. But it seems to my naive thinking that the "hidden" parts could easily remain hidden while some base functionality is still shared and a new interface is exposed publicly. I'm thinking of something along these lines: Assembly X internal class InternalClass { protected virtual void DoSomethingProtected() { // Let's say this method provides some useful functionality. // Its visibility is quite limited (only to derived types in // the same assembly), but at least it's there. } } public class PublicClass : InternalClass { public void DoSomethingPublic() { // Now let's say this method is useful enough that this type // should be public. What's keeping us from leveraging the // base functionality laid out in InternalClass's implementation, // without exposing anything that shouldn't be exposed? } } Assembly Y public class OtherPublicClass : PublicClass { // It seems (again, to my naive mind) that this could work. This class // simply wouldn't be able to "see" any of the methods of InternalClass // from AssemblyX directly. But it could still access the public and // protected members of PublicClass that weren't inherited from // InternalClass. Does this make sense? What am I missing? }

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• Criteria for triggering garbage collection in .Net

  - by Kennet Belenky

  I've come across some curious behavior with regard to garbage collection in .Net. The following program will throw an OutOfMemoryException very quickly (after less than a second on a 32-bit, 2GB machine). The Foo finalizer is never called. class Foo { static Dictionary<Guid, WeakReference> allFoos = new Dictionary<Guid, WeakReference>(); Guid guid = Guid.NewGuid(); byte[] buffer = new byte[1000000]; static Random rand = new Random(); public Foo() { // Uncomment the following line and the program will run forever. // rand.NextBytes(buffer); allFoos[guid] = new WeakReference(this); } ~Foo() { allFoos.Remove(guid); } static public void Main(string args[]) { for (; ; ) { new Foo(); } } } If the rand.nextBytes line is uncommented, it will run ad infinitum, and the Foo finalizer is regularly invoked. Why is that? My best guess is that in the former case, either the CLR or the Windows VMM is lazy about allocating physical memory. The buffer never gets written to, so the physical memory is never used. When the address space runs out, the system crashes. In the latter case, the system runs out of physical memory before it runs out of address space, the GC is triggered and the objects are collected. However, here's the part I don't get. Assuming my theory is correct, why doesn't the GC trigger when the address space runs low? If my theory is incorrect, then what's the real explanation?

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• Is there a better way to do updates in LinqToSQL?

  - by Vaccano

  I have a list (that comes to my middleware app from the client) that I need to put in my database. Some items in the list may already be in the db (just need an update). Others are new inserts. This turns out to be much harder than I thought I would be. Here is my code to do that. I am hoping there is a better way: public void InsertClients(List<Client> clients) { var comparer = new LambdaComparer<Client>((x, y) => x.Id == y.Id); // Get a listing of all the ones we will be updating var alreadyInDB = ctx.Clients .Where(client => clients.Contains(client, comparer)); // Update the changes for those already in the db foreach (Client clientDB in alreadyInDB) { var clientDBClosure = clientDB; Client clientParam = clients.Find(x => x.Id == clientDBClosure.Id); clientDB.ArrivalTime = clientParam.ArrivalTime; clientDB.ClientId = clientParam.ClientId; clientDB.ClientName = clientParam.ClientName; clientDB.ClientEventTime = clientParam.ClientEventTime; clientDB.EmployeeCount = clientParam.EmployeeCount; clientDB.ManagerId = clientParam.ManagerId; } // Get a list of all clients that are not in my the database. var notInDB = clients.Where(x => alreadyInDB.Contains(x, comparer) == false); ctx.Clients.InsertAllOnSubmit(notInDB); ctx.SubmitChanges(); } This seems like a lot of work to do a simple update. But maybe I am just spoiled. Anyway, if there is a easier way to do this please let me know. Note: If you are curious the code to the LambdaComparer is here: http://gist.github.com/335780#file_lambda_comparer.cs

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• Jquery change name attribute

  - by kevin

  Hi thereive got a jquery function that attempts to change the id, name and class of an elements the id and class change seems to work but for some curious reason, trying to change the name of the element never works, the code is below, any clues would be helpful $(document).ready(function () { $("table select").live("change", function () { var id = $(this).attr('id'); if ($(this).attr('classname') != "selected") { var rowIndex = $(this).closest('tr').prevAll().length; $.getJSON("/Category/GetSubCategories/" + $(this).val(), function (data) { if (data.length > 0) { $("#" + id).attr('classname', 'selected'); $("#" + id).attr('id', 'sel' + rowIndex); $("#" + id).attr('name', 'sel' + rowIndex); // this never works var position = ($('table').get(0)); var tr = position.insertRow(rowIndex + 1); var td1 = tr.insertCell(-1); var td2 = tr.insertCell(-1); td1.appendChild(document.createTextNode('SubCategory')); var sel = document.createElement("select"); sel.name = 'parent_id'; sel.id = 'parent_id'; sel.setAttribute('class', 'unselected'); td2.appendChild(sel); $.each(data, function (GetSubCatergories, Category) { $('#parent_id').append($("<option></option>"). attr("value", Category.category_id). text(Category.name)); }); } }); } }); });

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• Angular throws "Error: Invalid argument." in IE

  - by przno

  I have a directive which takes element's text and places wbr elements after every 10th character. I'm using it for example on table cells with long text (e.g. URLs), so it does not span over the table. Code of the directive: myApp.directive('myWbr', function ($interpolate) { return { restrict: 'A', link: function (scope, element, attrs) { // get the interpolated text of HTML element var expression = $interpolate(element.text()); // get new text, which has <wbr> element on every 10th position var addWbr = function (inputText) { var newText = ''; for (var i = 0; i < inputText.length; i++) { if ((i !== 0) && (i % 10 === 0)) newText += '<wbr>'; // no end tag newText += inputText[i]; } return newText; }; scope.$watch(function (scope) { // replace element's content with the new one, which contains <wbr>s element.html(addWbr(expression(scope))); }); } }; }); Works fine except in IE (I have tried IE8 and IE9), where it throws an error to the console: Error: Invalid argument. Here is jsFiddle, when clicking on the button you can see the error in console. So obvious question: why is the error there, what is the source of it, and why only in IE? (Bonus question: how can I make IE dev tools to tell me more about error, like the line from source code, because it took me some time to locate it, Error: Invalid argument. does not tell much about the origin.) P.S.: I know IE does not know the wbr at all, but that is not the issue. Edit: in my real application I have re-written the directive to not to look on element's text and modify that, but rather pass the input text via attribute, and works fine now in all browsers. But I'm still curious why the original solution was giving that error in IE, thus starting the bounty.

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