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  • MySQL Cursor Issue

    - by James Inman
    I've got the following code - this is the first time I've really attempted using cursors. DELIMITER $$ DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS demo$$ DROP TABLE IF EXISTS temp$$ CREATE TEMPORARY TABLE temp( id INTEGER NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, start DATETIME NOT NULL, end DATETIME NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY(id) ) $$ CREATE PROCEDURE demo() BEGIN DECLARE done INT DEFAULT 0; DECLARE a, b DATETIME; DECLARE cur1 CURSOR FOR SELECT MAX(end) AS end FROM ( SELECT id, start, end, @r := @r + (start > @edate) AS num, @edate := GREATEST(@edate, end) FROM ( SELECT @r := 0, @edate := '0001-01-01' ) vars, student_lectures WHERE ( student_id = 1 AND start >= '2010-04-26 00:00:00' AND end <= '2010-04-30 23:59:59' ) ORDER BY start ) q GROUP BY num; DECLARE cur2 CURSOR FOR SELECT MIN(start) AS start FROM ( SELECT id, start, end, @r := @r + (start > @edate) AS num, @edate := GREATEST(@edate, end) FROM ( SELECT @r := 0, @edate := '0001-01-01' ) vars, student_lectures WHERE ( student_id = 1 AND start >= '2010-04-26 00:00:00' AND end <= '2010-04-30 23:59:59' ) ORDER BY start ) q GROUP BY num LIMIT 1, 18446744073709551615; DECLARE CONTINUE HANDLER FOR NOT FOUND SET done = 1; OPEN cur1; OPEN cur2; REPEAT FETCH cur1 INTO a; FETCH cur2 INTO b; IF NOT done THEN INSERT INTO temp(start, end) VALUES(a,b); END IF; UNTIL done END REPEAT; CLOSE cur1; CLOSE cur2; END $$ SELECT * FROM temp; I'm not getting anything outputted into the temp table. Running the following query gives me output, so I know there's rows it should be matching - but I imagine I've made some obvious mistake. SELECT MAX(end) AS end FROM ( SELECT id, start, end, @r := @r + (start > @edate) AS num, @edate := GREATEST(@edate, end) FROM ( SELECT @r := 0, @edate := '0001-01-01' ) vars, student_lectures WHERE ( student_id = 1 AND start >= '2010-04-26 00:00:00' AND end <= '2010-04-30 23:59:59' ) ORDER BY start ) q GROUP BY num; The output this query returns: +---------------------+ | end | +---------------------+ | 2010-04-26 13:00:00 | | 2010-04-26 18:15:00 | | 2010-04-27 11:00:00 | | 2010-04-27 13:00:00 | | 2010-04-27 18:15:00 | | 2010-04-28 13:00:00 | | 2010-04-29 13:00:00 | | 2010-04-29 18:15:00 | | 2010-04-30 13:00:00 | | 2010-04-30 15:15:00 | | 2010-04-30 17:15:00 | +---------------------+ 11 rows in set (0.02 sec)

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  • t-sql most efficient row to column? crosstab for xml path, pivot

    - by ajberry
    I am looking for the most performant way to turn rows into columns. I have a requirement to output the contents of the db (not actual schema below, but concept is similar) in both fixed width and delimited formats. The below FOR XML PATH query gives me the result I want, but when dealing with anything other than small amounts of data, can take awhile. select orderid ,REPLACE(( SELECT ' ' + CAST(ProductId as varchar) FROM _details d WHERE d.OrderId = o.OrderId ORDER BY d.OrderId,d.DetailId FOR XML PATH('') ),'&#x20;','') as Products from _orders o I've looked at pivot but most of the examples I have found are aggregating information. I just want to combine the child rows and tack them onto the parent. I should also point out I don't need to deal with the column names either since the output of the child rows will either be a fixed width string or a delimited string. For example, given the following tables: OrderId CustomerId ----------- ----------- 1 1 2 2 3 3 DetailId OrderId ProductId ----------- ----------- ----------- 1 1 100 2 1 158 3 1 234 4 2 125 5 3 101 6 3 105 7 3 212 8 3 250 for an order I need to output: orderid Products ----------- ----------------------- 1 100 158 234 2 125 3 101 105 212 250 or orderid Products ----------- ----------------------- 1 100|158|234 2 125 3 101|105|212|250 Thoughts or suggestions? I am using SQL Server 2k5. Example Setup: create table _orders ( OrderId int identity(1,1) primary key nonclustered ,CustomerId int ) create table _details ( DetailId int identity(1,1) primary key nonclustered ,OrderId int ,ProductId int ) insert into _orders (CustomerId) select 1 union select 2 union select 3 insert into _details (OrderId,ProductId) select 1,100 union select 1,158 union select 1,234 union select 2,125 union select 3,105 union select 3,101 union select 3,212 union select 3,250 using FOR XML PATH: select orderid ,REPLACE(( SELECT ' ' + CAST(ProductId as varchar) FROM _details d WHERE d.OrderId = o.OrderId ORDER BY d.OrderId,d.DetailId FOR XML PATH('') ),'&#x20;','') as Products from _orders o which outputs what I want, however is very slow for large amounts of data. One of the child tables is over 2 million rows, pushing the processing time out to ~ 4 hours. orderid Products ----------- ----------------------- 1 100 158 234 2 125 3 101 105 212 250

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  • Best way to randomly select rows *per* column in SQL Server

    - by LesterDove
    A search of SO yields many results describing how to select random rows of data from a database table. My requirement is a bit different, though, in that I'd like to select individual columns from across random rows in the most efficient/random/interesting way possible. To better illustrate: I have a large Customers table, and from that I'd like to generate a bunch of fictitious demo Customer records that aren't real people. I'm thinking of just querying randomly from the Customers table, and then randomly pairing FirstNames with LastNames, Address, City, State, etc. So if this is my real Customer data (simplified): FirstName LastName State ========================== Sally Simpson SD Will Warren WI Mike Malone MN Kelly Kline KS Then I'd generate several records that look like this: FirstName LastName State ========================== Sally Warren MN Kelly Malone SD Etc. My initial approach works, but it lacks the elegance that I'm hoping the final answer will provide. (I'm particularly unhappy with the repetitiveness of the subqueries, and the fact that this solution requires a known/fixed number of fields and therefore isn't reusable.) SELECT FirstName = (SELECT TOP 1 FirstName FROM Customer ORDER BY newid()), LastName= (SELECT TOP 1 LastNameFROM Customer ORDER BY newid()), State = (SELECT TOP 1 State FROM Customer ORDER BY newid()) Thanks!

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  • How do I pass parameters between request-scoped beans

    - by smayers81
    This is a question that has been bothering me for sometime. My application uses ICEFaces for our UI framework and Spring 2.5 for Dependency Injection. In addition, Spring actually maintains all of our backing beans, not the ICEFaces framework, so our faces-config is basically empty. Navigation is not even really handled through navigation-rules. We perform manual redirects to new windows using window.open. All of our beans are defined in our appContext file as being request-scoped. I have Page ABC which is backed by BackingBeanABC. Inside that backing bean, I have a parameter say: private Order order; I then have Page XYZ backed by BackingBeanXYZ. When I redirect from page ABC to page XYZ, I want to transfer the 'order' property from ABC to XYZ. The problem is since everything is request-scoped and I'm performing a redirect, I am losing the value of 'description'. There has got to be an easier way to pass objects between beans in request scope during a redirect. Can anyone assist with this issue?

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  • SQL Pivot table error-using variable gives syntax error

    - by Antoni
    Hi my coworker came to me with this error and now I am hooked and trying to figure it out, hope some of the experts can help us! Thanks so much! When I execute Step6 we get this error: Msg 102, Level 15, State 1, Line 4 Incorrect syntax near '@cols'. --Sample of pivot query --Creating Test Table Step1 CREATE TABLE Product(Cust VARCHAR(25), Product VARCHAR(20), QTY INT) GO -- Inserting Data into Table Step2 INSERT INTO Product(Cust, Product, QTY) VALUES('KATE','VEG',2) INSERT INTO Product(Cust, Product, QTY) VALUES('KATE','SODA',6) INSERT INTO Product(Cust, Product, QTY) VALUES('KATE','MILK',1) INSERT INTO Product(Cust, Product, QTY) VALUES('KATE','BEER',12) INSERT INTO Product(Cust, Product, QTY) VALUES('FRED','MILK',3) INSERT INTO Product(Cust, Product, QTY) VALUES('FRED','BEER',24) INSERT INTO Product(Cust, Product, QTY) VALUES('KATE','VEG',3) GO -- Selecting and checking entires in table Step3 SELECT * FROM Product GO -- Pivot Table ordered by PRODUCT Step4 select * FROM ( SELECT * FROM Product) up PIVOT (SUM(QTY) FOR CUST IN ([FRED], [KATE])) AS pvt ORDER BY PRODUCT GO --dynamic pivot???? Step5 DECLARE @cols NVARCHAR(2000) select @cols = STUFF(( SELECT DISTINCT TOP 100 PERCENT '],[' + b.Cust FROM (select top 100 Cust from tblProduct)b ORDER BY '],[' + b.Cust FOR XML PATH('') ), 1, 2, '') + ']' --Show Step6 SELECT * FROM (SELECT * FROM tblProduct) p PIVOT (SUM(QTY) FOR CUST IN (@cols)) as pvt Order by Product

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  • Best way to randomly select columns from random rows of SQL results.

    - by LesterDove
    A search of SO yields many results describing how to select random rows of data from a database table. My requirement is a bit different, though, in that I'd like to select individual columns from across random rows in the most efficient/random/interesting way possible. To better illustrate: I have a large Customers table, and from that I'd like to generate a bunch of fictitious demo Customer records that aren't real people. I'm thinking of just querying randomly from the Customers table, and then randomly pairing FirstNames with LastNames, Address, City, State, etc. So if this is my real Customer data (simplified): FirstName LastName State ========================== Sally Simpson SD Will Warren WI Mike Malone MN Kelly Kline KS Then I'd generate several records that look like this: FirstName LastName State ========================== Sally Warren MN Kelly Malone SD Etc. My initial approach works, but it lacks the elegance that I'm hoping the final answer will provide. (I'm particularly unhappy with the repetitiveness of the subqueries, and the fact that this solution requires a known/fixed number of fields and therefore isn't reusable.) SELECT FirstName = (SELECT TOP 1 FirstName FROM Customer ORDER BY newid()), LastName= (SELECT TOP 1 LastNameFROM Customer ORDER BY newid()), State = (SELECT TOP 1 State FROM Customer ORDER BY newid()) Thanks!

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  • how to make the user add and delete in android

    - by user3678019
    i have 1 activity .. and in this activity i have 2 web view next to each other , i would like to add , ADD and Delete Button that can add one more web view next to the last web view , and the delete wish will delete any of the web view the user choose . and i want to make the user but it in the order he want like webview 1 first then webview 2 second how can i do this this is mu main.xml <RelativeLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" xmlns:tools="http://schemas.android.com/tools" android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent" tools:context="test.zezo.test.Main$PlaceholderFragment" > <HorizontalScrollView android:id="@+id/horizontalScrollView2" android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent" android:layout_alignParentLeft="true" android:layout_alignParentRight="true" android:layout_alignParentTop="true" > <LinearLayout android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent" android:orientation="horizontal" > <WebView android:id="@+id/webView1" android:layout_width="350dp" android:layout_height="match_parent" android:layout_alignParentLeft="true" /> <WebView android:id="@+id/webView22" android:layout_width="350dp" android:layout_height="match_parent" android:layout_toRightOf="@+id/webView1" android:layout_alignParentLeft="true" /> </LinearLayout> </HorizontalScrollView> and this is a part of my main.java webView = (WebView) findViewById(R.id.webView1); String url = "http://google.com"; webView.getSettings().setJavaScriptEnabled(true); webView.loadUrl(url); webView.setWebChromeClient(new WebChromeClient()); webView.setWebViewClient(new WebViewClient()); WebView webView22 = (WebView)findViewById(R.id.webView22); webView22.getSettings().setJavaScriptEnabled(true); webView22.loadUrl("google.com); webView22.setWebChromeClient(new WebChromeClient()); webView22.setWebViewClient(new WebViewClient()); so how can i do the ADD and DELETE and re Order Buttons to it and one more thing it should be save so when he reopen the app it will be the same as after he add or delete or re order

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  • L10N: Trusted test data for Locale Specific Sorting

    - by Chris Betti
    I'm working on an internationalized database application that supports multiple locales in a single instance. When international users sort data in the applications built on top of the database, the database theoretically sorts the data using a collation appropriate to the locale associated with the data the user is viewing. I'm trying to find sorted lists of words that meet two criteria: the sorted order follows the collation rules for the locale the words listed will allow me to exercise most / all of the specific collation rules for the locale I'm having trouble finding such trusted test data. Are such sort-testing datasets currently available, and if so, what / where are they? "words.en.txt" is an example text file containing American English text: Andrew Brian Chris Zachary I am planning on loading the list of words into my database in randomized order, and checking to see if sorting the list conforms to the original input. Because I am not fluent in any language other than English, I do not know how to create sample datasets like the following sample one in French (call it "words.fr.txt"): cote côte coté côté The French prefer diacritical marks to be ordered right to left. If you sorted that using code-point order, it likely comes out like this (which is an incorrect collation): cote coté côte côté Thank you for the help, Chris

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  • Read XML with PHP

    - by sea_1987
    I am trying to check a field in some XML that is returned from an outside. The XML is returned in a variable call $out and when you view the source of the page you get a XML output of the following, <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <ResponseBlock Live="FALSE" Version="3.51"> <Response Type="AUTH"> <OperationResponse> <TransactionReference>23-9-1334895</TransactionReference> <TransactionCompletedTimestamp>2010-04-30 15:59:05</TransactionCompletedTimestamp> <AuthCode>AUTH CODE:TEST</AuthCode> <TransactionVerifier>AlaUOS1MOnN/iwc5s2WPDm5ggrCLwesUnHs9h+W0N3CRaln2W6lh+6dtaRFFhLdwfnw6y7lRemyJUYl9a3dpWfzORE6DaZkFMb+dIb0Ne1UxjFEJkrEtjzx/i8KSayrIBrT/yGZOoOT42EZ9loc+UkdGk/pqYvj8bZztvgBNo2Ak=</TransactionVerifier> <Result>1</Result> <SettleStatus>0</SettleStatus> <SecurityResponseSecurityCode>1</SecurityResponseSecurityCode> <SecurityResponsePostCode>1</SecurityResponsePostCode> <SecurityResponseAddress>1</SecurityResponseAddress> </OperationResponse> <Order> <OrderInformation>This is a test order</OrderInformation> <OrderReference>Order0001</OrderReference> </Order> </Response> </ResponseBlock> I want check what value is in the 'Result' field. I am unsure how to access the information using PHP, so far I have, $xml = simplexml_load_string($out); Many Thanks

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  • How to communicate between frames?

    - by bangoker
    I'm maintaining an application that goes sort of like this: There is a Page A with a Frame that shows Page B. Now page B is part of a completely different product, so there's a frame in a that just calls B. Now, they want that when B an option in B is clicked, the WHOLE page is redirected to another page in A. The problem is that the url of A is something like "www.client.MyCompany/Order/Details/123" But B doesnt know nothing about A, or which order # it is or anything, but Page A who has the frame B does know it. For know my solution is to just redirect to all the order so something like client.MyCompany/Orders but since B doesn't know which client it is, I'll add it in the webconfig. (so each client has its own webconfig with a different value). I dont find this solution optimal but I can't think of anything else! I already tried putting the needed url in page A in a hidden Div (since A does know all the info) and then trying to read the whole DOM of the page from B to find it.... unfortunately I can only get access to Frame B's DOM... (I tried with jquery). I know frames are evil, but this is how it is written... any ideas? Thanks!

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  • ArrayList.Sort should be a stable sort with an IComparer but is not?

    - by Kaleb Pederson
    A stable sort is a sort that maintains the relative ordering of elements with the same value. The docs on ArrayList.Sort say that when an IComparer is provided the sort is stable: If comparer is set to null, this method performs a comparison sort (also called an unstable sort); that is, if two elements are equal, their order might not be preserved. In contrast, a stable sort preserves the order of elements that are equal. To perform a stable sort, you must implement a custom IComparer interface. Unless I'm missing something, the following testcase shows that ArrayList.Sort is not using a stable sort: internal class DisplayOrdered { public int ID { get; set; } public int DisplayOrder { get; set; } public override string ToString() { return string.Format("ID: {0}, DisplayOrder: {1}", ID, DisplayOrder); } } internal class DisplayOrderedComparer : IComparer { public int Compare(object x, object y) { return ((DisplayOrdered)x).DisplayOrder - ((DisplayOrdered)y).DisplayOrder; } } [TestFixture] public class ArrayListStableSortTest { [Test] public void TestWeblinkCallArrayListIsSortedUsingStableSort() { var call1 = new DisplayOrdered {ID = 1, DisplayOrder = 0}; var call2 = new DisplayOrdered {ID = 2, DisplayOrder = 0}; var call3 = new DisplayOrdered {ID = 3, DisplayOrder = 2}; var list = new ArrayList {call1, call2, call3}; list.Sort(new DisplayOrderedComparer()); // expected order (by ID): 1, 2, 3 (because the DisplayOrder // is equal for ID's 1 and 2, their ordering should be // maintained for a stable sort.) Assert.AreEqual(call1, list[0]); // Actual: ID=2 ** FAILS Assert.AreEqual(call2, list[1]); // Actual: ID=1 Assert.AreEqual(call3, list[2]); // Actual: ID=3 } } Am I missing something? If not, would this be a documentation bug or a library bug? Apparently using an OrderBy in Linq gives a stable sort.

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  • NHibernate slow mapping

    - by Rob A
    My question is what can I do to determine the cause of the slowness, or what can I do to speed it up without knowing the exact cause. I am running a simple query and it appears that the mapping back to the entities is taking taking forever. The result set is 350, which is not much data in my opinion. IRepository repo = ObjectFactory.GetInstance<IRepository>(); var q = repo.Query<Order>(item => item.Ordereddate > DateTime.Now.AddDays(-40)); foreach (var order in q) { Console.WriteLine(order.TransactionNumber); } The profiler is telling me it is executing the query 7ms / 35257ms, I am assuming that the former is the actual response from the db and the latter is the time it takes NH to do it's magic. 35 seconds is too long. This is a simple mapping, one table, nested components, using fluent interface to do mappings. I just start up a simple console app and run the one query, the slowness is measured after the SessionFactory is initialized, there should only be one session, and I am not using a transaction. Thanks

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  • JUnit Test method with randomized nature

    - by Peter
    Hey, I'm working on a small project for myself at the moment and I'm using it as an opportunity to get acquainted with unit testing and maintaining proper documentation. I have a Deck class with represents a deck of cards (it's very simple and, to be honest, I can be sure that it works without a unit test, but like I said I'm getting used to using unit tests) and it has a shuffle() method which changes the order of the cards in the deck. The implementation is very simple and will certainly work: public void shuffle() { Collections.shuffle(this.cards); } But, how could I implement a unit test for this method. My first thought was to check if the top card of the deck was different after calling shuffle() but there is of course the possibility that it would be the same. My second thought was to check if the entire order of cards has changed, but again they could possibly be in the same order. So, how could I write a test that ensures this method works in all cases? And, in general, how can you unit test methods for which the outcome depends on some randomness? Cheers, Pete

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  • Explaining the forecasts from an ARIMA model

    - by Samik R.
    I am trying to explain to myself the forecasting result from applying an ARIMA model to a time-series dataset. The data is from the M1-Competition, the series is MNB65. For quick reference, I have a google doc spreadsheet with the data. I am trying to fit the data to an ARIMA(1,0,0) model and get the forecasts. I am using R. Here are some output snippets: > arima(x, order = c(1,0,0)) Series: x ARIMA(1,0,0) with non-zero mean Call: arima(x = x, order = c(1, 0, 0)) Coefficients: ar1 intercept 0.9421 12260.298 s.e. 0.0474 202.717 > predict(arima(x, order = c(1,0,0)), n.ahead=12) $pred Time Series: Start = 53 End = 64 Frequency = 1 [1] 11757.39 11786.50 11813.92 11839.75 11864.09 11887.02 11908.62 11928.97 11948.15 11966.21 11983.23 11999.27 I have a few questions: (1) How do I explain that although the dataset shows a clear downward trend, the forecast from this model trends upward. This also happens for ARIMA(2,0,0), which is the best ARIMA fit for the data using auto.arima (forecast package) and for an ARIMA(1,0,1) model. (2) The intercept value for the ARIMA(1,0,0) model is 12260.298. Shouldn't the intercept satisfy the equation: C = mean * (1 - sum(AR coeffs)), in which case, the value should be 715.52. I must be missing something basic here. (3) This is clearly a series with non-stationary mean. Why is an AR(2) model still selected as the best model by auto.arima? Could there be an intuitive explanation? Thanks.

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  • Rails - eager load the number of associated records, but not the record themselves.

    - by Max Williams
    I have a page that's taking ages to render out. Half of the time (3 seconds) is spent on a .find call which has a bunch of eager-loaded associations. All i actually need is the number of associated records in each case, to display in a table: i don't need the actual records themselves. Is there a way to just eager load the count? Here's a simplified example: @subjects = Subject.find(:all, :include => [:questions]) In my table, for each row (ie each subject) i just show the values of the subject fields and the number of associated questions for each subject. Can i optimise the above find call to suit these requirements? I thought about using a group field but my full call has a few different associations included, with some second-order associations, so i don't think group by will work. @subjects = Subject.find(:all, :include => [{:questions => :tags}, {:quizzes => :tags}], :order => "subjects.name") :tags in this case is a second-order association, via taggings. Here's my associations in case it's not clear what's going on. Subject has_many :questions has_many :quizzes Question belongs_to :subject has_many :taggings has_many :tags, :through => :taggings Quiz belongs_to :subject has_many :taggings has_many :tags, :through => :taggings Grateful for any advice - max

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  • In a bidirectional JPA OneToMany/ManyToOne association, what is meant by "the inverse side of the as

    - by Bytecode Ninja
    In these examples on TopLink JPA Annotation Reference: Example 1-59 @OneToMany - Customer Class With Generics @Entity public class Customer implements Serializable { ... @OneToMany(cascade=ALL, mappedBy="customer") public Set<Order> getOrders() { return orders; } ... } Example 1-60 @ManyToOne - Order Class With Generics @Entity public class Order implements Serializable { ... @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(name="CUST_ID", nullable=false) public Customer getCustomer() { return customer; } ... } It seams to me that the Customer entity is the owner of the association. However, in the explanation for the mappedBy attribute in the same document, it is written that: if the relationship is bidirectional, then set the mappedBy element on the inverse (non-owning) side of the association to the name of the field or property that owns the relationship as Example 1-60 shows. However, if I am not wrong, looks like in the example the mappedBy is actually specified on the owning side of the association, rather than the non-owning side. So my question is basically: In a bidirectional (one-to-many/many-to-one) association, which of the entities is the owner? How can we designate the One side as the owner? How can we designate the Many side as the owner? What is meant by "the inverse side of the association"? How can we designate the One side as the inverse? How can we designate the Many side as the inverse? Thanks in advance.

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  • Dual usage of asp.net mvc and php under same domain

    - by jim
    Hello all, I've got a scenario where we have a customer who has a linux hosted php app (joomla) that they wish to integrate with some back-end asp.net mvc functionality that was created for a 'sister' site. Basically, the mvc site has prices and stock availability methods which (in the sister site) populates dropdown lists and other 'order' style info on the pages. I've been tasked with looking at the integration options to allow the php site to use this info as a 'service'. (as ever, these guys are looking at cost of ownership, maintenence etc, so this is their preferred route) Has anyone done anything similar with success?? I'd imagine (much like the sister site) liberal doses of ajax will be employed in order to populate portions of the page on demand. So this may have a bearing on any suggestions that you may have. Also, the methods that are being called ultimately end up populating the same database, so there are no issues with correlating the ID's across the different platforms. I don't really want to go down any 'iframe' type route if at all possible, tho' reality may dictate this as being an option. I'm possibly (naively) imagining that i could simply invoke the mvc functions directly from the php app with some sort of 'session' variable being passed for authentication. pretty tall order or pretty straightfwd?? cheers jim

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  • Display a ranking grid for game : optimization of left outer join and find a player

    - by Jerome C.
    Hello, I want to do a ranking grid. I have a table with different values indexed by a key: Table SimpleValue : key varchar, value int, playerId int I have a player which have several SimpleValue. Table Player: id int, nickname varchar Now imagine these records: SimpleValue: Key value playerId for 1 1 int 2 1 agi 2 1 lvl 5 1 for 6 2 int 3 2 agi 1 2 lvl 4 2 Player: id nickname 1 Bob 2 John I want to display a rank of these players on various SimpleValue. Something like: nickname for lvl Bob 1 5 John 6 4 For the moment I generate an sql query based on which SimpleValue key you want to display and on which SimpleValue key you want to order players. eg: I want to display 'lvl' and 'for' of each player and order them on the 'lvl' The generated query is: SELECT p.nickname as nickname, v1.value as lvl, v2.value as for FROM Player p LEFT OUTER JOIN SimpleValue v1 ON p.id=v1.playerId and v1.key = 'lvl' LEFT OUTER JOIN SimpleValue v2 ON p.id=v2.playerId and v2.key = 'for' ORDER BY v1.value This query runs perfectly. BUT if I want to display 10 different values, it generates 10 'left outer join'. Is there a way to simplify this query ? I've got a second question: Is there a way to display a portion of this ranking. Imagine I've 1000 players and I want to display TOP 10, I use the LIMIT keyword. Now I want to display the rank of the player Bob which is 326/1000 and I want to display 5 rank player above and below (so from 321 to 331 position). How can I achieve it ? thanks.

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  • Stored Procedure: Variable passed from PHP alters second half of query string

    - by Stephanie
    Hello everyone, Basically, we have an ASP website right now that I'm converting to PHP. We're still using the MSSQL server for the DB -- it's not moving. In the ASP, now, there's an include file with a giant sql query that's being executed. This include sits on a lot of pages and this is a simple version of what happens. Pages A, B and C all use this include file to return a listing. In ASP, Page A passes through variable A to the include file - page B passes through variable B -- page C passes through variable C, and so on. The include file builds the SQL query like this: sql = "SELECT * from table_one LEFT OUTER JOIN table_two ON table_one.id = table_two.id" then adds (remember, ASP), based on the variable passed through from the parent page, Select Case sType Case "A" sql = sql & "WHERE LOWER(column_a) <> 'no' AND LTRIM(ISNULL(column_b),'') <> '' ORDER BY column_a Case "B" sql = sql & "WHERE LOWER(column_c) <> 'no' ORDER BY lastname, firstname Case "C" sql = sql & "WHERE LOWER(column_f) <> 'no' OR LOWER(column_g) <> 'no' ORDER BY column_g As you notice, every string that's added on as the second part of the sql query is different than the previous; not just one variable can be substituted out, which is what has me stumped. How do I translate this case / switch into the stored procedure, based on the varchar input that I pass to the stored procedure via PHP? This stored procedure will actually handle a query listing for about 20 pages, so it's a hefty one and this is my first major complicated one. I'm getting there, though! I'm also just more used to MySQL, too. Not that they're that different. :P Thank you very much for your help in advance. Stephanie

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  • Pls help working with Dropdownlist in scroll window.

    - by Rahul
    Hi all, Data is stored in the database table with the field document type and document id. And displayed in the scrollwindow, scrollwindow is editable. Data displayed like this: In scrollwindow dropdown items are quote, order, invoice etc. And suppose for Quote type document id is QTE100, and for order is ORD100 etc. In this format data is displayed in the scrollwindow. Here my query is at run time when user change the document type say for Quote to Order warning message should display like “This range is not valid”. And since the scrollwindow editable when user select any new document type from dropdown list system should allow to add that new document type and should not display any message. Pls somebody help me how can I achieve this???pls………pls…......pls For this I have written this code in dropdown document change event. Document Type Site_Scroll Document Type_CHG: warning "The range entered isn't valid."; clear window 'Document Type Site_Scroll'; fill window 'Document Type Site_Scroll' table sop_site_line_temp; But whenever I am changing any document from existing one getting the warning message like “This range is not valid” this is expected, but after changing when the window is filled again by temp table focus is setting to document type dropdown list. One more thing whenever I am going to select any new document type from document type I am getting the same warning message which is not expected, system should allow user to select new document type without giving any warning message. Pls….somebody give me some idea or pls modify my code….

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  • Compute weighted averages for large numbers

    - by Travis
    I'm trying to get the weighted average of a few numbers. Basically I have: Price - 134.42 Quantity - 15236545 There can be as few as one or two or as many as fifty or sixty pairs of prices and quantities. I need to figure out the weighted average of the price. Basically, the weighted average should give very little weight to pairs like Price - 100000000.00 Quantity - 3 and more to the pair above. The formula I currently have is: ((price)(quantity) + (price)(quantity) + ...)/totalQuantity So far I have this done: double optimalPrice = 0; int totalQuantity = 0; double rolling = 0; System.out.println(rolling); Iterator it = orders.entrySet().iterator(); while(it.hasNext()) { System.out.println("inside"); Map.Entry order = (Map.Entry)it.next(); double price = (Double)order.getKey(); int quantity = (Integer)order.getValue(); System.out.println(price + " " + quantity); rolling += price * quantity; totalQuantity += quantity; System.out.println(rolling); } System.out.println(rolling); return totalQuantity / rolling; The problem is I very quickly max out the "rolling" variable. How can I actually get my weighted average? Thanks!

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  • Prevent Text Input expanding in IE

    - by Caroline
    Hi, I am having a problem with an input field in IE. The code is for a portlet and widths need to be dynamic as the user can place the portlet on any of the three columns in the page which all have different widths. As always it works fine in FF but not in IE. In order to make the width dyanaic I have set width="100%". Data to populate the text input comes from a DB. When the page is rendered if there is a long URL the text input expands to fill the contents in IE but in FF it just stays the same width (ie 100% of the TD that it lives in). How can I stop IE from changing the width in order to fit the contents. Setting the width to a fixed width of 100px fixes the issue but I need to have the width as a percentage in order to accommodate the layout of the portlet wherever it is put in on the page. I have tried overflow:hidden and word-wrap:break-word but I cant get either to work. Here is my input code and style sheets <td class="right" > <input type="text" class="validate[custom[url]]" value="" id="linkText" name="communicationLink" maxlength="500" maxsize="100" /> </td> .ofCommunicationsAdmin input { font-family: "Trebuchet MS"; font-size: 11px; font-weight:normal; color:#333333; overflow:hidden; } .ofCommunicationsAdmin #linkText { overflow:hidden; width:100%; border:1px #cccccc solid; background:#F4F7ED top repeat-x; } .ofCommunicationsAdmin td.right { vertical-align: top; text-align: left; }

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  • apache proxy module gives 403 forbidden error

    - by naiquevin
    I am trying to use the apache's proxy module for working with xmpp on ubuntu desktop. For this i did the following things - 1) enabled mod_proxy by creating a symlink of proxy.conf, proxy.load and proxy_http.load from /etc/apache2/mods-available/ in the mods-enabled directory. 2) Added the following lines to the vhost <Proxy http://mydomain.com/httpbind> Order allow,deny Allow from all </Proxy> ProxyPass /httpbind http://mydomain.com:7070/http-bind/ ProxyPassReverse /httpbind http://mydomain.com:7070/http-bind/ I am new to using the proxy module but what i can make from the above lines is that requests to http://mydomain.com/httpbind will be forwarded to http://mydomain.com:7070/http-bind/. Kindly correct if wrong. 3) added rule Allow from .mydomain.com in /mods-available/proxy.conf Now i try to access http://mydomain.com/httpbind and it shows 403 Forbidden error.. What am i missing here ? Please help. thanks Edit : The problem got solved when i changed the following code in mods_available/proxy.conf <Proxy *> AddDefaultCharset off Order deny,allow Deny from all Allow from mydomain.com </Proxy> to <Proxy *> AddDefaultCharset off Order deny,allow #Deny from all Allow from all </Proxy> Didnt get what was wrong with the initial code though

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  • How can I compare market data feed sources for quality and latency improvement?

    - by yves Baumes
    I am in the very first stages of implementing a tool to compare 2 market data feed sources in order to prove the quality of new developed sources to my boss ( meaning there are no regressions, no missed updates, or wrong ), and to prove latencies improvement. So the tool I need must be able to check updates differences as well as to tell which source is the best (in term of latency). Concrectly, reference source could be Reuters while the other one is a Feed handler we develop internally. People warned me that updates might not arrive in the same order as Reuters implementation could differs totally from ours. Therefore a simple algorithm based on the fact that updates could arrive in the same order is likely not to work. My very first idea would be to use fingerprint to compare feed sources, as Shazaam application does to find the title of the tube you are submitting. Google told me it is based on FFT. And I was wondering if signal processing theory could behaves well with market access applications. I wanted to know your own experience in that field, is that possible to develop a quite accurate algorithm to meet the needs? What was your own idea? What do you think about fingerprint based comparison?

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  • Trigger JavaScript action after Datatable is loaded

    - by perissf
    In a JSF 2.1 + PrimeFaces 3.2 web application, I need to trigger a JavaScript function after a p:dataTable is loaded. I know that there is no such event in this component, so I have to find a workaround. In order to better understand the scenario, on page load the dataTable is not rendered. It is rendered after a successful login: <p:commandButton value="Login" update=":aComponentHoldingMyDataTable" action="#{loginBean.login}" oncomplete="handleLoginRequest(xhr, status, args)"/> As you can see from the above code, I have a JavaScript hook after the successful login, if it can be of any help. Immediately after the oncomplete action has finished, the update attribute renders the dataTable: <p:dataTable var="person" value="#{myBean.lazyModel}" rendered="#{p:userPrincipal() != null}" /> After the datatable is loaded, I need to run a JavaScript function on each row item, in order to subscribe to a cometD topic. In theory I could use the oncomplete attribute of the login Button for triggering a property from myBean in order to retrieve once again the values to be displayed in the dataTable, but it doesn't seem very elegant. The JavaScript function should do something with the rowKey of each row of the dataTable: function javaScriptFunctionToBeTriggered(rowKey) { // do something }

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