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  • Test the sequentiality of a column with a single SQL query

    - by LauriE
    Hey, I have a table that contains sets of sequential datasets, like that: ID set_ID some_column n 1 'set-1' 'aaaaaaaaaa' 1 2 'set-1' 'bbbbbbbbbb' 2 3 'set-1' 'cccccccccc' 3 4 'set-2' 'dddddddddd' 1 5 'set-2' 'eeeeeeeeee' 2 6 'set-3' 'ffffffffff' 2 7 'set-3' 'gggggggggg' 1 At the end of a transaction that makes several types of modifications to those rows, I would like to ensure that within a single set, all the values of "n" are still sequential (rollback otherwise). They do not need to be in the same order according to the PK, just sequential, like 1-2-3 or 3-1-2, but not like 1-3-4. Due to the fact that there might be thousands of rows within a single set I would prefer to do it in the db to avoid the overhead of fetching the data just for verification after making some small changes. Also there is the issue of concurrency. The way locking in InnoDB (repeatable read) works (as I understand) is that if I have an index on "n" then InnoDB also locks the "gaps" between values. If I combine set_ID and n to a single index, would that eliminate the problem of phantom rows appearing? Looks to me like a common problem. Any brilliant ideas? Thanks! Note: using MySQL + InnoDB

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  • objective C underscore property vs self

    - by user1216838
    I'm was playing around with the standard sample split view that gets created when you select a split view application in Xcode, and after adding a few fields i needed to add a few fields to display them in the detail view. and something interesting happend in the original sample, the master view sets a "detailItem" property in the detail view and the detail view displays it. - (void)setDetailItem:(id) newDetailItem { if (_detailItem != newDetailItem) { _detailItem = newDetailItem; // Update the view. [self configureView]; } i understand what that does and all, so while i was playing around with it. i thought it would be the same if instead of _detailItem i used self.detailItem, since it's a property of the class. however, when i used self.detailItem != newDetailItem i actually got stuck in a loop where this method is constantly called and i cant do anything else in the simulator. my question is, whats the actual difference between the underscore variables(ivar?) and the properties? i read some posts here it seems to be just some objective C convention, but it actually made some difference.

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  • Basic user authentication with records in AngularFire

    - by ajkochanowicz
    Having spent literally days trying the different, various recommended ways to do this, I've landed on what I think is the most simple and promising. Also thanks to the kind gents from this SO question: Get the index ID of an item in Firebase AngularFire Curent setup Users can log in with email and social networks, so when they create a record, it saves the userId as a sort of foreign key. Good so far. But I want to create a rule so twitter2934392 cannot read facebook63203497's records. Off to the security panel Match the IDs on the backend Unfortunately, the docs are inconsistent with the method from is firebase user id unique per provider (facebook, twitter, password) which suggest appending the social network to the ID. The docs expect you to create a different rule for each of the login method's ids. Why anyone using 1 login method would want to do that is beyond me. (From: https://www.firebase.com/docs/security/rule-expressions/auth.html) So I'll try to match the concatenated auth.provider with auth.id to the record in userId for the respective registry item. According to the API, this should be as easy as In my case using $registry instead of $user of course. { "rules": { ".read": true, ".write": true, "registry": { "$registry": { ".read": "$registry == auth.id" } } } } But that won't work, because (see the first image above), AngularFire sets each record under an index value. In the image above, it's 0. Here's where things get complicated. Also, I can't test anything in the simulator, as I cannot edit {some: 'json'} To even authenticate. The input box rejects any input. My best guess is the following. { "rules": { ".write": true, "registry": { "$registry": { ".read": "data.child('userId').val() == (auth.provider + auth.id)" } } } } Which both throws authentication errors and simultaneously grants full read access to all users. I'm losing my mind. What am I supposed to do here?

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  • Prevent duplicate entries in arraylist

    - by timyh
    Say I create some object class like so public class thing { private String name; private Integer num; public oDetails (String a, Integer b) { name = a; num = b; } ...gets/ sets/ etc Now I want to create an arraylist to hold a number of this object class like so. ArrayList<thing> myList = new ArrayList<thing>; thing first = new thing("Star Wars", 3); thing second = new thing("Star Wars", 1); myList.add(first); myList.add(second); I would like to include some sort of logic so that in this case...when we try and add object "second" rather than add a new object to the arrayList, we add second.getNum() to first.getNum(). So if you were to iterate through the ArrayList it would be "Star Wars", 4 I am having trouble coming up with an elegant way of handling this. And as the arraylist grows, searching through it to determine if there are duplicate name items becomes cumbersome. Can anyone provide some guidance on this?

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  • Seeking C Union clarity

    - by mustISignUp
    typedef union { float flts[4]; struct { GLfloat r; GLfloat theta; GLfloat phi; GLfloat w; }; struct { GLfloat x; GLfloat y; GLfloat z; GLfloat w; }; } FltVector; Ok, so i think i get how to use this, (or, this is how i have seen it used) ie. FltVector fltVec1 = {{1.0f, 1.0f, 1.0f, 1.0f}}; float aaa = fltVec1.x; etc. But i'm not really groking how much storage has been declared by the union (4 floats? 8 floats? 12 floats?), how? and why? Also why two sets of curly braces when using FltVector {{}}? Any pointers much appreciated (sorry for the pun)

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  • Wordpress paths issue

    - by Martin
    I have set a crawler up in wordpress which grabs stocks data and writes to file which when a user enters a symbol/ticker the variable is read and if it matches the data of a previous crawl for that particular companies data will echo the text file on page, if no data is found the crawler then sets off grabs it and writes to file to save for the next time that symbol is used. The problem im having is that everything works groovey apart from one thing, when the content is written to file it saves it in the WP root and not inside a subfolder of the theme, basicaly this means that root becomes untidy very quickly and also should the theme be used on another site then its not practical as some important info is missing. I have tried bloginfo and absolute both return the same failure. This is the code i am using to write to file, like i say it works apart from writing the file into root. <?php $CompDetails = "http://www.devserverurl.com/mattv1/wp-content/themes/stocks/tools/modules/Stock_Quote/company_details/$Symbol.txt"; if (file_exists($CompDetails)) {} else { include ('crawler_file.php'); $html = file_get_html("http://targeturl.com/research/stocks/snapshot/snapshot.asp?ticker=$Symbol:US"); $es = $html->find('div[class="detailsDataContainerLt"]'); $tickerdetails = ("$es[0]"); $FileHandle2 = fopen($CompDetails, 'w') or die("can't open file"); fwrite($FileHandle2, $tickerdetails); fclose($FileHandle2); } ?> edit below, have also tried this and the same happens as above <?php if (file_exists($_SERVER['DOCUMENT_ROOT'] . "/wp-content/themes/stocks/tools/modules/Stock_Quote/company_details/$Symbol.txt")) {} else { include ('crawler_file.php'); $html = file_get_html("http://targeturl.com/research/stocks/snapshot/snapshot.asp?ticker=$Symbol:US"); $es = $html->find('div[class="detailsDataContainerLt"]'); $tickerdetails = ("$es[0]"); $FileHandle2 = fopen($_SERVER['DOCUMENT_ROOT'] . "/wp-content/themes/stocks/tools/modules/Stock_Quote/company_details/$Symbol.txt", 'w') or die("can't open file"); fwrite($FileHandle2, $tickerdetails); fclose($FileHandle2); } ?>

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  • Setting "submit"

    - by user361626
    Driving me a bit nuts this one, have tried alsorts of combination's... At the top of my file I have PHP Code: if (!ISSET ($_POST['submit'])) which tests if the submit has been hit, if not displays the form.... What I'd like to be able to to is generate a link that would be processed directly by the php code that the form would normally be submitted to... (does that make sense ?) so a generated link in the code looks like .. PHP Code: echo '<a href="index.php?submit&s_type=' . $s_type . '&d_height=' . $d_height . '&j_ref=' . $j_ref . '&j_name=' . j_name . '">' . $j_ref . '</a>'; The link generated looks like .. HTML Code: index.php?s_type=partk&d_height=3312&j_ref=AS0001&j_name=j_name I have tried setting "submit" with links like HTML Code: index.php?submit=submit&s_type=partk&d_height=3312&j_ref=AS0001&j_name=j_name index.php?submit&s_type=partk&d_height=3312&j_ref=AS0001&j_name=j_name How do I create a link that sets "submit so it gets processed rather than going through the form ???

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  • JQuery - Set TBODY

    - by Villager
    Hello, I have a table defined as follows: <table id="myTable" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0"> <thead><tr> <th>Date</th> <th>First Name</th> <th>Last Name</th> </tr></thead> <tbody> <!-- rows will go here --> </tbody> </table> I am trying to dynamically populate 'myTable' at runtime via JavaScript. To accomodate for this, I am using JQuery. I want to write some HTML into the tbody element within 'myTable'. However, I am having problems understanding how to do this with the selectors. I know that I can get 'myTable' using: $("#myTable") I know that I can set the HTML of myTable by using the following: $("#myTable").html(someHtmlString); However, that sets the HTML of the entire table. In reality, I just want to set the HTML within the TBODY of 'myTable'. How do I do this with JQuery? Thank you!

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  • How can I determine the "correct" number of steps in a questionnaire where branching is used?

    - by Mike Kingscott
    I have a potential maths / formula / algorithm question which I would like help on. I've written a questionnaire application in ASP.Net that takes people through a series of pages. I've introduced conditional processing, or branching, so that some pages can be skipped dependent on an answer, e.g. if you're over a certain age, you will skip the page that has Teen Music Choice and go straight to the Golden Oldies page. I wish to display how far along the questionnaire someone is (as a percentage). Let's say I have 10 pages to go through and my first answer takes me straight to page 9. Technically, I'm now 90% of the way through the questionnaire, but the user can think of themselves as being on page 2 of 3: the start page (with the branching question), page 9, then the end page (page 10). How can I show that I'm on 66% and not 90% when I'm on page 9 of 10? For further information, each Page can have a number of questions on that can have one or more conditions on them that will send the user to another page. By default, the next page will be the next one in the collection, but that can be over-ridden (e.g. entire sets of pages can be skipped). Any thoughts? :-s

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  • joomla! migration

    - by tim
    I have a Joomla! installation on a remote site and I want to run it locally. I'm running Joomla! locally on a Mac through a standard MAMP installation: Joomla 1.5.12 PHP 5.2.6 MySQL 5.0.41 Apache 2.0.59 OS X 10.5.8 I've added a configuration file to the local Joomla! directory with all the correct local settings, database name, database user-name, database password etc. etc. I've tried a lot of different settings. I've also recreated the remote database locally, ensuring everything copied correctly. I followed a few different sets of instructions with roughly the same steps on how to do the migration. All of the above has not worked for me; at best I get bits of text from the site rendered in the browser. Other times I get SQL errors. What I want is for an already set up remote Joomla! installation to run on my own local machine. Does anyone have any advice as to how to get this working, it'd be very much appreciated? Thanks.

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  • Is it possible to achieve MAX(As,Ad) openGL blending?

    - by Jeff B
    I am working on a game where I want to create shadows under a series of sprites on a grid. The shadows are larger than the sprites themselves and the sprites are animated (i.e. move and rotate). I cannot simply render them into the sprite png, or the shadows will overlap adjacent sprites. I also cannot simply put shadows on a lower layer by themselves, because when they overlap, they will create dark bands at their intersection. These sprites are animated, so it is not feasible to render these en masse. Basically, I want the sprites' shadows to blend together such that they max out at a set opacity. Example: I believe this is equivalent to an openGL blending of (Rs,Gs,Bs,Max(As,Ds)), where I don't really care about R,G, and B, as it will always be the same color in src and dst. However, this is not a valid openGL blending mode. Is there an easy way to accomplish this, especially in cocos2d-iphone? I would be able to approximate this by making the shadow sprites opaque, then applying them both to a parent sprite, and making the parent sprite 40% opacity. However, the way cocos2d works, this only sets the opacity of each child to 40%, rather than the combined sprite image, which results in the same stripe.

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  • Connecting grouped dots/points on a scatter plot based on distance

    - by ToNoY
    I have 2 sets of depth point measurements, for example: > a depth value 1 2 2 2 4 3 3 6 4 4 8 5 5 16 40 6 18 45 7 20 58 > b depth value 1 10 10 2 12 20 3 14 35 I want to show both groups in one figure plotted with depth and with different symbols as you can see here plot(a$value, a$depth, type='b', col='green', pch=15) points(b$value, b$depth, type='b', col='red', pch=14) The plot seems okay, but the annoying part is that the green symbols are all connected (though I want connected lines also). I want connection only when one group has a continued data points at 2 m interval i.e. the symbols should be connected with a line from 2 to 8 m (green) and then group B symbols should be connected from 10-14 m (red) and again group A symbols should be connected (green), which means I do NOT want to see the connection between 8 m sample with the 16 m for group A. An easy solution may be dividing the group A into two parts (say, A-shallow and A-deep) and then plotting A-shallow, B, and A-deep separately. But this is completely impractical because I have thousands of data points with hundreds of groups i.e. I have to produce many depth profiles. Therefore, there has to be a way to program so that dots are NOT connected beyond a prescribed frequency/depth interval (e.g. 2 m in this case) for a particular group of samples. Any idea?

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  • Python programming - Windows focus and program process

    - by Zack
    I'm working on a python program that will automatically combine sets of files based on their names. Being a newbie, I wasn't quite sure how to go about it, so I decided to just brute force it with the win32api. So I'm attempting to do everything with virtual keys. So I run the script, it selects the top file (after arranging the by name), then sends a right click command,selects 'combine as adobe PDF', and then have it push enter. This launched the Acrobat combine window, where I send another 'enter' command. The here's where I hit the problem. The folder where I'm converting these things loses focus and I'm unsure how to get it back. Sending alt+tab commands seems somewhat unreliable. It sometimes switches to the wrong thing. A much bigger issue for me.. Different combination of files take different times to combine. though I haven't gotten this far in my code, my plan was to set some arbitrarily long time.sleep() command before it finally sent the last "enter" command to finish and confirm the file name completing the combination process. Is there a way to monitor another programs progress? Is there a way to have python not execute anymore code until something else has finished?

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  • Mercurial Subrepos, how to control which changeset I want to use for a subrepo?

    - by Lasse V. Karlsen
    I am reading up on subrepos, and have been running some tests locally, seems to work OK so far, but I have one question. How do I specify/control which changeset I want to use for a particular subrepo? For instance, let's say I have the following two projects: class library application o fourth commit o second commit, added a feature | | o third commit o initial commit | | o second commit |/ o initial commit Now, I want the class library as a subrepo of my application, but due to the immaturity of the longest branch (the one ending up as fourth commit), I want to temporarily use the "second commit" tip. How do I go about configuring that, assuming it is even possible? Here's a batch file that sets up the above two repos + adds the library as a subrepo. If you run the batch file, it will output: [C:\Temp] :test ... v4 As you can see from that last line there, it verifies the contents of the file in the class library, which is "v4" from the fourth commit. I'd like it to be "v2", and persist as "v2" until I'm ready to pull down a newer version from the class library repository. Can anyone tell me if it is possible to do what I want, and if so, what I need to do in order to lock my subrepo to the right changeset? Batch-file: @echo off if exist app rd /s /q app if exist lib rd /s /q lib if exist app-clone rd /s /q app-clone rem == app == hg init app cd app echo program>main.txt hg add main.txt hg commit -m "initial commit" echo program+feature1>main.txt hg commit -m "second commit, added a feature" cd .. rem == lib == hg init lib cd lib echo v1>lib.txt hg add lib.txt hg commit -m "initial commit" echo v2>lib.txt hg commit -m "second commit" hg update 0 echo v3>lib.txt hg commit -m "third commit" echo v4>lib.txt hg commit -m "fourth commit" cd .. rem == subrepos == cd app hg clone ..\lib lib echo lib = ..\lib >.hgsub hg add .hgsub hg commit -m "added subrepo" cd .. rem == clone == hg clone app app-clone type app-clone\lib\lib.txt

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  • How to map oracle timestamp to appropriate java type in hibernate?

    - by jschoen
    I am new to hibernate and I am stumped. In my database I have tables that have a columns of TIMESTAMP(6). I am using Netbeans 6.5.1 and when I generate the hibernate.reveng.xml, hbm.xml files, and pojo files it sets the columns to be of type Serializable. This is not what I expected, nor what I want them to be. I found this post on the hibernate forums saying to place: in the hibernate.reveng.xml file. In Netbeans you are not able to generate the mappings from this file (it creates a new one every time) and it does not seem to have the ability to re-generate them from the file either (at least according to this it is slated to be available in version 7). So I am trying to figure out what to do. I am more inclined to believe I am doing something wrong since I am new to this, and it seems like it would be a common problem for others. So what am I doing wrong? If I am not doing anything wrong, how do I work around this? I am using Netbeans 6.5, Oracle 10G, and I believe Hibernate 3 (it came with my netbeans). Edit: Meant to say I found this stackoverflow question, but it is really a different problem.

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  • iPhone SDK Programming - Working with a variable across 2 views

    - by SD
    I have what I hope is a fairly simple question about using the value from a variable across 2 views. I’m new to the iPhone SDK platform and the Model/View/Controller methodology. I’ve got background in VB.Net, some Php, but mostly SQL, so this is new ground for me. I’m building an app that has 3 views. For simplicity’s sake, I’ll call them View1, View2, View3. On View1 I have an NSString variable that I’ve declared in View1.h, and synthesized in View1.m. I’ll call it String1. View1.m uses a UITextField to ask the user for their name and then sets the value of String1 to that name (i.e. "Bill"). I would now like to use the value of String1 in View2. I'm not doing anything other than displaying the value ("Bill"), in a UILabel object in View2. Can someone tell me what the easiest way to accomplish that is? Many thanks in advance….

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  • Combining two exe files

    - by Sophia
    Here's some background to my problem: I have a project in Visual C++ 2006 and a project in in Visual C++ 2010 Express. Both compiles to form an exe file each. I cannot convert my 2006 project to 2010 because I get a lot of "unable to load project" errors. I also cannot port my 2010 project code to 2006 (I always get errors no matter what I try, something to do with libraries). My final solution requires me to only have ONE executable. Is there anything I can do to achieve that? I've done some quick search on Google and found there to be exe joiners, but I've also heard that those things are often used to make malware. For reference, I am working with "dummy" clients, and therefore want to simplify things on their end as much as possible. Thus, having them executing one exe is better than having them execute two. Also, I do not wish for their antivirus to go haywire because I used some program to join two exe together. What do? Edit: The two project files do different things. For example, the project in VS2006 one sets up a server, and the project in VS2010 one grabs info on the user's OS. The code for the "server", I think, has a lot of dependencies and for some reason cannot convert to Visual c++ 2010. The code for "grabbing" requires some newer libraries and compiling options, and would not work if I port to 2006.

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  • Does Interlocked guarantee visibility to other threads in C# or do I still have to use volatile?

    - by Lirik
    I've been reading the answer to a similar question, but I'm still a little confused... Abel had a great answer, but this is the part that I'm unsure about: ...declaring a variable volatile makes it volatile for every single access. It is impossible to force this behavior any other way, hence volatile cannot be replaced with Interlocked. This is needed in scenarios where other libraries, interfaces or hardware can access your variable and update it anytime, or need the most recent version. Does Interlocked guarantee visibility of the atomic operation to all threads, or do I still have to use the volatile keyword on the value in order to guarantee visibility of the change? Here is my example: public class CountDownLatch { private volatile int m_remain; // <--- do I need the volatile keyword there since I'm using Interlocked? private EventWaitHandle m_event; public CountDownLatch (int count) { Reset(count); } public void Reset(int count) { if (count < 0) throw new ArgumentOutOfRangeException(); m_remain = count; m_event = new ManualResetEvent(false); if (m_remain == 0) { m_event.Set(); } } public void Signal() { // The last thread to signal also sets the event. if (Interlocked.Decrement(ref m_remain) == 0) m_event.Set(); } public void Wait() { m_event.WaitOne(); } }

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  • Is it possible to customize @synthesized properties?

    - by Dan K.
    I'm probably just being a bit lazy here, but bear with me. Here's my situation. I have a class with two nonatomic, retained properties. Let's say: @property (nonatomic, retain) UITextField *dateField; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSDate *date; I synthesize them as expected in the implementation. What I want to happen is that whenever the setter on date is invoked, it also does something to the dateField (i.e. it sets the text property on the dateField to be a nicely formatted version of the date). I realize I can just manually override the setter for date in my implementation by doing the following: - (void) setDate:(NSDate *)newDate { if (date != newDate) { [date release]; date = [newDate retain]; // my code to touch the dateField goes here } } What would be awesome is if I could let Objective C handle the retain/release cycle, but still be able to "register" (for lack of a better term) a custom handler that would be invoked after the retain/release/set happens. My guess is that isn't possible. My google-fu didn't come up with any answer to this, though, so I thought I'd ask.

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  • Benefits of "Don't Fragment" on TCP Packets?

    - by taspeotis
    One of our customers is having trouble submitting data from our application (on their PC) to a server (different geographical location). When sending packets under 1100 bytes everything works fine, but above this we see TCP retransmitting the packet every few seconds and getting no response. The packets we are using for testing are about 1400 bytes (but less than 1472). I can send an ICMP ping to www.google.com that is 1472 bytes and get a response (so it's not their router/first few hops). I found that our application sets the DF flag for these packets, and I believe a router along the way to the server has an MTU less than/equal to 1100 and dropping the packet. This affects 1 client in 5000, but since everybody's routes will be different this is expected. The data is a SOAP envelope and we expect a SOAP response back. I can't justify WHY we do it, the code to do this was written by a previous developer. So... Are there are benefits OR justification to setting the DF flag on TCP packets for application data? I can think of reasons it is needed for network diagnostics applications but not in our situation (we want the data to get to the endpoint, fragmented or not). One of our sysadmins said that it might have something to do with us using SSL, but as far as I know SSL is like a stream and regardless of fragmentation, as long as the stream is rebuilt at the end, there's no problem. If there's no good justification I will be changing the behaviour of our application. Thanks in advance.

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  • Is it possible to persist two profiles with the Profile Provider Model?

    - by NickGPS
    I have a website that needs to store two sets of user data into separate data stores. The first set of data is used by the SiteCore CMS and holds information about the user. The second set of data is used by a personalisation application that stores its own user data. The reason they aren't stored together in the same profile object is because the personalisation application is used across multiple websites that do not all use SiteCore. I am able to create multiple Profile Providers - I currently have one from SiteCore and a custom provider that I have written and these both work in isolation. The problem exists when you try to configure both in the same web.config file. It seems you can only specify a single Profile object in the web.config file, rather than one for each provider. This means that regardless of which provider is being used the .Net framework sends through the profile object that is specified in the "inherits" parameter in the profile section of the web.config file. My questions are - Is it possible to specify a different Profile object for each Profile Provider? If so, how and where is this specified? Thanks, Nick

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  • Displaying code with <pre> tags.

    - by iMaster
    Currently I'm using <pre><code> code here </code><pre> to display code. I'm pulling this information from a DB for a blog. The problem I'm having is that some of the code isn't showing. For example, in the source code I have this: <pre><code><br /> echo '<ul class="mylist"><li><ul class="left">'; foreach($nameArray as $name) { if($countervar == $half) { echo '</ul></li>'; echo'<li><ul class="right">'; } echo '<li>$name</li>'; ++$i; } echo '</ul></li>'; echo '</ul>'; ?> But all that shows up is this: echo ''; foreach($nameArray as $name) { if($countervar == $half) { echo ''; echo''; } echo '$name'; ++$i; } echo ' An there's some really weird formatting/spacing issues as well. Any ideas as to what is causing this? I should also mention that some of the other sets of code show up just fine.

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  • cURL Affects Cookie Retrieval in PHP?

    - by CJ
    I'm not sure if I'm asking this properly. I have two PHP pages located on the same server. The first PHP page sets a cookie with an expiration and the second one checks to see if that cookie was set. if it is set, it returns "on". If it isn't set, it returns "off". If I just run the pages like "www.example.com/set_cookie.php" AND "www.example.com/is_cookie_set.php" I get an "on" from is_cookie_set.php. Heres the problem, on the set_cookie.php file I have a function called is_set. This function executes the following cURL and returns the contents ("on" or "off"). Unfortunately, the contents are always returned as "off". however, if I check the file manually ("www.example.com/is_cookie_set.php") I can see that the cookie was set. Heres the function : <?php function is_set() { $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, 'http://example.com/is_cookie_set.php'); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); $contents = curl_exec ($ch); curl_close ($ch); echo $contents; } ?> Please note, I'm not using cURL to GET or SET cookies, only to check a page that checks if the cookie was set. I've looked into CURLOPT_COOKIEJAR, and CURLOPT_COOKIEFILE, but I believe those are for setting cookies via cURL and I don't want to do this.

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  • Using Lucene to index private data, should I have a separate index for each user or a single index

    - by Nathan Bayles
    I am developing an Azure based website and I want to provide search capabilities using Lucene. (structured json objects would be indexed and stored in Lucene and other content such as Word documents, etc. would be indexed in lucene but stored in blob storage) I want the search to be secure, such that one user would never see a document belonging to another user. I want to allow ad-hoc searches as typed by the user. Lastly, I want to query programmatically to return predefined sets of data, such as "all notes for user X". I think I understand how to add properties to each document to achieve these 3 objectives. (I am listing them here so if anyone is kind enough to answer, they will have better idea of what I am trying to do) My questions revolve around performance and security. Can I improve document security by having a separate index for each user, or is including the user's ID as a parameter in each search sufficient? Can I improve indexing speed and total throughput of the system by having a separate index for each user? My thinking is that having separate indexes would allow me to scale the system by having multiple index writers (perhaps even on different server instances) working at the same time, each on their own index. Any insight would be greatly appreciated. Regards, Nate

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  • How do I vertcally align thumbnails of unknown height using jQuery?

    - by playahabana
    Ok, I am a complete beginner to this, in fact I am still building my first website. I am attempting to do this all by hand-coding without a CMS in order to try and learn as much possible as quickly as possible. If this post is in the wrong place I apologise, and a pointer to right place would be appreciated. Here goes, I am trying to peice together a bit of jQuery that will automatically vertically align my thumbnails in my image gallery (they are all different sizes). They are within fixed size div's and the function I am attempting looks something like this: <script type="text/javascript"> $('#ul.photo).bind(function() { var smartVert=$(this); var phty=ob.("ul.photo img").height(); //get height of photos var phtdif=Math.floor(208 - phty); //subtract height of photo from div height var phttop=Math.floor(phtdif / 2); //gets padding reqd. $ob.("ul.photo").css({'padding-top' : phttop}) //sets padding to center thumbnail }); smartVert(); unsurprisingly this doesn't work, if some kindly soul could take pity on a total noob, and point out where I am going wrong (probably in writing complete gibberish would be my first guess) it would be greatly appreciated- even if you could just point me in the direcion of a tutorial regarding these things, I have looked and found one reference that said such a function was easy to create, but it did not elaborate. thankyou in advance

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