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  • Using an iterator without its container

    - by User1
    I am mixing some C and C++ libraries and have only a single pointer available to do some work in a callback function. All I need to do is iterate through a vector. Here's a simplified, untested example: bool call_back(void* data){ done=... if (!done) cout << *data++ << endl; return done; } Note that this function is in an extern "C" block in C++. call_back will be called until true is returned. I want it to cout the next element each time it's called. data is a pointer to something that I can pass from elsewhere in the code (an iterator in the above example, but can be anything). Something from data will likely be used to calculate done. I see two obvious options to give to data: Have data point to my vector. Have data point to an iterator of my vector. I can't use an iterator without having the .end() method available, right? I can't use a vector alone (unless maybe I start removing its data). I could make a struct with both vector and iterator, but is there a better way? What would you do?

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  • CURL request incomplete, suspect timeout but not sure.

    - by girlygeek
    I am currently using CURL via a php script running as daily cron to export product data in csv format from a site's admin area. The normal way of exporting data will be to go to the Export page in a browser, and set the configuration, then click on "export data" button. But as the number of products I am exporting is very large, and it takes more than 5-10 mins to export the data, I've decided to use php's curl function to mimic this on a daily basis via cron. Previously, it is working fine, but recently as I increased the number of products in the store by 500+, the script fails to return the exported data. Testing it manually via clicking on the "export" button in a browser, does return the data correctly. Thus there is no "timeout" issue with running the export in a browser manually. I've tested and by removing/decreasing the number of products (thus the time needed), the php-curl script works fine again when run from cron. So I suspect that it has something to do with timeouts issue, specifically with the curl function in php. I've set both CURLOPT_TIMEOUT and CURLOPT_CONNECTTIMEOUT to '0' respectively to try. In the php-curl script, I've also set "set_time_limit(3000)". But still it does not work, and the request will timeout, with the script failing to return with a complete set of csv data. Any help in helping me resolve/understand this issue will be much appreciated!

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  • F# insert/remove item from list

    - by Timothy
    How should I go about removing a given element from a list? As an example, say I have list ['A'; 'B'; 'C'; 'D'; 'E'] and want to remove the element at index 2 to produce the list ['A'; 'B'; 'D'; 'E']? I've already written the following code which accomplishes the task, but it seems rather inefficient to traverse the start of the list when I already know the index. let remove lst i = let rec remove lst lst' = match lst with | [] -> lst' | h::t -> if List.length lst = i then lst' @ t else remove t (lst' @ [h]) remove lst [] let myList = ['A'; 'B'; 'C'; 'D'; 'E'] let newList = remove myList 2 Alternatively, how should I insert an element at a given position? My code is similar to the above approach and most likely inefficient as well. let insert lst i x = let rec insert lst lst' = match lst with | [] -> lst' | h::t -> if List.length lst = i then lst' @ [x] @ lst else insert t (lst' @ [h]) insert lst [] let myList = ['A'; 'B'; 'D'; 'E'] let newList = insert myList 2 'C'

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  • PHP cache header override

    - by Soyo
    I've been through over 100 answers here, lots to try, NOTHING working?? Have a PHP based site. I need caching OFF for all .php files EXCEPT A SELECT FEW. So, in .htaccess, I have the following: ExpiresActive On # Eliminate caching for certain dynamic files <FilesMatch "\.(php|cgi|pl)$"> ExpiresDefault A0 Header set Cache-Control "no-cache, no-store, must-revalidate, max-age=0, proxy-revalidate, no-transform" Header set Pragma "no-cache" </FilesMatch> Using Firebug, I see the following: Cache-Control no-cache, no-store, must-revalidate, max-age=0, proxy-revalidate, no-transform Connection Keep-Alive Content-Type text/html Date Sun, 02 Sep 2012 19:22:27 GMT Expires Sun, 02 Sep 2012 19:22:27 GMT Keep-Alive timeout=3, max=100 Pragma no-cache Server Apache Transfer-Encoding chunked X-Powered-By PHP/5.2.17 Hey, Looks great! BUT, I have a couple .php pages I need some very short caching on. I thought the simple answer was having this added to the very top of each php page in which I want caching enabled: <?php header("Cache-Control: max-age=360"); ?> Nope. Then I tried various versions of the above. Nope. Then I tried meta http-equiv variations. Nope. Then I tried variations of the .htaccess code along with the above variations, such as limiting it to: # Eliminate caching for certain dynamic files <FilesMatch "\.(php|cgi|pl)$"> Header set Cache-Control "no-cache, max-age=0" </FilesMatch> Nope. It seems nothing I do will allow a single .php to be cache enabled with the .htaccess code in place, short of removing the statements from the .htaccess file altogether. Where am I going wrong? What do I have to do to get individual php pages to be cacheable while the rest remain off?? Thank you for any thoughts.

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  • Using LINQ, need help splitting a byte array on data received from Silverlight sockets

    - by gcadmes
    The message packats received contains multiple messages deliniated by a header=0xFD and a footer=0xFE // sample message packet with three // different size messages List<byte> receiveBuffer = new List<byte>(); receiveBuffer.AddRange(new byte[] { 0xFD, 1, 2, 0xFE, 0xFD, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 0xFE, 0xFD, 33, 65, 25, 44, 0xFE}); // note: this sample code is without synchronization, // statements, error handling...etc. while (receiveBuffer.Count > 0) { var bytesInRange = receiveBuffer.TakeWhile(n => n != 0xFE); foreach (var n in bytesInRange) Console.WriteLine(n); // process message.. // 1) remove bytes read from receive buffer // 2) construct message object... // 3) etc... receiveBuffer.RemoveRange(0, bytesInRange.Count()); } As you can see, (including header/footer) the first message in this message packet contains 4 bytes, and the 2nd message contains 10 bytes,a and the 3rd message contains 6 bytes. In the while loop, I was expecting the TakeWhile to add the bytes that did not equal the footer part of the message. Note: Since I am removing the bytes after reading them, the header can always be expected to be at position '0'. I searched examples for splitting byte arrays, but non demonstrated splitting on arrays of unknown and fluctuating sizes. Any help will be greatly appreciated. thanks much!

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  • auto_complete plugin error: Couldn't find Question with ID=auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name

    - by bgadoci
    I have successfully set up this plugin before so I am curious as to what I am doing wrong here. I have built the ability for users to add tags to questions. I am not using tagging plugin here but that shouldn't matter for this. With respect to the auto complete, I am trying to have the form located in the /views/questions/show.html.erb file access the Tags table and display entries in the tags.tags_name column. When I begin to type in the field I get the following error message: Processing QuestionsController#show (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-05-31 15:22:20) [GET] Parameters: {"tag"=>{"tag_name"=>"a"}, "id"=>"auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name"} Question Load (0.1ms) SELECT * FROM "questions" WHERE ("questions"."id" = 0) ActiveRecord::RecordNotFound (Couldn't find Question with ID=auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name): app/controllers/application_controller.rb:15:in `init_data' For some reason I am actually passing the field name as the Question.id. The plugin set up is fairly simple as you add the following line to your controller: auto_complete_for :tag, :tag_name and the following line in your routes.rb file: map.resources :tags, :collection => {:auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name => :get } I have added the controller line to both my tags and questions controller and also mapped resources for both tags and questions in my routes.rb file: map.resources :tags, :collection => {:auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name => :get } map.resources :questions, :collection => {:auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name => :get } I have played around with removing either or of the above but can't seem to fix it. Any ideas what I am doing wrong here?

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  • Velocity CTP: can we 'search' for objects?

    - by Stato Machino
    It appears that 'tags' allow us to associate a 'search term' with the objects placed into the Velocity cache space. However, these can only be queried within a 'region'. Further, regions somehow limit the locality of objects in the cache to a single server (or maybe something kinda like that). So this appears to make it hard to perform any operation for which the unique Id of the cached item is not persisted or continuously available to the application that stores and retrieves objects to and from the cache. In any case, I can't see an easy way to 'cleanse' the cache of objects or to find objects across the entire cache that may share some prefix, postfix or infix values in the cache key so that i can clear out the cache of object repeatedly created in unit tests, for example. And I am unsure about the consequences of regions being associated with single server cache locations. So I would appreciate any help with the following questions: What is the difference between a 'distributed cache' (called a 'partitioned' cache??) when using regions, and a 'local cache'? 1.a. In particular, are the region-oriented values in a distributed cache visible through a cache factory that is configured to 'see' the entire cache space? Are the operations of creating and removing 'regions' efficient enough that it would be reasonable to create a region and a group of tags for each bundle of objects that need to be cached? 2.a. Or does this just push the problem of scoping the 'search for objects' up the chain because the ability of the DataCache object to query down through regions and tags as limited as querying for the cache keys of objects themselves. Thanks, Stato

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  • Why in the world is this Moq + NUnit test failing?

    - by Dave Falkner
    I have this dataAccess mock object and I'm trying to verify that one of its methods is being invoked, and that the argument passed into this method fulfills certain constraints. As best I can tell, this method is indeed being invoked, and with the constraints fulfilled. This line of the test throws a MockException: data.Verify(d => d.InsertInvoice(It.Is<Invoice>(i => i.TermPaymentAmount == 0m)), Times.Once()); However, removing the constraint and accepting any invoice passes the test: data.Verify(d => d.InsertInvoice(It.IsAny<Invoice>()), Times.Once()); I've created a test windows form that instantiates this test class, runs its .Setup() method, and then calls the method which I am wishing to test. I insert a breakpoint on the line of code where the mock object is failing the test data.InsertInvoice(invoice); to actually hover over the invoice, and I can confirm that its .TermPaymentAmount decimal property is indeed zero at the time the method is invoked. Out of desperation, I even added a call back to my dataAccess mock: data.Setup(d => d.InsertInvoice(It.IsAny<Invoice>())).Callback((Invoice inv) => System.Windows.Forms.MessageBox.Show(inv.TermPaymentAmount.ToString("G17"))); And this gives me a message box showing "0". This is really baffling me, and no one else in my shop has been able to figure this out. Any help would be appreciated. A barely related question, which I should probably ask independently, is whether it is preferable to use Mock.Verify(...) as I have here, or to use Mock.Expect(...).Verifiable followed by Mock.VerifyAll() as I have seen other people doing? If the answer is situational, which situations would warrent the use of one over the other?

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  • .find replacing content inside html tags

    - by Woz
    I want to sanitize html tags from my wysiwyg. I want to replace certain tags with another. This almost works only the replaceWith() is also removing the content from within the tags. I dont want to do this. I just want to replace the tags. Here is what I have so far. Text for Testing: This<div>is</div><div>a test</div><div>to clean&nbsp;</div><div>some tags</div><div><br></div> Expected Result: This<p>is</p><p>a test</p><p>to clean</p><p>some tags</p><p><br></p> Actual Result: This<p></p><p></p><p></p><p></p><p></p> This is the code I am using to find and replace var thebad = ["h1","h2","h3","h4","h5","h6","div"]; var thegood = ["","","","","","","<p>"]; for(var i = 0; i < thebad.length; i++){ $('.content').contents().find('body').find(thebad[i]).replaceWith(thegood[i]); } I need to figure out how to keep the text inside the html tags when i replace them. Thanks in advance

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  • In sync query calls, one query causing other query to run slower. Why?

    - by Irchi
    Sorry for the long question, but I think this is an interesting situation and I couldn't find any explanations for it: I was involved in optimization of an application that performed a large number of sequential SELECT and INSERT statements on a single dedicated SQL Server database. The process needs to INSERT a large number of records into a table, but for each of them there should be some value mappings, which performed using SELECT statements on another table in the same database. For a specific execution, it took 90 minutes to run. I used a profiler (JProfiler - the application is Java-based) to determine how much time does each part of the application take. It yields that 60% of the time was spent on INSERT method calls, and almost 20% on SELECT calls (the rest distributed in other parts). After some trials, I came to this situation: I commented out the INSERT query that took 60% of the time. I was expecting for the total run time to be around 35 minutes, as I have removed 60% of the 90 minutes. But the whole process took the same 90 minutes (doing only SELECTs and nothing else), but each SELECT took longer this time! Everything was running sync, there were no async calls. And there was only one single thread of execution. SELECT and INSERT queries are very simple, and don't have anything special, and they are on different tables, but on the same DB. I tested with both the DB on the application machine, and on a remote network machine. I can't think of any explanation for this, as the Profiler (Application profiler, not SQL Profiler) reported the changes in the method call times, and by removing INSERT statements SELECT statements took longer to run. Can anyone give me some kind of explanation of what could have happened? (there can't be cache / query optimization stuff, because the queries were run in sync, and in a single thread, and it was far from affecting the cache this much) I should note that the bottleneck of the speed was in SQL server, using most of the CPU time.

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  • error in a c code while trying to remove whitespace

    - by mekasperasky
    this code is the base of lexer , and it does the basic operation of removing the whitespaces from a source file and rewrites it into another file with each word in separate lines . But i am not able to understand why the file lext.txt not getting updated? #include<stdio.h> /* this is a lexer which recognizes constants , variables ,symbols, identifiers , functions , comments and also header files . It stores the lexemes in 3 different files . One file contains all the headers and the comments . Another file will contain all the variables , another will contain all the symbols. */ int main() { int i; char a,b[20],c; FILE *fp1,*fp2; fp1=fopen("source.txt","r"); //the source file is opened in read only mode which will passed through the lexer fp2=fopen("lext.txt","w"); //now lets remove all the white spaces and store the rest of the words in a file if(fp1==NULL) { perror("failed to open source.txt"); //return EXIT_FAILURE; } i=0; while(!feof(fp1)) { a=fgetc(fp1); if(a!="") { b[i]=a; printf("hello"); } else { b[i]='\0'; fprintf(fp2, "%.20s\n", b); i=0; continue; } i=i+1; /*Switch(a) { case EOF :return eof; case '+':sym=sym+1; case '-':sym=sym+1; case '*':sym=sym+1; case '/':sym=sym+1; case '%':sym=sym+1; case ' */ } return 0; }

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  • php png image transparency

    - by user1334130
    I have been working with some code to draw a circle but I am having problems with removing the black background from the shape. I am using imagecopyresampled for its AA features in order to draw a smooth circle, so I can't use a different drawing function. Thanks. <?php $img_2 = imagecreatetruecolor(200, 200); $red = imagecolorallocate($img_2, 255, 0, 0); imagefill($img_2, 0, 0, $red); //set circle values $xPos = 50; $yPos = 80; $diameter = 40; $img_1 = imagecreatetruecolor(($diameter + 2) * 2, ($diameter + 2) * 2); $green = imagecolorallocate($img_1, 0, 255, 0); //draw the circle imagefilledarc($img_1, $diameter+1, $diameter+1, ($diameter + 2) * 2, ($diameter + 2) * 2, 0, 360, $green, IMG_ARC_PIE); imagecopyresampled($img_2, $img_1, $xPos, $yPos, 0, 0, $diameter+2, $diameter+2, ($diameter + 2) * 2, ($diameter + 2) * 2); header("Content-type: image/png"); imagepng($img_2); imagedestroy($img_1); imagedestroy($img_2); ?>

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  • How to determine which enemy is hit and destroy it alone

    - by Jon Ferriter
    http://jsfiddle.net/5DB6K/ I have this game being made where you shoot enemies from the sides of the screen. I've got the bullets moving and being removed when they reach the end of the screen (if they didn't hit any enemy) and removing the enemy when they collide with it. //------------collision----------------// if(shot === true){ bulletY = $('.bullet').position().top + 2; bulletX = $('.bullet').position().left + 2; $('.enemy').each(function(){ if($('.enemy').hasClass('smallEnemy')){ enemyY = $(this).position().top + 7; enemyX = $(this).position().left + 7; if(Math.abs(bulletY - enemyY) <= 9 && Math.abs(bulletX - enemyX) <=9){ $(this).remove(); score = score + 40; bulletDestroy(); } } }); } However, the bullet destroys every enemy if the collision check is right which isn't what I want. I want to check if the enemy has the class of either smallEnemy, medEnemy, or lrgEnemy and then do the collision check which is what I thought I had but it doesn't seem to work. Also, the game starts to lag the more and more time goes on. Would anyone know the reason for that?

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  • auto_complete plugin error: Couldn't find Question with ID=auto_complete_for_...

    - by bgadoci
    I have successfully set up this plugin before so I am curious as to what I am doing wrong here. I have built the ability for users to add tags to questions. I am not using tagging plugin here but that shouldn't matter for this. With respect to the auto complete, I am trying to have the form located in the /views/questions/show.html.erb file access the Tags table and display entries in the tags.tags_name column. When I begin to type in the field I get the following error message: Processing QuestionsController#show (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-05-31 15:22:20) [GET] Parameters: {"tag"=>{"tag_name"=>"a"}, "id"=>"auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name"} Question Load (0.1ms) SELECT * FROM "questions" WHERE ("questions"."id" = 0) ActiveRecord::RecordNotFound (Couldn't find Question with ID=auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name): app/controllers/application_controller.rb:15:in `init_data' For some reason I am actually passing the field name as the Question.id. The plugin set up is fairly simple as you add the following line to your controller: auto_complete_for :tag, :tag_name and the following line in your routes.rb file: map.resources :tags, :collection => {:auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name => :get } I have added the controller line to both my tags and questions controller and also mapped resources for both tags and questions in my routes.rb file: map.resources :tags, :collection => {:auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name => :get } map.resources :questions, :collection => {:auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name => :get } I have played around with removing either or of the above but can't seem to fix it. Any ideas what I am doing wrong here? UPDATE: My QuestionsController#show action is fishing posts by: @question = Question.find(params[:id])

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  • Accessing "pseudo-globals" by their name as a string

    - by rob
    I am now in the process of removing most globals from my code by enclosing everything in a function, turning the globals into "pseudo globals," that are all accessible from anywhere inside that function block. (function(){ var g = 1; var func f1 = function () { alert (g); } var func f2= function () { f1(); } })(); (technically this is only for my "release version", where I append all my files together into a single file and surround them with the above....my dev version still has typically one global per js file) This all works great except for one thing...there is one important place where I need to access some of these "globals" by string name. Previously, I could have done this: var name = "g"; alert (window[name]); and it did the same as alert(g); Now -- from inside the block -- I would like to do the same, on my pseudo-globals. But I can't, since they are no longer members of any parent object ("window"), even though are in scope. Any way to access them by string? Thanks...

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  • Renaming the argument name in JAX-WS

    - by user182944
    I created a web service using JAX-WS in RSA 7.5 and Websphere 7 using bottom-up approach. When I open the WSDL in SOAP UI, then the arguments section is appearing like this: <!--Optional--> <arg0> <empID>?</empId> </arg0> <!--Optional--> <arg1> <empName>?</empName> </arg1> <!--Optional--> <arg2> <empAddress>?</empAddress> </arg2> <!--Optional--> <arg3> <empCountry>?</empCountry> </arg3> The service method takes the above 4 elements as the parameters to return the employee details. 1) I want to rename this arg0, arg1, and so on with some valid names. 2) I want to remove the <!--optional--> present above the arg tags. (For removing the <!--optional--> from elements name, I used @XMLElement(required=true)). But I am not sure where exactly to use this annotation in this case :( Please help. Regards,

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  • Migrating just article contect of Joomla 1.0 to 2.5.x / 3.x?

    - by user2919408
    I have a simple website using Joomla 1.0.15, just having articles in some categories. As i want to install or remove components from admin area, i got : "You are not authorised to view this resource" or something like that. This is uncommon, this site is about 5 years old, and never got error message like that. I think my website is hacked ?? I have set safe_mode = off in php.ini, turn of sh404sef, removing .htaccess file etc ... and it still does not work. Then i try to upgrade to Joomla 2.5.x / 3.x . I found that i must migrate to Joomla 1.5.x first, then from there to 2.5.x. I got problem installing "migration.zip" component in my Joomla 1.0.x (always alert/err message pop up is shown). Is there another way to migrate the website ? May be just get the article section, category, article id and the content of Joomla 1.0.x , then import it to Joomla 2.5.x / 3.x ? I don't need components, modules, mambots (if any) of the old site. How to do it ? Thanks

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  • iPhone loading view from nib only works once

    - by The Swissdude
    Hi Forum I'm trying to add a «loader-view» to my app which shows a spinner while doing stuff. This works fine the first time, but it doesn't work a second time. here's what I do: I have a viewController for the spinner (spinnerViewController) and a nib-file which I made in IB (spinner.xib). I load the nib in the viewDidLoad-event: spinnerView = [[spinnerViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"spinner" bundle:nil]; [spinnerView retain]; spinnerView is declared in the .h-file (spinnerViewController *spinnerView;) next, I show the spinner-view: [self.view addSubview:spinnerView.view]; [self.view bringSubviewToFront:spinnerView.view]; which works fine... And now the trouble starts. No matter what I do, I can't show the spinner view again. I tried just hiding it (self.view sendSubViewToBack: spinnerView.view) which works for hiding, but when I try to bring it to the front again (self.view bringSubViewToFront: spinnerView.view) it doesn't work. I also tried removing the spinner-view and add it again with no success (within the spinnerViewController: [self.view removeFromSuperview] and to show it again [self.view addSubview... ) Any ideas what I'm doing wrong??? ;) Thanks for the help!

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  • When my object is no longer referenced why do its events continue to run?

    - by Ryan Peschel
    Say I am making a game and have a base Buff class. I may also have a subclass named ThornsBuff which subscribes to the Player class's Damaged event. The Player may have a list of Buffs and one of them may be the ThornsBuff. For example: Test Class Player player = new Player(); player.ActiveBuffs.Add(new ThornsBuff(player)); ThornsBuff Class public ThornsBuff(Player player) { player.DamageTaken += player_DamageTaken; } private void player_DamageTaken(MessagePlayerDamaged m) { m.Assailant.Stats.Health -= (int)(m.DamageAmount * .25); } This is all to illustrate an example. If I were to remove the buff from the list, the event is not detached. Even though the player no longer has the buff, the event is still executed as if he did. Now, I could have a Dispel method to unregister the event, but that forces the developer to call Dispel in addition to removing the Buff from the list. What if they forget, increased coupling, etc. What I don't understand is why the event doesn't detatch itself automatically when the Buff is removed from the list. The Buff only existed in the list and that is its one reference. After it is removed shouldn't the event be detached? I tried adding the detaching code to the finalizer of the Buff but that didn't fix it either. The event is still running even after it has 0 references. I suppose it is because the garbage collector had not run yet? Is there any way to make it automatic and instant so that when the object has no references all its events are unregisted? Thanks.

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  • My iOS app has a + in its name. Bundle is invalid due to this. Need help resolving

    - by d.altman
    I did find a couple of very similar or identical threads here but they seemed to end before full resolution. My app runs fine on my device with no build error. I am trying to submit app for approval and I get the following error, "This bundle is invalid. The executable name, as reported by CFBundleExecutable in the info.plist file may not contain any of these characters ..... +". So I opened my info.plist file and changed the info.plist file executable name from the macro ${EXECUTABLE_NAME} to the name of my app without the +. I did a new archive but then get an error saying the "codesign failed with exit code 1". In another thread I read to just change targets name removing the + from there and leaving the info.plist file with the macro for the executable name, restarting Xcode and then archiving again. That allowed me to archive but I received the same error in iTunes Connect. I have been working on this all day and don't find the solution. Can anyone please point me in the right direction? Thank you for any help.

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  • possible solutions of the warning

    - by lego69
    Hello, I have a very large code, that's why I can't post here all my code, can somebody explain what might be a problem if I have an error incompatible pointer type and give me several ways to solve it, thanks in advance just small clarification: I'm workin with pointers to functions ptrLine createBasicLine(){ DECLARE_RESULT_ALLOCATE_AND_CHECK(ptrLine, Line); result->callsHistory = listCreate(copyCall,destroyCall); <-here result->messagesHistory = listCreate(copyMessage,destroyMessage); <-and here result->linesFeature = NULL; result->strNumber = NULL; result->lastBill = 0; result->lineType = MTM_REGULAR_LINE; result->nCallTime = 0; result->nMessages = 0; result->rateForCalls = 0; result->rateForMessage = 0; return result; } copyCall,destroyCall - pointers to functions /** * Allocates a new List. The list starts empty. * * @param copyElement * Function pointer to be used for copying elements into the list or when * copying the list. * @param freeElement * Function pointer to be used for removing elements from the list * @return * NULL - if one of the parameters is NULL or allocations failed. * A new List in case of success. */ List listCreate(CopyListElement copyElement, FreeListElement freeElement); definitions of the functions ptrCall (*createCall)() = createNumberContainer; void (*destroyCall)(ptrCall) = destroyNumberContainer; ptrCall (*copyCall)(ptrCall) = copyNumberContainer;

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  • Log4j Logging to the Wrong Directory

    - by John
    I have a relatively complex log4j.xml configuration file with many appenders. Some machines the application runs on need a separate log directory, which is actually a mapped network drive. To get around this, we embed a system property as part of the filename in order to specify the directory. Here is an example: The "${user.dir}" part is set as a system property on each system, and is normally set to the root directory of the application. On some systems, this location is not the root of the application. The problem is that there is always one appender where this is not set, and the file appears not to write to the mapped drive. The rest of the appenders do write to the correct location per the system property. As a unit test, I set up our QA lab to hard-code the values for the appender above, and it worked: however, a different appender will then append to the wrong file. The mis-logged file is always the same for a given configuration: it is not a random file each time. My best educated guess is that there is a HashMap somewhere containing these appenders, and for some reason, the first one retrieved from the map does not have the property set. Our application does have custom system properties loading: the main() method loads a properties file and calls into System.setProperties(). My first instinct was to check the static initialization order, and to ensure the controller class with the main method does not call into log4j (directly or indirectly) before setting the properties just in case this was interfering with log4j's own initialization. Even removing all vestiges of log4j from the initialization logic, this error condition still occurs.

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  • Remove duplicates in a linked list before adding - C

    - by DesperateCoders
    Hi, My question is about removing duplicates from a linked list. But i want to do it before adding to linked list. struct myStr{int number; mystr *next;} void append(mystr **q,int item) { myStr *temp; temp = *q; myStr *newone; if(*q==NULL)// There should be control of previous elements. Call of keysearch function. { temp = (myStr *)malloc(sizeof(myStr)); temp->number =size; temp->next=NULL; *q=temp; } else //And also here { temp = *q; while(temp->next !=NULL) { temp=temp->next; } newone = (myStr *)malloc(sizeof(myStr)); newone->count = size; newone->next=NULL; temp->next=newone; } } int keysearch (myStr *p) { struct myStr *temp = p; int found = 0; int key= p->number; while (temp->number != NULL) { if(temp->number == key) { found = 1; } temp = temp->next; } return found; } My problem is in keySearch. I don't know what is wrong? Or is there another way for doing this.

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  • Another C++ question, delete not working?

    - by kyeana
    New to c++, and am having a problem with delete and destructor (I am sure i am making a stupid mistake here, but haven't been able to figure it out as of yet). When i step through into the destructor, and attepmt to call delete on a pointer, the message shows up "Cannot access memory at address some address." The relevant code is: /* * Removes the front item of the linked list and returns the value stored * in that node. * * TODO - Throws an exception if the list is empty */ std::string LinkedList::RemoveFront() { LinkedListNode *n = pHead->GetNext(); // the node we are removing std::string rtnData = n->GetData(); // the data to return // un-hook the node from the linked list pHead->SetNext(n->GetNext()); n->GetNext()->SetPrev(pHead); // delete the node delete n; n=0; size--; return rtnData; } and /* * Destructor for a linked node. * * Deletes all the dynamically allocated memory, and sets those pointers to 0. */ LinkedListNode::~LinkedListNode() { delete pNext; // This is where the error pops up delete pPrev; pNext=0; pPrev=0; }

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  • '??' Not a valid unicode character, but in the unicode character set?

    - by Steve Cotner
    Short story: I can't get an entity like '𠂉' to store in a MySQL database, either by using a text field in a Ruby on Rails app (with default UTF-8 encoding) or by inputting it directly with a MySQL GUI app. As far as I can tell, all Chinese characters and radicals can be entered into the database without problem, but not these rarely typed 'character components.' The character mentioned above is unicode U+20089 and html entity &#131209; I can get it to display on the page by entering <html>&#131209;</html> and removing html escaping, but I would like to store it simply as the unicode character and keep the html escaping in place. There are many other Chinese 'components' (parts of full characters, generally consisting of 2 or 3 strokes) that cause the same problem. According to this page, the character mentioned is in the UTF-8 charset: http://www.fileformat.info/info/unicode/char/20089/charset_support.htm But on the neighboring '...20089/index.htm' page, there's an alert saying it's not a valid unicode character. For reference, that entity can be found in Mac OS X by searching through the character palette (international menu, "Show Character Palette"), searching by radical, and looking under the '?' radical. Apologies if this is too open-ended... can a character like this be stored in a UTF-8-based database? How is this character both supported and unsupported, both present in the character set and not valid?

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