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• Hardware acceleration issue with WPF application - Analyzing crash dumps

  - by Appu

  I have a WPF application crashing on the client machine. My initial analysis shows that this is because of H/W acceleration and disabling H/W acceleration at a registry level solves the issue. Now I have to make sure that this is caused because of H/W acceleration. I have the crash dumps available which has a stack trace, 9c52b020 80636ac7 9c52b0bc e1174818 9c52b0c0 nt!_SEH_prolog+0x1a 9c52b038 806379d6 e10378a4 9c52b0bc e1174818 nt!CmpQuerySecurityDescriptorInfo+0x23 9c52b084 805bfe5b e714b160 00000001 9c52b0bc nt!CmpSecurityMethod+0xce 9c52b0c4 805c01c8 e714b160 9c52b0f0 e714b15c nt!ObpGetObjectSecurity+0x99 9c52b0f4 8062f28f e714b160 8617f008 00000001 nt!ObCheckObjectAccess+0x2c 9c52b140 8062ff30 e1038008 0066a710 cde2b714 nt!CmpDoOpen+0x2d5 9c52b340 805bf488 0066a710 0066a710 8617f008 nt!CmpParseKey+0x5a6 9c52b3b8 805bba14 00000000 9c52b3f8 00000240 nt!ObpLookupObjectName+0x53c 9c52b40c 80625696 00000000 8acad448 00000000 nt!ObOpenObjectByName+0xea 9c52b508 8054167c 9c52b828 82000000 9c52b5ac nt!NtOpenKey+0x1c8 9c52b508 80500699 9c52b828 82000000 9c52b5ac nt!KiFastCallEntry+0xfc 9c52b58c 805e701e 9c52b828 82000000 9c52b5ac nt!ZwOpenKey+0x11 9c52b7fc 805e712a 00000002 805e70a0 00000000 nt!RtlpGetRegistryHandleAndPath+0x27a 9c52b844 805e73e3 9c52b864 00000014 9c52bbb8 nt!RtlpQueryRegistryGetBlockPolicy+0x2e 9c52b86c 805e79eb 00000003 e8af79dc 00000014 nt!RtlpQueryRegistryDirect+0x4b 9c52b8bc 805e7f10 e8af79dc 00000003 9c52b948 nt!RtlpCallQueryRegistryRoutine+0x369 9c52bb58 b8f5bca4 00000005 e6024b30 9c52bbb8 nt!RtlQueryRegistryValues+0x482 WARNING: Stack unwind information not available. Following frames may be wrong. 9c52bc00 b8f20a5b 00000005 85f4204c 85f4214c igxpmp32+0x44ca4 9c52c280 b8f1cc7b 890bd358 9c52c2b0 00000000 igxpmp32+0x9a5b 9c52c294 b8f11729 890bd358 9c52c2b0 00000a0c igxpmp32+0x5c7b 9c52c358 804ef19f 890bd040 86d2dad0 0000080c VIDEOPRT!pVideoPortDispatch+0xabf 9c52c368 bf85e8c2 9c52c610 bef6ce84 00000014 nt!IopfCallDriver+0x31 9c52c398 bf85e93c 890bd040 00232150 9c52c3f8 win32k!GreDeviceIoControl+0x93 9c52c3bc bebafc7b 890bd040 00232150 9c52c3f8 win32k!EngDeviceIoControl+0x1f 9c52d624 bebf3fa9 890bd040 bef2a28c bef2a284 igxpdx32+0x8c7b 9c52d6a0 8054167c 9c52da28 b915d000 9c52d744 igxpdx32+0x4cfa9 9c52d6a0 00000000 9c52da28 b915d000 9c52d744 nt!KiFastCallEntry+0xfc How do I ensure that crash is caused by H/W acceleration issue by looking at the above data? I am guessing VIDEOPRT!pVideoPortDispatch+0xabf indicates some error with the rendering. Is that correct? I am using WinDebug to view the crash dump.

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• Ideas for a rudimentary software licensing implementation

  - by Ross

  I'm trying to decide how to implement a very basic licensing solution for some software I wrote. The software will run on my (hypothetical) clients' machines, with the idea being that the software will immediately quit (with a friendly message) if the client is running it on greater-than-n machines (n being the number of licenses they have purchased). Additionally, the clients are non-tech-savvy to the point where "basic" is good enough. Here is my current design, but given that I have little to no experience in the topic, I wanted to ask SO before I started any development on it: A remote server hosts a MySQL database with a table containing two columns: client-key and license quantity The client-side application connects to the MySQL database on startup, offering it's client-key that I've put into a properties file packaged into the distribution (I would create a new distribution for each new client) Chances are, I'll need a second table to store validation history, so that with some short logic, the software can decide if it can be run on a given machine (maybe a sliding window of n machines using the software per 24 hours) If the software cannot establish a connection to the MySQL database, or decides that it's over the n allowed machines per day, it closes The connection info for the remote server hosting the MySQL database should be hard-coded into the app? (That sounds like a bad idea, but otherwise they could point it to some other always-validates-to-success server) I think that about covers my initial design. The intent being that while it certainly isn't full-proof, I think I've made it at least somewhat difficult to create an easily-sharable cracking solution. Also, I can easily adjust the license amount for a given client/key pair. I gotta figure this has been done a million times before, so tell me about a better solution that's just as simple to implement and provides the same (low) amount of security. In the event that external libraries are used, I prefer Java, as that's what the software has been written in.

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• Understanding CSRF - Simple Question

  - by byronh

  I know this might make me seem like an idiot, I've read everything there is to read about CSRF and I still don't understand how using a 'challenge token' would add any sort of prevention. Please help me clarify the basic concept, none of the articles and posts here on SO I read seemed to really explicitly state what value you're comparing with what. From OWASP: In general, developers need only generate this token once for the current session. After initial generation of this token, the value is stored in the session and is utilized for each subsequent request until the session expires. If I understand the process correctly, this is what happens. I log in at http://example.com and a session/cookie is created containing this random token. Then, every form includes a hidden input also containing this random value from the session which is compared with the session/cookie upon form submission. But what does that accomplish? Aren't you just taking session data, putting it in the page, and then comparing it with the exact same session data? Seems like circular reasoning. These articles keep talking about following the "same-origin policy" but that makes no sense, because all CSRF attacks ARE of the same origin as the user, just tricking the user into doing actions he/she didn't intend. Is there any alternative other than appending the token to every single URL as a query string? Seems very ugly and impractical, and makes bookmarking harder for the user.

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• Convert a Relative URL to an Absolute URL in Actionscript / Flex

  - by Bear

  I am working with Flex, and I need to take a relative URL source property and convert it to an absolute URL before loading it. The specific case I am working with involves tweaking SoundEffect's load method. I need to determine if a file will be loaded from the local file system or over the network from looking at the source property, and the easiest way I've found to do this is to generate the absolute URL. I'm having trouble generating the absolute URL for sound effect in particular. Here were my initial thoughts, which haven't worked. Look for the DisplayObject that the Sound Effect targets, and use its loaderInfo property. The target is null when the SoundEffect loads, so this doesn't work. Look at FlexGlobals.topLevelApplication, at the url or loaderInfo properties. Neither of these are set, however. Look at the FlexGlobals.topLevelApplication.systemManager.loaderInfo. This was also not set. The SoundEffect.as code basically boils down to var url:String = "mySound.mp3"; /*>> I'd like to convert the URL to absolute form here and tweak it as necessary <<*/ var req:URLRequest = new URLRequest(url); var loader:Loader = new Loader(); loader.load(req); Does anyone know how to do this? Any help clarifying the rules of how relative urls are resolved for URLRequests in ActionScript would also be much appreciated. edit I would also be perfectly satisfied with some way to tell whether the url will be loaded from the local file system or over the network. Looking at an absolute URL it would just be easy to look at the prefix, like file:// or http://.

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• SQL Server 2008 - Login failed for user 'user1' The user is not associated with a trusted SQL Server connection

  - by difek

  I have installed SQL Server 2008 R2 on Windows XP. In installation process I selected 'SQL Server and Windows Authentication Mode' When I click right button of the mouse in SQL Server Management Studio on Server - Security tab 'SQL server and Windows Authentication Mode' is selected. But when I click on my Database - Properties - View connection properties Authentication Method is set on Windows Authentication. To my database was added one user1 with password user1. But I can't log in to my database from C# (Visual Studio 2008) because error occurs: Login failed for user 'user1' The user is not associated with a trusted SQL Server connection What isn't right ? When I get: string connectionStr = @"Data Source=rmzcmp\SQLExpress;Initial Catalog=ResourcesTmp;Integrated Security=True"; I have following error: {"Cannot open database \"ResourcesTmp\" requested by the login. The login failed.\r\nLogin failed for user 'RMZCMP\rm'."} rm is my original user name on which I log in to my computer. When I get rm I have error: {"Login failed for user 'rm'. The user is not associated with a trusted SQL Server connection."} again. Regards

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• jQuery aspx error function always called, even with apparently valid return data

  - by M Katz

  I am making an ajax call using jQuery (jquery-1.5.2.min.js). The server receives the call. fiddler shows the response text coming back apparently correct. But back in javascript my error: function is called instead of my success: function, and the data of the parameters to the error function don't give much clue as to the problem. Here's the function where I make the initial call: function SelectCBGAtClickedPoint() { $.ajax( { type: "GET", dataType: "text", url: "http://localhost/ajax/SelectCBGAtPoint/1/2", success: function( msg ) { alert( "success: " + msg ); }, error: function( jqXHR, textStatus, errorThrown ) { alert( "error: " + jqXHR + textStatus + errorThrown ); } } ); } Here's the function where I handle the call in my cherrypy server code: def ajax( ajax, *args ): with lock: print "ajax request received: " + str( args ) cherrypy.response.headers[ "Content-Type" ] = "application/text" return "{ x: 0 }" Cherrypy is an odd beast, and I was thinking the problem must lie there. But as I say, I see both the query go out and the response come back in Fiddler. Here is what Fiddler shows as the raw view of the response: HTTP/1.1 200 OK Date: Mon, 11 Apr 2011 17:49:25 GMT Content-Length: 8 Content-Type: application/text Server: CherryPy/3.2.0 { x: 0 } Looks good, but then back in javascript, I get into the error: function, with the following values for the parameters (as shown in firebug): errorThrown = "" jqXHR = Object { readyState=0, status=0, statusText="error"} statusText = "error" I don't know where that word "error" is coming from. That string does not appear anywhere in my cherrypy server code. Note that even though I'm returning a JSON string I've set the send and receive types to "text" for now, just to simplify in order to isolate the problem. Any ideas why I'm getting this "error" reply, even when errorThrown is empty? Could it be that I haven't properly "initialized" either jQuery or jQuery.ajax?

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• How to synchronize placing an object in JNDI across processes?

  - by indra

  I am trying to place an object in JNDI, so that only one of the progam should be able to place it in JNDI. is there any global lock that can be used in J2EE environment. Is RMI can be used for this purpose? please provide any reference links. Thanks in advance. Also, what is NameAlreadyBoundexception? I am trying to use it as a method to synchronize, i.e, only one program places it in JNDI and if other trying to bind should get that exception. But when i am testing the multiple binding I am not getting the Exception.And second binding is done. look up is giving the second object bound. here is my code: private static String JNDI_NAME = "java:comp/env/test/something"; public class TestJNDI { private static String JNDI_NAME = "java:comp/env/test/something"; public static void main(String[] args) throws NamingException { Hashtable env = new Hashtable(); env.put(Context.INITIAL_CONTEXT_FACTORY,"weblogic.jndi.WLInitialContextFactory"); env.put(Context.PROVIDER_URL,"t3://127.0.0.1:7001"); Context ctx = new InitialContext(env); System.out.println("Initial Context created"); String obj1 = "obj1"; String obj2 = "obj2"; try{ ctx.bind(JNDI_NAME, obj1); System.out.println("Bind Sucess"); }catch(NameAlreadyBoundException ne ){ // already bound System.out.println("Name already bound"); } ctx.close(); Context ctx2 = new InitialContext(env); try{ // Second binding to the same name not giving the Exception?? ctx2.bind(JNDI_NAME, obj2); System.out.println("Re Bind Sucess"); }catch(NameAlreadyBoundException ne ){ // already bound System.out.println("Name already bound"); } String lookedUp = (String) ctx2.lookup(JNDI_NAME); System.out.println("LookedUp Object"+lookedUp); ctx2.close(); } }

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• error in the syntax of cmd parameters

  - by KATy

  hi guyz in this method i m just adding the values to the db. temp is a object. the field value and variables in the object re havin the same name.. dono y this error s comin plz help me out... public virtual void Save_input_parameter_details(Test_Unit_BLL temp ) { SqlConnection con; con = new SqlConnection("Data Source=VV;Initial Catalog=testingtool;User ID=sa;Password=sa;"); con.Open(); SqlCommand cmd, cmd2, cmd3; //try //{ for (int i = 0; i < temp.No_Input_parameters; i++) { cmd2 = new SqlCommand("insert into Input_parameter_details values(@Input_Parameter_name,@Input_Parameter_datatype,@noparams,@class_code", con); cmd2.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Input_Parameter_datatype", temp.Input_Parameter_datatype[i]); cmd2.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Input_Parameter_name", temp.Input_Parameter_name[i]); cmd2.Parameters.AddWithValue("@noparams", temp.No_Input_parameters); cmd2.Parameters.AddWithValue("@class_code",temp.class_code); cmd2.ExecuteNonQuery(); } //} //catch (Exception ex) // { // MessageBox.Show("error"+ex); // } }

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• How to make Facebook Authentication from Silverlight secure?

  - by SondreB

  I have the following scenario I want to complete: Website running some HTTP(S) services that returns data for a user. Same website is additionally hosting a Silverlight 4 app which calls these services. The Silverlight app is integrating with Facebook using the Facebook Developer Toolkit (http://facebooktoolkit.codeplex.com/). I have not fully decided whether I want Facebook-integration to be a "opt-in" option such as Spotify, or if I want to "lock" down my service with Facebook-only authentication. That's another discussion. How do I protect my API Key and Secret that I receive from Facebook in a Silverlight app? To me it's obvious that this is impossible as the code is running on the client, but is there a way I can make it harder or should I just live with the fact that third parties could potentially "act" as my own app? Using the Facebook Developer Toolkit, there is a following C# method in Silverlight that is executed from the JavaScript when the user has fully authenticated with Facebook using the Facebook Connect APIs. [ScriptableMember] public void LoggedIn(string sessionKey, string secret, int expires, long userId) { this.SessionKey = sessionKey; this.UserId = userId; Obvious the problem here is the fact that JavaScript is injection the userId, which is nothing but a simple number. This means anyone could potentially inject a different userId in JavaScript and have my app think it's someone else. This means someone could hijack the data within the services running on my website. The alternative that comes to mind is authenticating the users on my website, this way I'm never exposing any secrets and I can return an auth-cookie to the users after the initial authentication. Though this scenario doesn't work very well in an out-of-browser scenario where the user is running the Silverlight app locally and not from my website.

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• How to move list items from two lists (from different areas) to one specific list by clicking the li

  - by pschorr

  I've been having some issues setting up a list of items and moving them between each other. Is it possible to have multiple lists, with a link inside each item to move it to a specified list? i.e. List of actions with a plus next to the action, click the plus and move to a specified box? Furthermore, would it be possible to then load a lightbox (code would have to be inline I'd guess) from that page and move those names to the specific list as well? Example Images Thanks much! More broad view of my efforts so far... The initial issue being that I could not use listboxes due to their being rendered natively inside each individual browser. Through listboxes I was able to set this up, but with a trigger via the code below (found on stackoverflow). While it gave me partial functionality it did not get the target I was looking for. document.getElementById('moveTrigger').onclick = function() { var listTwo = document.getElementById('secondList'); var options = document.getElementById('firstList').getElementsByTagName('option'); while(options.length != 0) { listTwo.appendChild(options[0]); } } I then moved onto jqueryui's sortable and it's ability to connect multiple, and most important, style-able lists and to be dragged between each other. This works for the side by side tables, but it does not offer the usability I was looking for overall. So, I've come to where I'm unsure as to where to move forward. While I can get around PHP, I wouldn't know where to start with this one personally. I'm open to any and all options! Thanks much!

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• How is unautenticated site navigation handled in ASP.NET?

  - by Code Sherpa

  Hi. I am wondering how to do the following... I have a registration system. When the user successfully registers, he is then led down a series of data gathering pages (for his profile) and then, finally, ends on his profile's home page where he can start to use the site. All this happens without ever logging into the system so, he is unauthenticated and unconfirmed. My question is, how does this happen? How can I allow my user to be unauthenticated (and unconfirmed, but this I understand) and use all aspects of the Web site? The way I have things set up right now, my code should be doing this: case CreateProfileStatus.Success: //FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie(userName, false); Response.Redirect("NextPage.aspx", false); break; but, I am being redirected to the login page after registration which is not the result I want. This is what the relevant nodes in my web.config look like: <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms name=".AuthCookie" loginUrl="default.aspx" protection="All"/> </authentication> <authorization> <deny users="?"/> <allow roles="Administrators" /> </authorization> <anonymousIdentification enabled="true" cookieName=".ASPXANONYMOUS" cookieTimeout="100000" cookiePath="/" cookieRequireSSL="false" cookieSlidingExpiration="true" cookieProtection="Encryption" cookieless="UseCookies" domain="" /> When the user logs out after the registration and initial interaction with the site he will be required to log in upon return. At this point he must be authenticated but does not need to be confirmed for a period of time. Eventually, he will be reminded. So, how is this done? Thanks in advance.

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• Syncing two separate structures to the same master data

  - by Mike Burton

  I've got multiple structures to maintain in my application. All link to the same records, and one of them could be considered the "master" in that it reflects actual relationships held in files on disk. The other structures are used to "call out" elements of the main design for purchase and work orders. I'm struggling to come up with a pattern that deals appropriately with changes to the master data. As an example, the following trees might refer to the same data: A |_ B |_ C |_ D |_ E |_ B |_ C |_ D A |_ B E C |_ D A |_ B C D E These secondary structures follow internal rules, but their overall structure is usually user-determined. In all cases (including the master), any element can be used in multiple locations and in multiple trees. When I add a child to any element in the tree, I want to either automatically build the secondary structure for each instance of the "master" element or at least advertise the situation to the user and allow them to manually generate the data required for the secondary trees. Is there any pattern which might apply to this situation? I've been treating it as a view problem, but it turns out to be more complicated than that when you look at the initial generation of the data.

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• Mac CoreLocation Services does not ask for permissions

  - by Ryan Nichols

  I'm writing a Mac App that needs to use CoreLocation services. The code and location works fine, as long as I manually authenticate the service inside the security preference pane. However the framework is not automatically popping up with a permission dialog. The documentation states: Important The user has the option of denying an application’s access to the location service data. During its initial uses by an application, the Core Location framework prompts the user to confirm that using the location service is acceptable. If the user denies the request, the CLLocationManager object reports an appropriate error to its delegate during future requests. I do get an error to my delegate, and the value of +locationServicesEnabled is correct on CLLocationManager. The only part missing is the prompt to the user about permissions. This occurs on my development MPB and a friends MBP. Neither of us can figure out whats wrong. Has anyone run into this? Relevant code: _locationManager = [CLLocationManager new]; [_locationManager setDelegate:self]; [_locationManager setDesiredAccuracy:kCLLocationAccuracyKilometer]; ... [_locationManager startUpdatingLocation]; UPDATE: Answer It seems there is a problem with Sandboxing in which the CoreLocation framework is not allowed to talk to com.apple.CoreLocation.agent. I suspect this agent is responsible for prompting the user for permissions. If you add the Location Services Entitlement (com.apple.security.personal-information.location) it only gives your app the ability to use the CL framework. However you also need access to the CoreLocation agent to ask the user for permissions. You can give your app access by adding the entitlement 'com.apple.security.temporary-exception.mach-lookup.global-name' with a value of 'com.apple.CoreLocation.agent'. Users will be prompted for access automatically like you would expect. I've filed a bug to apple on this already.

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• How does this code break the Law of Demeter?

  - by Dave Jarvis

  The following code breaks the Law of Demeter: public class Student extends Person { private Grades grades; public Student() { } /** Must never return null; throw an appropriately named exception, instead. */ private synchronized Grades getGrades() throws GradesException { if( this.grades == null ) { this.grades = createGrades(); } return this.grades; } /** Create a new instance of grades for this student. */ protected Grades createGrades() throws GradesException { // Reads the grades from the database, if needed. // return new Grades(); } /** Answers if this student was graded by a teacher with the given name. */ public boolean isTeacher( int year, String name ) throws GradesException, TeacherException { // The method only knows about Teacher instances. // return getTeacher( year ).nameEquals( name ); } private Grades getGradesForYear( int year ) throws GradesException { // The method only knows about Grades instances. // return getGrades().getForYear( year ); } private Teacher getTeacher( int year ) throws GradesException, TeacherException { // This method knows about Grades and Teacher instances. A mistake? // return getGradesForYear( year ).getTeacher(); } } public class Teacher extends Person { public Teacher() { } /** * This method will take into consideration first name, * last name, middle initial, case sensitivity, and * eventually it could answer true to wild cards and * regular expressions. */ public boolean nameEquals( String name ) { return getName().equalsIgnoreCase( name ); } /** Never returns null. */ private synchronized String getName() { if( this.name == null ) { this.name == ""; } return this.name; } } Questions How is the LoD broken? Where is the code breaking the LoD? How should the code be written to uphold the LoD?

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• Which linear programming package should I use for high numbers of constraints and "warm starts"

  - by davidsd

  I have a "continuous" linear programming problem that involves maximizing a linear function over a curved convex space. In typical LP problems, the convex space is a polytope, but in this case the convex space is piecewise curved -- that is, it has faces, edges, and vertices, but the edges aren't straight and the faces aren't flat. Instead of being specified by a finite number of linear inequalities, I have a continuously infinite number. I'm currently dealing with this by approximating the surface by a polytope, which means discretizing the continuously infinite constraints into a very large finite number of constraints. I'm also in the situation where I'd like to know how the answer changes under small perturbations to the underlying problem. Thus, I'd like to be able to supply an initial condition to the solver based on a nearby solution. I believe this capability is called a "warm start." Can someone help me distinguish between the various LP packages out there? I'm not so concerned with user-friendliness as speed (for large numbers of constraints), high-precision arithmetic, and warm starts. Thanks!

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• randomized quicksort: probability of two elements comparison?

  - by bantu

  I am reading "Probability and Computing" by M.Mitzenmacher, E.Upfal and I have problems understanding how the probability of comparison of two elements is calculated. Input: the list (y1,y2,...,YN) of numbers. We are looking for pivot element. Question: what is probability that two elements yi and yj (ji) will be compared? Answer (from book): yi and yj will be compared if either yi or yj will be selected as pivot in first draw from sequence (yi,yi+1,...,yj-1,yj). So the probablity is: 2/(y-i+1). The problem for me is initial claim: for example, picking up yi in the first draw from the whole list will cause the comparison with yj (and vice-versa) and the probability is 2/n. So, rather the "reverse" claim is true -- none of the (yi+1,...,yj-1) elements can be selected beforeyi or yj, but the "pool" size is not fixed (in first draw it is n for sure, but on the second it is smaller). Could someone please explain this, how the authors come up with such simplified conclusion? Thank you in advance

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• mySQL Efficiency Issue - How to find the right balance of normalization...?

  - by Foo

  I'm fairly new to working with relational databases, but have read a few books and know the basics of good design. I'm facing a design decision, and I'm not sure how to continue. Here's a very over simplified version of what I'm building: People can rate photos 1-5, and I need to display the average votes on the picture while keeping track of the individual votes. For example, 12 people voted 1, 7 people voted 2, etc. etc. The normalization freak of me initially designed the table structure like this: Table pictures id* | picture | userID | Table ratings id* | pictureID | userID | rating With all the foreign key constraints and everything set as they shoudl be. Every time someone rates a picture, I just insert a new record into ratings and be done with it. To find the average rating of a picture, I'd just run something like this: SELECT AVG(rating) FROM ratings WHERE pictureID = '5' GROUP by pictureID Having it setup this way lets me run my fancy statistics to. I can easily find who rated a certain picture a 3, and what not. Now I'm thinking if there's a crapload of ratings (which is very possible in what I'm really designing), finding the average will became very expensive and painful. Using a non-normalized version would seem to be more efficient. e.g.: Table picture id | picture | userID | ratingOne | ratingTwo | ratingThree | ratingFour | ratingFive To calculate the average, I'd just have to select a single row. It seems so much more efficient, but so much more uglier. Can someone point me in the right direction of what to do? My initial research shows that I have to "find the right balance", but how do I go about finding that balance? Any articles or additional reading information would be appreciated as well. Thanks.

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• How do I represent concurrent actions in jBPM, any of which can end a process?

  - by tpdi

  An example: a permit must be examined by two lawyers and one engineer. If any of those three reject it, the process enters a "rejected" end state. If all three grant the permit, it enters a "granted" end state. All three examiners may examine simultaneously, or in any order. Once one engineer has granted it, it shouldn't be available to be examined by an engineer; once two lawyers have examined it, it shouldn't be available to lawyers; once one engineer and two lawyers have examined it should go to the granted end state. My initial thinking is that either I have a overly complicated state transition diagram, with "the same" intermediate states multiply repeated, or I carry (external) state with the process { bool rejected; int engineerSignoffId; int lawyer1SignoffId; int lawyer2SignoffId}. Or something like this? If so, how does the engineer's rejection terminate the subprocess that is in "Lawyers"? START->FORK->Engineer->Granted?---------------->Y->JOIN-->Granted |->Lawyers-->Granted?->by 2 lawyers?->Y---^ ^ | |--------------------------N What's the canonical jBPM answer to this? Can you point me to examples or documentation of such answers? Thanks.

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• Switch between multiple views while respecting orientation

  - by zoul

  Hello! I have an MVC application with a single model and several views (something like skins). I want the user to be able to switch the views and I can’t get it working with interface orientation. The most simple approach looks like this: - (void) switchToADifferentView: (UIView*) newView { // self is a descendant of UIViewController self.view = newView; } This does not work because the incoming view does not get rotated according to current orientation (until the next orientation change, test case). Is there a way to force the orientation on a view? It looks like the system is trying really hard to keep the interface controls for itself. (Or is it as simple as setting the right transform by hand?) I figured I’d better not switch the views directly and switch controllers instead. This makes sense, as it makes the initial code simpler. But how do I switch controllers that have no “navigation relation” between them? I guess I could use presentModalViewController:, but that seems like a hack. Same goes for navigation controller. If I exchange the controllers by hand, I get the wrong orientation again: - (void) switchToAController: (id) incoming { [currentController.view removeFromSuperview]; [window addSubview:incoming.view]; // does not respect current orientation } Now how the heck do I simply exchange the current controller for another one? Again, the controllers are something like “skins” operating above a shared model, so it really makes no sense to pretend that skin A is a “modal” dialog above skin B or that they’re a part of a navigation stack.

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• NSFetchedResultsController: changing predicate not working?

  - by icerelic

  Hi, I'm writing an app with two tables on one screen. The left table is a list of folders and the right table shows a list of files. When tapped on a row on the left, the right table will display the files belonging to that folder. I'm using Core Data for storage. When the selection of folder changes, the fetch predicate of the right table's NSFetchedResultsController will change and perform a new fetch, then reload the table data. I used the following code snippet: NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"list = %@",self.list]; [fetchedResultsController.fetchRequest setPredicate:predicate]; NSError *error = nil; if (![[self fetchedResultsController] performFetch:&error]) { NSLog(@"Unresolved error %@, %@", error, [error userInfo]); abort(); } [table reloadData]; However the fetch results are still the same. I've NSLog'ed "predicate" before and after the fetch, and they were correct with updated information. The fetch results stay the same as initial fetch (when view is loaded). I'm not very familiar with the way Core Data fetches objects (is there a caching system?), but I've done similar things before(changing predicates, re-fetching data, and refreshing table) with single table views and everything went well. If someone could gave me a hint I would be very appreciated. Thanks in advance.

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• How to override the default init.tcl

  - by Sean Murphy

  I'm working on a project where I want to make use of TCL as the command interpreter. I have a working c library object which I can load from within the tcl shell but my problem is finding a way to automatically do this while starting a tclsh. Essentially my ultimate goal is to be able to run a script and have it load my library and run some initial startup tcl code before dropping me back to the tclsh command prompt in interactive mode. e.g. tclsh -f myscript.tcl --then-switch-to-interactive or EXPORT TCLINIT=myscript.tcl tclsh The basic goal is to avoid having to distribute tclsh but rather rely in local user installations of tcl. All I would like to distribute is my library, a startup script and a shell command to launch the tclsh with the library preloaded. I've tried using the environment variables TCLINIT and TCL_LIBRARY but they seem to have no effect. The only workable solutions I've found so far are to add "source myscript.tcl" to either the end of /usr/share/tcltk/tcl8.5.init.tcl or ~/.tclshrc However both of these "solutions" are non perfect as they require modification of the default users workspace. It strikes me that there must be a way to handle this in TCL, but my research so far hasn't yielded anything. Does anyone have any suggestions?

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• Java Generic Casting Type Mismatch

  - by Kay

  public class MaxHeap<T extends Comparable<T>> implements Heap<T>{ private T[] heap; private int lastIndex; public void main(String[] args){ int i; T[] arr = {1,3,4,5,2}; //ERROR HERE ******* foo } public T[] Heapsort(T[]anArray, int n){ // build initial heap T[]sortedArray = anArray; for (int i = n-1; i< 0; i--){ //assert: the tree rooted at index is a semiheap heapRebuild(anArray, i, n); //assert: the tree rooted at index is a heap } //sort the heap array int last = n-1; //invariant: Array[0..last] is a heap, //Array[last+1..n-1] is sorted for (int j=1; j<n-1;j++) { sortedArray[0]=sortedArray[last]; last--; heapRebuild(anArray, 0, last); } return sortedArray; } protected void heapRebuild(T[ ] items, int root, int size){ foo } } The error is on the line with "T[arr] = {1,3,4,5,2}" Eclispe complains that there is a: "Type mismatch: cannot convert from int to T" I've tried to casting nearly everywhere but to no avail.A simple way out would be to not use generics but instead just ints but that's sadly not an option. I've got to find a way to resolve the array of ints "{1,3,4,5,2}" into an array of T so that the rest of my code will work smoothly.

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• jQuery date picker not persistant after AJAX

  - by ILMV

  So I'm using the jQuery date picker, and it works well. I am using AJAX to go and get some content, obviously when this new content is applied the bind is lost, I learnt about this last week and discovered about the .live() method. But how do I apply that to my date picker? Because this isn't an event therefore .live() won't be able to help... right? This is the code I'm using to bind the date picker to my input: $(".datefield").datepicker({showAnim:'fadeIn',dateFormat:'dd/mm/yy',changeMonth:true,changeYear:true}); I do not want to call this metho everytime my AJAX fires, as I want to keep that as generic as possible. Cheers :-) EDIT As @nick requested, below is my wrapper function got the ajax() method: var ajax_count = 0; function getElementContents(options) { if(options.type===null) { options.type="GET"; } if(options.data===null) { options.data={}; } if(options.url===null) { options.url='/'; } if(options.cache===null) { options.cace=false; } if(options.highlight===null || options.highlight===true) { options.highlight=true; } else { options.highlight=false; } $.ajax({ type: options.type, url: options.url, data: options.data, beforeSend: function() { /* if this is the first ajax call, block the screen */ if(++ajax_count==1) { $.blockUI({message:'Loading data, please wait'}); } }, success: function(responseText) { /* we want to perform different methods of assignment depending on the element type */ if($(options.target).is("input")) { $(options.target).val(responseText); } else { $(options.target).html(responseText); } /* fire change, fire highlight effect... only id highlight==true */ if(options.highlight===true) { $(options.target).trigger("change").effect("highlight",{},2000); } }, complete: function () { /* if all ajax requests have completed, unblock screen */ if(--ajax_count===0) { $.unblockUI(); } }, cache: options.cache, dataType: "html" }); } What about this solution, I have a rules.js which include all my initial bindings with the elements, if I were to put these in a function, then call that function on the success callback of the ajax method, that way I wouldn't be repeating code... Hmmm, thoughts please :D

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• Allow selection of readonly files from SaveFileDialog?

  - by Andy Dent

  I'm using Microsoft.Win32.SaveFileDialog in an app where all files are saved as readonly but the user needs to be able to choose existing files. The existing files being replaced are renamed eg: blah.png becomes blah.png-0.bak, blah.png-1.bak and so on. Thus, the language for the OverwritePrompt is inappropriate - we are not allowing them to overwrite files - so I'm setting dlog.OverwritePrompt = false; The initial filenames for the dialog are generated based on document values so for them, it's easy - we rename the candidate file in advance and if the user cancels or chooses a different name, rename it back again. When I delivered the feature, testers swiftly complained because they wanted to repeatedly save files with names different from the agreed workflow (those goofy, playful guys!). I can't figure out a way to do this with the standard dialogs, in a way that will run safely on both XP (for now) and Windows 7. I was hoping to hook into the FileOK event but that is called after I get a warning dialog: |-----------------------------------------| | blah.png | | This file is set to read-only. | | Try again with a different file name. | |-----------------------------------------|

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• Convert C# Silverlight App To AZURE CLOUD Platform?!?!

  - by Goober

  The Scenario I've been following Brad Abrams Silverlight tutorial on his blog.... I have tried following Brads "How to deploy your app to the Cloud" tutorial however i'm struggling with it, even though it is in the same context as the first tutorial.... The Question Is the application structure essentially the same as the original "non-cloud based version"!? If not, which parts are different? (I get that there is a Cloud Service project added to the solution) - but what else?! Connection String Issue In my "Non-Cloud based application", I make use of the ADO.Net Entity Framework to communicate with my database. The connection string in my web.config file looks like: <add name="InmZenEntities" connectionString="metadata=res://*/InmZenModel.csdl|res://*/InmZenModel.ssdl|res://*/InmZenModel.msl;provider=System.Data.SqlClient;provider connection string=&quot;Data Source=CHASEDIGITALWS3;Initial Catalog=InmarsatZenith;Integrated Security=True;MultipleActiveResultSets=True&quot;" providerName="System.Data.EntityClient" /></connectionStrings> However However the connection string that I get from SQL AZURE looks like: Server=tcp:k12ioy1rsi.ctp.database.windows.net;Database=master;User ID=simongilbert;Password=myPassword;Trusted_Connection=False; So how do I go about merging the two when I move the "non-cloud based application" to THE CLOUD?! Any help regarding converting a silverlight application to a cloud service and deploying it would be greatly appreciated

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