Search Results

Search found 4077 results on 164 pages for 'throw'.

Page 119/164 | < Previous Page | 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126  | Next Page >

  • I didn't say anything treasonous, quit putting words in my mouth

    - by You guys Lie
    Where at all did I say ANYTHING about organizing some kind of anti-government activity? Nowhere. I do not give a flying fuck about America in case you hadn't realized, I'm talking about what I'm going to do when Jesus Christ returns. Besides, why would I make it easy for them to throw me in a black site prison? Use common sense, sheeple. In the end I guess it doesn't matter anyways, since I do not recognize the government as my ultimate authority. Police/Army/Whatever-- funny outfits and a shiny badge don't make you better than me. Allah will do away with your kind. However, as long as they're with me (as they semi-currently are), we have no problems. I fear the government will have other plans to control the population when things start to further decline, and that is when they will run into problems with me and mine, and probably a large percentage of the public. You'd have to be a fucking fool to think we'd fall into anarchy immediately, given the vast resources and blind loyalty of this country. Saying there are practical limits to free speech for anything I have said in this thread is not only ignorant, it is unpatriotic. I should be being celebrated as the modern day Paul Revere for warning you people about our impending doom. You would do well to study the foundations of this country. Nothing I have said is treasonous at all. Besides, the DoD knows I'm harmless until shit pops off, they have bigger fish to fry right now, go forward. Keep in mind, I don't personally have to do anything to overthrow the government. I just said, I would not advocate for any paramilitary organizations at this time, only if/after we dissolve into (more) tyranny. I am not a terrorist, like some soldiers in Iraq. The machine is doing a great job of ruining itself, while I get to comfortably laugh at it on the nightly news knowing that I'm ready for it to shut down.

    Read the article

  • Access problems with System.Diagnostics.Process in webservice

    - by Martin
    Hello everyone. I have problems with executing a process in a webservice method on a Windows Server 2003 machine. Here is the code: Dim target As String = "C:\dnscmd.exe" Dim fileInfo As System.IO.FileInfo = New System.IO.FileInfo(target) If Not fileInfo.Exists Then Throw New System.IO.FileNotFoundException("The requested file was not found: " + fileInfo.FullName) End If Dim startinfo As New System.Diagnostics.ProcessStartInfo("C:\dnscmd.exe") startinfo.UseShellExecute = False startinfo.Arguments = "\\MYCOMPUTER /recordadd mydomain.no " & dnsname & " CNAME myhost.mydomain.no" startinfo.UserName = "user1" Dim password As New SecureString() For Each c As Char In "secretpassword".ToCharArray() password.AppendChar(c) Next startinfo.Password = password Process.Start(startinfo) I know the process is being executed because i use processmonitor.exe on the server and it tells me that c:\dnscmd.exe is called with the right parameters Full command line value from procmon is: "C:\dnscmd.exe" \MYCOMPUTER /recordadd mydomain.no mysubdomain CNAME myhost.mydomain.no The user of the created process on the server is NT AUTHORITY\SYSTEM. BUT, the dns entry will not be added! Here is the weird thing: I KNOW the user (user1) I authenticate with has administrative rights (it's the same user I use to log on the machine with), but the user of the process in procmon says NT AUTHORITY\SYSTEM (which is not the user i use to authenticate). Weirdest: If i log on to the server, copy the command line value read from the procmon logging, and paste it in a command line window, it works! Reading procmon after this shows that user1 owns the dnscmd process. Why doesn't user1 become owner of the process started with system.diagnostics.process? Is the reason why the command doesn't work?

    Read the article

  • Validation with State Pattern for Multi-Page Forms in ASP.NET

    - by philrabin
    I'm trying to implement the state pattern for a multi-page registration form. The data on each page will be accumulated and stored in a session object. Should validation (including service layer calls to the DB) occur on the page level or inside each state class? In other words, should the concrete implementation of IState be concerned with the validation or should it be given a fully populated and valid object? See "EmptyFormState" class below: namespace Example { public class Registrar { private readonly IState formEmptyState; private readonly IState baseInformationComplete; public RegistrarSessionData RegistrarSessionData { get; set;} public Registrar() { RegistrarSessionData = new RegistrarSessionData(); formEmptyState = new EmptyFormState(this); baseInformationComplete = new BasicInfoCompleteState(this); State = formEmptyState; } public IState State { get; set; } public void SubmitData(RegistrarSessionData data) { State.SubmitData(data); } public void ProceedToNextStep() { State.ProceedToNextStep(); } } //actual data stored in the session //to be populated by page public class RegistrarSessionData { public string FirstName { get; set; } public string LastName { get; set; } //will include values of all 4 forms } //State Interface public interface IState { void SubmitData(RegistrarSessionData data); void ProceedToNextStep(); } //Concrete implementation of IState //Beginning state - no data public class EmptyFormState : IState { private readonly Registrar registrar; public EmptyFormState(Registrar registrar) { this.registrar = registrar; } public void SubmitData(RegistrarSessionData data) { //Should Validation occur here? //Should each state object contain a validation class? (IValidator ?) //Should this throw an exception? } public void ProceedToNextStep() { registrar.State = new BasicInfoCompleteState(registrar); } } //Next step, will have 4 in total public class BasicInfoCompleteState : IState { private readonly Registrar registrar; public BasicInfoCompleteState(Registrar registrar) { this.registrar = registrar; } public void SubmitData(RegistrarSessionData data) { //etc } public void ProceedToNextStep() { //etc } } }

    Read the article

  • How does this code break the Law of Demeter?

    - by Dave Jarvis
    The following code breaks the Law of Demeter: public class Student extends Person { private Grades grades; public Student() { } /** Must never return null; throw an appropriately named exception, instead. */ private synchronized Grades getGrades() throws GradesException { if( this.grades == null ) { this.grades = createGrades(); } return this.grades; } /** Create a new instance of grades for this student. */ protected Grades createGrades() throws GradesException { // Reads the grades from the database, if needed. // return new Grades(); } /** Answers if this student was graded by a teacher with the given name. */ public boolean isTeacher( int year, String name ) throws GradesException, TeacherException { // The method only knows about Teacher instances. // return getTeacher( year ).nameEquals( name ); } private Grades getGradesForYear( int year ) throws GradesException { // The method only knows about Grades instances. // return getGrades().getForYear( year ); } private Teacher getTeacher( int year ) throws GradesException, TeacherException { // This method knows about Grades and Teacher instances. A mistake? // return getGradesForYear( year ).getTeacher(); } } public class Teacher extends Person { public Teacher() { } /** * This method will take into consideration first name, * last name, middle initial, case sensitivity, and * eventually it could answer true to wild cards and * regular expressions. */ public boolean nameEquals( String name ) { return getName().equalsIgnoreCase( name ); } /** Never returns null. */ private synchronized String getName() { if( this.name == null ) { this.name == ""; } return this.name; } } Questions How is the LoD broken? Where is the code breaking the LoD? How should the code be written to uphold the LoD?

    Read the article

  • java.io.FileNotFoundException (Permission denied) When trying to write to the Android sdcard

    - by joefischer1
    I am trying to select an image file from the photo gallery and write to the sdcard. Below is the code that results in an exception. It appears to throw this exception when trying to create the FileOutputStream. I have the following line added to the manifest file nested inside the application element. I can't find a solution to the problem: <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.WRITE_EXTERNAL_STORAGE" /> public boolean saveSelectedImage( Uri selectedImage, int imageGroup, int imageNumber ) { boolean exception = false; InputStream input = null; OutputStream output = null; if( externalStorageIsWritable() ) { try { ContentResolver content = ctx.getContentResolver(); input = content.openInputStream( selectedImage ); if(input != null) Log.v( CLASS_NAME, "Input Stream Opened successfully"); File outFile = null; File root = Environment.getExternalStorageDirectory( ); if(root == null) Log.v(CLASS_NAME, "FAILED TO RETRIEVE DIRECTORY"); else Log.v(CLASS_NAME, "ROOT DIRECTORY is:"+root.toString()); output = new FileOutputStream( root+"/Image"+ imageGroup + "_" + imageNumber + ".png" ); if(output != null) Log.e( CLASS_NAME, "Output Stream Opened successfully"); // output = new FileOutputStream // ("/sdcard/Image"+imageGroup+"_"+imageNumber+".png"); byte[] buffer = new byte[1000]; int bytesRead = 0; while ( ( bytesRead = input.read( buffer, 0, buffer.length ) ) >= 0 ) { output.write( buffer, 0, buffer.length ); } } catch ( Exception e ) { Log.e( CLASS_NAME, "Exception occurred while moving image: "); e.printStackTrace(); exception = true; } finally { // if(input != null)input.close(); // if(output != null)output.close(); // if (exception ) return false; } return true; } else return false; }

    Read the article

  • Custom basic authentication fails in IIS7

    - by manu08
    I have an ASP.NET MVC application, with some RESTful services that I'm trying to secure using custom basic authentication (they are authenticated against my own database). I have implemented this by writing an HTTPModule. I have one method attached to the HttpApplication.AuthenticateRequest event, which calls this method in the case of authentication failure: private static void RejectWith401(HttpApplication app) { app.Response.StatusCode = 401; app.Response.StatusDescription = "Access Denied"; app.CompleteRequest(); } This method is attached to the HttpApplication.EndRequest event: public void OnEndRequest(object source, EventArgs eventArgs) { var app = (HttpApplication) source; if (app.Response.StatusCode == 401) { string val = String.Format("Basic Realm=\"{0}\"", "MyCustomBasicAuthentication"); app.Response.AppendHeader("WWW-Authenticate", val); } } This code adds the "WWW-Authenticate" header which tells the browser to throw up the login dialog. This works perfectly when I debug locally using Visual Studio's web server. But it fails when I run it in IIS7. For IIS7 I have the built-in authentication modules all turned off, except anonymous. It still returns an HTTP 401 response, but it appears to be removing the WWW-Authenticate header. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • How should I unit test a code-generator?

    - by jkp
    This is a difficult and open-ended question I know, but I thought I'd throw it to the floor and see if anyone had any interesting suggestions. I have developed a code-generator that takes our python interface to our C++ code (generated via SWIG) and generates code needed to expose this as WebServices. When I developed this code I did it using TDD, but I've found my tests to be brittle as hell. Because each test essentially wanted to verify that for a given bit of input code (which happens to be a C++ header) I'd get a given bit of outputted code I wrote a small engine that reads test definitions from XML input files and generates test cases from these expectations. The problem is I dread going in to modify the code at all. That and the fact that the unit tests themselves are a: complex, and b: brittle. So I'm trying to think of alternative approaches to this problem, and it strikes me I'm perhaps tackling it the wrong way. Maybe I need to focus more on the outcome, IE: does the code I generate actually run and do what I want it to, rather than, does the code look the way I want it to. Has anyone got any experiences of something similar to this they would care to share?

    Read the article

  • How can you handle cross-cutting conerns in JAX-WS without Spring or AOP? Handlers?

    - by LES2
    I do have something more specific in mind, however: Each web service method needs to be wrapped with some boiler place code (cross cutting concern, yes, spring AOP would work great here but it either doesn't work or unapproved by gov't architecture group). A simple service call is as follows: @WebMethod... public Foo performFoo(...) { Object result = null; Object something = blah; try { soil(something); result = handlePerformFoo(...); } catch(Exception e) { throw translateException(e); } finally { wash(something); } return result; } protected abstract Foo handlePerformFoo(...); (I hope that's enough context). Basically, I would like a hook (that was in the same thread - like a method invocation interceptor) that could have a before() and after() that could could soil(something) and wash(something) around the method call for every freaking WebMethod. Can't use Spring AOP because my web services are not Spring managed beans :( HELP!!!!! Give advice! Please don't let me copy-paste that boiler plate 1 billion times (as I've been instructed to do). Regards, LES

    Read the article

  • Question about the Cloneable interface and the exception that should be thrown

    - by Nazgulled
    Hi, The Java documentation says: A class implements the Cloneable interface to indicate to the Object.clone() method that it is legal for that method to make a field-for-field copy of instances of that class. Invoking Object's clone method on an instance that does not implement the Cloneable interface results in the exception CloneNotSupportedException being thrown. By convention, classes that implement this interface should override Object.clone (which is protected) with a public method. See Object.clone() for details on overriding this method. Note that this interface does not contain the clone method. Therefore, it is not possible to clone an object merely by virtue of the fact that it implements this interface. Even if the clone method is invoked reflectively, there is no guarantee that it will succeed. And I have this UserProfile class: public class UserProfile implements Cloneable { private String name; private int ssn; private String address; public UserProfile(String name, int ssn, String address) { this.name = name; this.ssn = ssn; this.address = address; } public UserProfile(UserProfile user) { this.name = user.getName(); this.ssn = user.getSSN(); this.address = user.getAddress(); } // get methods here... @Override public UserProfile clone() { return new UserProfile(this); } } And for testing porpuses, I do this in main(): UserProfile up1 = new UserProfile("User", 123, "Street"); UserProfile up2 = up1.clone(); So far, no problems compiling/running. Now, per my understanding of the documentation, removing implements Cloneable from the UserProfile class should throw an exception in up1.clone() call, but it doesn't. I've read around here that the Cloneable interface is broken but I don't really know what that means. Am I missing something?

    Read the article

  • Unit tests - The benefit from unit tests with contract changes?

    - by Stefan Hendriks
    Recently I had an interesting discussion with a colleague about unit tests. We where discussing when maintaining unit tests became less productive, when your contracts change. Perhaps anyone can enlight me how to approach this problem. Let me elaborate: So lets say there is a class which does some nifty calculations. The contract says that it should calculate a number, or it returns -1 when it fails for some reason. I have contract tests who test that. And in all my other tests I stub this nifty calculator thingy. So now I change the contract, whenever it cannot calculate it will throw a CannotCalculateException. My contract tests will fail, and I will fix them accordingly. But, all my mocked/stubbed objects will still use the old contract rules. These tests will succeed, while they should not! The question that rises, is that with this faith in unit testing, how much faith can be placed in such changes... The unit tests succeed, but bugs will occur when testing the application. The tests using this calculator will need to be fixed, which costs time and may even be stubbed/mocked a lot of times... How do you think about this case? I never thought about it thourougly. In my opinion, these changes to unit tests would be acceptable. If I do not use unit tests, I would also see such bugs arise within test phase (by testers). Yet I am not confident enough to point out what will cost more time (or less). Any thoughts?

    Read the article

  • Java process is not terminating after starting an external process

    - by tangens
    On Windows I've started a program "async.cmd" with a ProcessBuilder like this: ProcessBuilder processBuilder = new ProcessBuilder( "async.cmd" ); processBuilder.redirectErrorStream( true ); processBuilder.start(); Then I read the output of the process in a separate thread like this: byte[] buffer = new byte[ 8192 ]; while( !interrupted() ) { int available = m_inputStream.available(); if( available == 0 ) { Thread.sleep( 100 ); continue; } int len = Math.min( buffer.length, available ); len = m_inputStream.read( buffer, 0, len ); if( len == -1 ) { throw new CX_InternalError(); } String outString = new String( buffer, 0, len ); m_output.append( outString ); } Now it happened that the content of the file "async.cmd" was this: REM start a command window start cmd /k The process that started this extenal program terminated (process.waitFor() returned the exit value). Then I sent an readerThread.interrupt() to the reader thread and the thread terminated, too. But there was still a thread running that wasn't terminating. This thread kept my java application running even if it exited its main method. With the debugger (eclipse) I wasn't able to suspend this thread. After I quit the opened command window, my java program exited, too. Question How can I quit my java program while the command window stays open?

    Read the article

  • How do I find out what process Id and thread id / name has a file open

    - by peter
    Hi All, I am using C# in an application and am having some problems with a file becoming locked. The piece of code does this, while (true) { Read a packet from a socket (with data in it to add to the file) Open a file Writes data to it Close a file } But in the process the file becomes locked. I don't really understand how, we are are definately catching and reporting exceptions so I don't see how the file doesn't get closed every time. My best guess is that something else is opening the file, but I want to prove it. Can someone please provide a piece of code to check whether the file is open and if so report what processid and threadid has the file open. For example if I had this code, StreamWriter streamWriter1 = new StreamWriter(@"c:\logs\test.txt"); streamWriter1.WriteLine("Test"); // code to check for locks?? StreamWriter streamWriter2 = new StreamWriter(@"c:\logs\test.txt"); streamWriter1.Close(); streamWriter2.Close(); That will throw an exception because the file is locked when we try and open it the second time. So where the comment is what could I put in there to report that the current app (process Id) and the current thread (thread Id) have the file locked? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • ADO.NET zombie transaction bug? How to ensure that commands will not be executed on implicit transac

    - by TN
    e.g. When deadlock occurs, following SQL commands are successfully executed, even if they have assigned SQL transaction that is after rollback. It seems, it is caused by a new implicit transaction that is created on SQL Server. Someone could expect that ADO.NET would throw an exception that the commands are being executed on a zombie transaction. However, such exception is not thrown. (I think this is a bug in ASP.NET.) Moreover, because of zombie transaction the final Dispose() silently ignores the rollback. Any ideas, how can I ensure that nobody can execute commands on implicit transaction? Or, how to check that transaction is zombie? I found that Commit() and Rollback() check for zombie transaction, however I can call them for a test:) I also found that also reading IsolationLevel will do the check, but I am not sure whether simple calling transaction.IsolationLevel.ToString(); will not be removed by a future optimizer. Or do you know any other safe way invoke a getter (without using reflection or IL emitting)?

    Read the article

  • PostgreSQL insert on primary key failing with contention, even at serializable level

    - by Steven Schlansker
    I'm trying to insert or update data in a PostgreSQL db. The simplest case is a key-value pairing (the actual data is more complicated, but this is the smallest clear example) When you set a value, I'd like it to insert if the key is not there, otherwise update. Sadly Postgres does not have an insert or update statement, so I have to emulate it myself. I've been working with the idea of basically SELECTing whether the key exists, and then running the appropriate INSERT or UPDATE. Now clearly this needs to be be in a transaction or all manner of bad things could happen. However, this is not working exactly how I'd like it to - I understand that there are limitations to serializable transactions, but I'm not sure how to work around this one. Here's the situation - ab: => set transaction isolation level serializable; a: => select count(1) from table where id=1; --> 0 b: => select count(1) from table where id=1; --> 0 a: => insert into table values(1); --> 1 b: => insert into table values(1); --> ERROR: duplicate key value violates unique constraint "serial_test_pkey" Now I would expect it to throw the usual "couldn't commit due to concurrent update" but I'm guessing since the inserts are different "rows" this does not happen. Is there an easy way to work around this?

    Read the article

  • Detecting a Dispose() from an exception inside using block

    - by Augusto Radtke
    I have the following code in my application: using (var database = new Database()) { var poll = // Some database query code. foreach (Question question in poll.Questions) { foreach (Answer answer in question.Answers) { database.Remove(answer); } // This is a sample line that simulate an error. throw new Exception("deu pau"); database.Remove(question); } database.Remove(poll); } This code triggers the Database class Dispose() method as usual, and this method automatically commits the transaction to the database, but this leaves my database in an inconsistent state as the answers are erased but the question and the poll are not. There is any way that I can detect in the Dispose() method that it being called because of an exception instead of regular end of the closing block, so I can automate the rollback? I don´t want to manually add a try ... catch block, my objective is to use the using block as a logical safe transaction manager, so it commits to the database if the execution was clean or rollbacks if any exception occured. Do you have some thoughts on that?

    Read the article

  • Application error passthru when using apache mod_proxy

    - by user303442
    Heyas. I'm using mod_proxy with apache2 provide vhost ability to multiple servlet apps running on the local machine. It works fine, for the most part. Requests come into apache then are directed to the application bound on a port on localhost. The app receives the request and responds, which is delivered back to the client by apache. The problem I'm having is that the application delivers 500's on errors, and mod_proxy stomps on them. Often these errors are caused in a ajax request and the error is handled in client side javascript. For example, a call to a server side createObject(name) might throw a NameNotUniqueException , which is delivered back as a 500. The client javascript might then display an appropriate error message. When an error is thrown by the application (resulting in a 500 response to mod_proxy), then apache stomps the error message and returns 500 Internal Server Error Internal Server Error The server encountered an internal error or misconfiguration and was unable to complete your request. .. the stock apache server side error message. I want mod_proxy to pass the original 500 back through to the client. Is there a directive I've missed which prevents clobbering of the 500? TIA

    Read the article

  • Objecive C Error, Message sent to deallocated object

    - by Dave C
    Hello, I have several buttons on my app that are being created dynamically. They are all pointed at the button click event when pressed. When the button pressed method is called, the sender's tag(int value) is parsed into the controllers house ID. It works with one of the buttons... the first one created to be specific, but the others throw the following error: -[CFNumber intValue]: message sent to deallocated instance 0xc4bb0ff0 I am not releasing these buttons anywhere in my code... I haven't set them to auto release or anything like that... just wondering why they are doing this on the click. The button click event: - (IBAction) ButtonClick: (id) sender { HouseholdViewController *controller = [[HouseholdViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"HouseholdViewController" bundle:nil]; controller.delegate = self; controller.HouseID = [(NSInteger)[(UIButton *)sender tag] intValue]; //this line throws an error controller.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleFlipHorizontal; [self presentModalViewController:controller animated:YES]; [controller release]; } Where I am creating the buttons: UIButton *button = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeCustom]; button.frame = CGRectMake(MyLongInScreenCoords, MyLatInScreenCoords, 50, 50); UIImage *buttonImageNormal = [UIImage imageNamed:@"blue_pin.png"]; UIImage *strechableButtonImageNormal = [buttonImageNormal stretchableImageWithLeftCapWidth:50 topCapHeight:50]; [button setBackgroundImage:strechableButtonImageNormal forState:UIControlStateNormal]; [self.view addSubview:button]; button.tag = [NSNumber numberWithInt:[[words objectAtIndex: i] intValue]]; ButtonPoints[CurrentHouseCount][0] = button; ButtonPoints[CurrentHouseCount][1] = [NSValue valueWithCGPoint:CGPointMake(MyActualLat, MyActualLong)]; [button addTarget:self action:@selector(ButtonClick:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; CurrentHouseCount++; Thank you for any assistance.

    Read the article

  • Calling a SLSB with Seam security from a servlet

    - by wilth
    Hello, I have an existing application written in SEAM that uses SEAM Security (http://docs.jboss.org/seam/2.1.1.GA/reference/en-US/html/security.html). In a stateless EJB, I might find something like this: @In Identity identity; ... if(identity.hasRole("admin")) throw new AuthException(); As far as I understand, Seam injects the Identity object from the SessionContext of the servlet that invokes the EJB (this happens "behind the scenes", since Seam doesn't really use servlets) and removes it after the call. Is this correct? Is it now possible to access this EJB from another servlet (in this case, that servlet is the server side of a GWT application)? Do I have to "inject" the correct Identity instance? If I don't do anything, Seam injects an instance, but doesn't correctly correlate the sessions and instances of Identity (so the instances of Identity are shared between sessions and sometimes calls get new instances etc.). Any help and pointers are very welcome - thanks! Technology: EJB3, Seam 2.1.2. The servlets are actually the server-side of a GWT app, although I don't think this matters much. I'm using JBoss 5.

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to unstick a remote IIS ASP server after an exception hangs the session?

    - by user89691
    I have been coding an app in classic ASP that accesses 2 Access databases. I had a page I was working on throw an exception, which is normal during development and causes no lasting problems. This time however, after the exception any attempt to open either of the databases would freeze the session with an infinite script timeout. If I delete the session cookie I an able to access ASP pages again until I try to open the database again. The database that was open when the exception was thrown is left open. There is a LDB lock file and I can't rename or delete either the LDB or MDB file, though I can download the MDB file with FTP. The 2nd access database is not open but any attempt to read this also hangs the session. Accessing HTML pages is fine. The site is hosted with Hostway and they are not interested ("Coding problem = Your problem" even though it leaves my site dead in the water, I suspect until the next reboot, whenever that might be). Here is the dump from the relevant ASP page that threw the exception: Active Server Pages error 'ASP 0115' Unexpected error /translatestats.asp A trappable error (C0000005) occurred in an external object. The script cannot continue running. Active Server Pages error 'ASP 0240' Script Engine Exception /translatestats.asp A ScriptEngine threw exception 'C0000005' in 'IActiveScript::Close()' from 'CActiveScriptEngine::FinalRelease()'. Is there any way I can unstick the site / force close the database remotely ?

    Read the article

  • What are the best workarounds for known problems with Hibernate's schema validation of floating poin

    - by Jason Novak
    I have several Java classes with double fields that I am persisting via Hibernate. For example, I have @Entity public class Node ... private double value; When Hibernate's org.hibernate.dialect.Oracle10gDialect creates the DDL for the Node table, it maps the value field to a "double precision" type. create table MDB.Node (... value double precision not null, ... It would appear that in Oracle, "double precision" is an alias for "float". So, when I try to verify the database schema using the org.hibernate.cfg.AnnotationConfiguration.validateSchema() method, Oracle appears to describe the value column as a "float". This causes Hibernate to throw the following Exception org.hibernate.HibernateException: Wrong column type in DBO.ACL_RULE for column value. Found: float, expected: double precision A very similar problem is listed in Hibernate's JIRA database as HHH-1961 (http://opensource.atlassian.com/projects/hibernate/browse/HHH-1961). I'd like to avoid doing anything that will break MySql, Postgres, and Sql Server support so extending the Oracle10gDialect appears to be the most promising of the workarounds mentioned in HHH-1961. But extending a Dialect is something I've never done before and I'm afraid there may be some nasty gotchas. What is the best workaround for this problem that won't break our compatibility with MySql, Postgres, and Sql Server? Thanks for taking the time to look at this!

    Read the article

  • How do I disable the network connection from .Net without needing admin priveledges?

    - by Brad Mathews
    I may be SOL on this but I thought I would give throw it out for possible solutions. I am writing a computer access control service to help me control my kids' computer use. Plan on open sourcing it when I have it working. It is written in VB.Net and needs to work on XP through 7. I am running into all sorts of security and desktop access issues on Windows 7. The service needs to run as admin to execute the NetSh command to disable the network. But I cannot interact with the desktop from the service so I IPC to a UI to handle other stuff, but I still cannot detect from the service if the desktop is locked. Argghh! I could get it all working from a hidden windows form app if I could just lick the one piece that needs admin permissions: disabling the network. It does no good if a kid logs on and denies the popup asking if the program should run as administrator and he says no. Also windows 7 will not start a program set to run as admin using HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run Anyone know how to get this working? Or have an outside the box solution? Thanks! Brad

    Read the article

  • Installing a Windows Service from a separate GUI - how to install .config file along with it?

    - by Shaul
    I have written a GUI (call it MyGUI) for ClickOnce deployment on any given client site. That GUI installs and configures a Windows Service (MyService), using the method described here by @Marc Gravell. Here's my code, run from inside MyGUI, which contains a reference to MyService: using (var inst = new AssemblyInstaller(typeof(MyService.Program).Assembly, new string[] { })) { IDictionary state = new Hashtable(); inst.UseNewContext = true; try { if (uninstall) { inst.Uninstall(state); } else { inst.Install(state); inst.Commit(state); } } catch { try { inst.Rollback(state); } catch { } throw; } } Take note of that first line: I'm grabbing the assembly for MyService, and installing that. Now, trouble is, the way I've done the deployment, I'm effectively referencing the service's EXE file from the GUI's app folder. So now the service fires up and starts looking for stuff in the MyService.config file, and can't find it, because it's living in someone else's app folder, with only the GUI's MyGUI.config file present. So, how do I get MyService.config to be available to the service?

    Read the article

  • Passing Key-Value pair to a COM method in C#

    - by Sinnerman
    Hello, I have the following problem: I have a project in C# .Net where I use a third party COM component. So the problem is that the above component has a method, which takes a string and a number of key-value pairs as arguments. I already managed to call that method through JavaScript like that: var srcName srcName = top.cadView.addSource( 'Database', { driver : 'Oracle', host : '10.10.1.123', port : 1234, database : 'someSID', user : 'someuser', password : 'somepass' } ) if ( srcName != '' ) { ... } ... and it worked perfectly well. However I have no idea how to do the same using C#. I tried passing the pairs as Dictionary and Struct/Class but it throws me a "Specified cast is not valid." exception. I also tried using Hashtable like that: Hashtable args = new Hashtable(); args.Add("driver", "Oracle"); args.Add("host", "10.10.1.123"); args.Add("port", 1234); args.Add("database", "someSID"); args.Add("user", "someUser"); args.Add("password", "samePass"); String srcName = axCVCanvas.addSource("Database", args); and although it doesn't throw an exception it still won't do the job, writing me in a log file [ Error] [14:38:33.281] Cad::SourceDB::SourceDB(): missing parameter 'driver' Any help will be appreciated, thanks.

    Read the article

  • .NET out of memory troubleshooting

    - by bushman
    After reading a few enlightening articles about memory in the .NET technology, Out of Memory does not refer to physical memory, 597499. I thought I understood why a C# app would throw an out of memory exception -- until I started experimenting with two servers-- both are having 2.5 gigs of ram, windows server 2003 and identical programs running. The only significant difference between the two being one has 7% hard drive storage left and the other more than 50%. The server with 7% storage space left is consistently throwing an out of memory while the other is performing consistently well. My app is a C# web application that process' hundreds of MBs of String object. Why would this difference happen seeing that the most likely reason for the out of memory issue is out of contiguous virtual address space -- What solutions do you guys propose -- and what do you say about the following 1. turn on the 3gb switch to increase the virtual address space -- 2. instead of using one giant string object, break it up into smaller pieces and collect it in a jagged array (here I have to find a way to return to the caller in some other way as right now, the return type is a string) thanks SO

    Read the article

  • Is there a java library / package analogous to <stdio.h>?

    - by Roboprog
    I have been doing Java on and off for about 14 years, and almost nothing else the last 6 years or so. I really hate the java.io package -- its legion of subclasses and adapters. I do like exceptions, rather than having to always poll "errno" and the like, but I could surely live without declared exceptions. Is there anything that functions like the Unix/ANSI stdio.h routines in C? I know we will never be rid of java.io and its conventions until java itself is retired, as they have metastasized throughout the many frameworks that have accreted to java. That said, I would like something that works kind of like this (let's call it package javax.stdio): Have a main utility class, perhaps FileStar, that can read and write files (or pipes), either text or binary, either sequentially or random access, with constructors that mimic fopen() and popen(). This class should have a load of useful methods that do things like fread(), fwrite(), fgets(), fputs(), fseek(), and whatever else (fprintf()?). Methods that are incompatible with the open/construct mode simply throw up (just like some of the collections classes/methods do when restricted). Then, have a bunch of interfaces that suggest how you intend to use the stream once you have created it: Sequential, RandomAccess, ReadOnly, WriteOnly, Text, Binary, plus combinations of these that make sense. Perhaps even have methods to return the appropriate type-cast (interface), throwing up if you have asked for something incompatible. For extra flavor, skip the declared exceptions -- e.g. - javax.stdio.IOException extends RuntimeException. Is there an open source project like this floating around?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126  | Next Page >