Search Results

Search found 3534 results on 142 pages for 'sets'.

Page 120/142 | < Previous Page | 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127  | Next Page >

  • Catching an exception class within a template

    - by Todd Bauer
    I'm having a problem using the exception class Overflow() for a Stack template I'm creating. If I define the class regularly there is no problem. If I define the class as a template, I cannot make my call to catch() work properly. I have a feeling it's simply syntax, but I can't figure it out for the life of me. #include<iostream> #include<exception> using namespace std; template <class T> class Stack { private: T *stackArray; int size; int top; public: Stack(int size) { this->size = size; stackArray = new T[size]; top = 0; } ~Stack() { delete[] stackArray; } void push(T value) { if (isFull()) throw Overflow(); stackArray[top] = value; top++; } bool isFull() { if (top == size) return true; else return false; } class Overflow {}; }; int main() { try { Stack<double> Stack(5); Stack.push( 5.0); Stack.push(10.1); Stack.push(15.2); Stack.push(20.3); Stack.push(25.4); Stack.push(30.5); } catch (Stack::Overflow) { cout << "ERROR! The stack is full.\n"; } return 0; } The problem is in the catch (Stack::Overflow) statement. As I said, if the class is not a template, this works just fine. However, once I define it as a template, this ceases to work. I've tried all sorts of syntaxes, but I always get one of two sets of error messages from the compiler. If I use catch(Stack::Overflow): ch18pr01.cpp(89) : error C2955: 'Stack' : use of class template requires template argument list ch18pr01.cpp(13) : see declaration of 'Stack' ch18pr01.cpp(89) : error C2955: 'Stack' : use of class template requires template argument list ch18pr01.cpp(13) : see declaration of 'Stack' ch18pr01.cpp(89) : error C2316: 'Stack::Overflow' : cannot be caught as the destructor and/or copy constructor are inaccessible EDIT: I meant If I use catch(Stack<double>::Overflow) or any variety thereof: ch18pr01.cpp(89) : error C2061: syntax error : identifier 'Stack' ch18pr01.cpp(89) : error C2310: catch handlers must specify one type ch18pr01.cpp(95) : error C2317: 'try' block starting on line '75' has no catch handlers I simply can not figure this out. Does anyone have any idea?

    Read the article

  • Asp.net hosting equivalent of Dreamhost (pricing, features and support)

    - by Cherian
    Disclaimer: I have browsed http://stackoverflow.com/questions/tagged/asp.net+hosting and didn’t find anything quite similar in value to Dreamhost. One of the biggest impediments IMHO for developing web applications on asp.net is the cost of deployment. I am not talking about building sites like Stackoverflow.com or plentyoffish.com. This is about sites that are bigger than brochureware and smaller than ones that require dedicated servers. Let me give you an example. xmec.org is an asp.net site I maintain for my college alumni. On an average it’s slated to hit around 1000-1100 views per day. At present it’s hosted on godaddy. The service is so damn pathetic; I am using it only because of the lack of options. The site doesn’t scale (no, it’s not the code) and the web control panels are extremely slow. The money I pay doesn’t justify the service or the performance. Every deployment push is a visit to the infuriating web control panel to set the permissions and the root directories. Had I developed it in python, this would have been deployed on Dreamhost.com with $10/year hosting fees (they have offers running all throughout) 50 GB space 5 MySQL Databases Shell / FTP Users POP / SMTP Access Unlimited Domains hosting Unlimited Sub domains hosting Unlimited Domains Forwarded/Mirrored Custom DNS (These are the only ones I could think of. More at the feature page) With a dream host shell, I even have a svn checked-out version of wordpress for my blog. Now, that’s control! To my question: Is there any asp.net (preferably .net 3.5. Dreamhost keeps on updating versions every fortnight) hosting company providing remotely similar feature-sets and pricing like Dreamhost. My requirements are: Less than $15-25/ year Typical WISP minus PHP .net 3.5 SP1 Full Trust mode(I can live with medium trust, if not for the IL emitting libraries) Isolated Application Pool 5 – 10 MySQL db’s Unlimited domain hosting MsSql 2005 or 2008 FTP support At Least 5 GB space SMTP IIS 7 Log files Accessibility Moderately good control panel Scripting, shell support Nominal bandwidth Another case in point: Recently I’ve been contemplating building a tool-website to find duplicates and weird characters in my Google contacts and fix them. With asp.net, the best part is that I can do this with LINQ to XML in less than 100 lines of code. What’s bad is the hosting part. I don’t think I stand to make any money out of this and therefore can’t afford to host it on GoGrid or DiscountAsp.net. Godaddy is not an option either. If I do this in python, I can push to this my existing $10 Dreamhost account with another domain pointed. No extra cost. Svn exported with scripts (capability) to change the connection string! Looking at the problem holistically, I think I represent a large breed of programmers playing it cheap and experimenting different things on a regular basis, one of which will become the next twitter/digg.

    Read the article

  • WPF binding not updating until after another action

    - by Matthew Stanford
    I have an observable collection bound to a listbox in WPF. One of the options in the window is to use an OpenFileDialog to add an item to the listbox with certain properties. When I use the OpenFileDialog it immeditaely sets two of the properties of the new item in the observable collection. I am using INotifyPropertyChanged to update the listbox. These two new properties are set correctly and now the listbox should display the title contained in the new title property and the title textbox which is bound to the listbox should display the new title as well. However, neither displays the new title upon the closing of the OpenFileDialog and when I click on another item in the listbox and come back to the item I have just changed it updates the title textbox but the title displayed in the list box is not changed until i move the item in the list box that I want to change. Here is the Binding code. ItemsSource="{Binding Path=MyData, Mode=TwoWay, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged}" And here is the implementation of the browse button that is not working (L1 being the listbox) private void browse_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { OpenFileDialog opf = new OpenFileDialog(); opf.ShowDialog(); MyData[L1.SelectedIndex].Title = System.IO.Path.GetFileNameWithoutExtension(opf.FileName); MyData[L1.SelectedIndex].Command = opf.FileName; } When I simply type in the text boxes and click out of them it updates the list box immediately with the new information I have put in. I also have a create new button and upon clicking it, it immediately adds a new item to the list box and updates its' properties. The only one that is not updating correctly is this peice of code I have given you. Thanks for your help. EDIT: Here is my implementation of INotifyPropertyChanged private OCLB _MyData; public OCLB MyData { get { return _MyData; } set { _MyData= value; FirePropertyNotifyChanged("MyData"); } } OCLB is the obserable collection. Here is the function FirePropertyNotifyChanged public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; private void FirePropertyNotifyChanged(string propertyName) { if (PropertyChanged != null) { PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(propertyName)); } } Each of these are in the partial class MainWindow for the wpf form. I also have a class for the MyData files (with 4 get/set functions) that are stored in the OCLB(observable collection). There is also a class with functions for the OCLB.

    Read the article

  • How to make and use first object in Objective C to store sender tag

    - by dbonneville
    I started with a sample program that simply sets up a UIView with some buttons on it. Works great. I want to access the sender tag from each button and save it. My first thought was to save it to a global variable but I couldn't get it to work right. I thought the best way would be to create an object with one property and synthesize it so I can get or set it as needed. First, I created GlobalGem.h: #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> @interface GlobalGem : NSObject { int gemTag; } @property int gemTag; -(void) print; @end Then I created GlobalGem.m: #import "GlobalGem.h" @implementation GlobalGem @synthesize gemTag; -(void) print { NSLog(@"gemTag value is %i", gemTag); } @end The sample code I worked from doesn't do anything I can see in "main" where the program initializes. They just have their methods and are set up to handle IBOutlet actions. I want to use this object in the IBOutlet methods. But I don't know where to create the object. In the viewDidLoad, I tried this: GlobalGem *aGem = [[GlobalGem alloc]init]; [aGem print]; I added reference to the .h file of course. The print method works. In the nslog I get "gemTag value is 0". But now I want to use the instance aGem in some of the IBOutlet actions. For instance, if I put this same method in one of the outlet actions like this: - (IBAction)touchButton:(id)sender { [aGem print]; } ...I get a build error saying that "aGem is undeclared". Yes, I'm new to objective c and am very confused. Is the instance I created, aGem, in the viewDidLoad not accessible outside of that method? How would I create an instance of a Class that I can store a variable value that any of the IBOutlet methods can access? All the buttons need to be able to store their sender tag in the instance aGem and I'm stuck. As I mentioned earlier, I was able to write the sender tag to a global variable I declared in the UIView .h file that came with the program, but I ran into issues using it. Where am I off?

    Read the article

  • T-SQL - Left Outer Joins - Filters in the where clause versus the on clause.

    - by Greg Potter
    I am trying to compare two tables to find rows in each table that is not in the other. Table 1 has a groupby column to create 2 sets of data within table one. groupby number ----------- ----------- 1 1 1 2 2 1 2 2 2 4 Table 2 has only one column. number ----------- 1 3 4 So Table 1 has the values 1,2,4 in group 2 and Table 2 has the values 1,3,4. I expect the following result when joining for Group 2: `Table 1 LEFT OUTER Join Table 2` T1_Groupby T1_Number T2_Number ----------- ----------- ----------- 2 2 NULL `Table 2 LEFT OUTER Join Table 1` T1_Groupby T1_Number T2_Number ----------- ----------- ----------- NULL NULL 3 The only way I can get this to work is if I put a where clause for the first join: PRINT 'Table 1 LEFT OUTER Join Table 2, with WHERE clause' select table1.groupby as [T1_Groupby], table1.number as [T1_Number], table2.number as [T2_Number] from table1 LEFT OUTER join table2 --****************************** on table1.number = table2.number --****************************** WHERE table1.groupby = 2 AND table2.number IS NULL and a filter in the ON for the second: PRINT 'Table 2 LEFT OUTER Join Table 1, with ON clause' select table1.groupby as [T1_Groupby], table1.number as [T1_Number], table2.number as [T2_Number] from table2 LEFT OUTER join table1 --****************************** on table2.number = table1.number AND table1.groupby = 2 --****************************** WHERE table1.number IS NULL Can anyone come up with a way of not using the filter in the on clause but in the where clause? The context of this is I have a staging area in a database and I want to identify new records and records that have been deleted. The groupby field is the equivalent of a batchid for an extract and I am comparing the latest extract in a temp table to a the batch from yesterday stored in a partioneds table, which also has all the previously extracted batches as well. Code to create table 1 and 2: create table table1 (number int, groupby int) create table table2 (number int) insert into table1 (number, groupby) values (1, 1) insert into table1 (number, groupby) values (2, 1) insert into table1 (number, groupby) values (1, 2) insert into table2 (number) values (1) insert into table1 (number, groupby) values (2, 2) insert into table2 (number) values (3) insert into table1 (number, groupby) values (4, 2) insert into table2 (number) values (4) EDIT: A bit more context - depending on where I put the filter I different results. As stated above the where clause gives me the correct result in one state and the ON in the other. I am looking for a consistent way of doing this. Where - select table1.groupby as [T1_Groupby], table1.number as [T1_Number], table2.number as [T2_Number] from table1 LEFT OUTER join table2 --****************************** on table1.number = table2.number --****************************** WHERE table1.groupby = 2 AND table2.number IS NULL Result: T1_Groupby T1_Number T2_Number ----------- ----------- ----------- 2 2 NULL On - select table1.groupby as [T1_Groupby], table1.number as [T1_Number], table2.number as [T2_Number] from table1 LEFT OUTER join table2 --****************************** on table1.number = table2.number AND table1.groupby = 2 --****************************** WHERE table2.number IS NULL Result: T1_Groupby T1_Number T2_Number ----------- ----------- ----------- 1 1 NULL 2 2 NULL 1 2 NULL Where (table 2 this time) - select table1.groupby as [T1_Groupby], table1.number as [T1_Number], table2.number as [T2_Number] from table2 LEFT OUTER join table1 --****************************** on table2.number = table1.number AND table1.groupby = 2 --****************************** WHERE table1.number IS NULL Result: T1_Groupby T1_Number T2_Number ----------- ----------- ----------- NULL NULL 3 On - select table1.groupby as [T1_Groupby], table1.number as [T1_Number], table2.number as [T2_Number] from table2 LEFT OUTER join table1 --****************************** on table2.number = table1.number --****************************** WHERE table1.number IS NULL AND table1.groupby = 2 Result: T1_Groupby T1_Number T2_Number ----------- ----------- ----------- (0) rows returned

    Read the article

  • "Alert" and "if" changes behaviour of dom copying from iframe to div

    - by lowkey
    Hi guys! Tried to make a little old school ajax (iframe-javascript) script. A bit of mootools is used for DOM navigation Description: HTML: 1 iframe called "buffer" 1 div called "display" JAVASCRIPT: (short: copy iframe content into a div on the page) 1) onLoad on iframe triggers handler(), a counter makes sure it only run once (this is because otherwise firefox will go into feedback loop. What i think happens: iframe on load handler() copyBuffer change src of iframe , and firefox takes that as an onload again) 2) copybuffer() is called, it sets src of iframe then copies iframe content into div, then erases iframe content THE CODE: count=0; function handler(){ if (count==0){ copyBuffer(); count++; } } function copyBuffer(){ $('buffer').set('src','http://www.somelink.com/'); if (window.frames['buffer'] && $('display') ) { $('display').innerHTML = window.frames['buffer'].document.body.innerHTML; window.frames['buffer'].document.body.innerHTML=""; } } problems: QUESTION 1) nothing happens, the content is not loaded into the div. But if i either: A) remove the counter and let the script run in a feedback loop: the content is suddenly copied into the div, but off course there is a feedback loop going on, you can see it keeps loading in the status bar. OR B) insert an alert in the copyBuffer function. The content is copied, without the feedback loop. why does this happen? QUESTION 2) The If wrapped around the copying code i got from a source on the internet. I am not sure what it does? If i remove it the code does not work in: Safari and Chrome. Many thanks in advance! UPDATE: Like the answers said i have created an event handler. They used jQuery, i have made one in mootools: window.addEvent('domready', function() { $('buffer').addEvent('load', function(){ $('display').set('html',window.frames['buffer'].document.body.innerHTML) window.frames['buffer'].document.body.innerHTML=""; }).set('src','somelink'); }); Bonus question: 3) Im new at stackoverflow (what an amazing place!), is it better if i make new threads for follow up questions?

    Read the article

  • How to maximize http.sys file upload performance

    - by anelson
    I'm building a tool that transfers very large streaming data sets (possibly on the order of terabytes in a single stream; routinely in the tens of gigabytes) from one server to another. The client portion of the tool will read blocks from the source disk, and send them over the network. The server side will read these blocks off the network and write them to a file on the server disk. Right now I'm trying to decide which transport to use. Options are raw TCP, and HTTP. I really, REALLY want to be able to use HTTP. The HttpListener (or WCF if I want to go that route) make it easy to plug in to the HTTP Server API (http.sys), and I can get things like authentication and SSL for free. The problem right now is performance. I wrote a simple test harness that sends 128K blocks of NULL bytes using the BeginWrite/EndWrite async I/O idiom, with async BeginRead/EndRead on the server side. I've modified this test harness so I can do this with either HTTP PUT operations via HttpWebRequest/HttpListener, or plain old socket writes using TcpClient/TcpListener. To rule out issues with network cards or network pathways, both the client and server are on one machine and communicate over localhost. On my 12-core Windows 2008 R2 test server, the TCP version of this test harness can push bytes at 450MB/s, with minimal CPU usage. On the same box, the HTTP version of the test harness runs between 130MB/s and 200MB/s depending upon how I tweak it. In both cases CPU usage is low, and the vast majority of what CPU usage there is is kernel time, so I'm pretty sure my usage of C# and the .NET runtime is not the bottleneck. The box has two 6-core Xeon X5650 processors, 24GB of single-ranked DDR3 RAM, and is used exclusively by me for my own performance testing. I already know about HTTP client tweaks like ServicePointManager.MaxServicePointIdleTime, ServicePointManager.DefaultConnectionLimit, ServicePointManager.Expect100Continue, and HttpWebRequest.AllowWriteStreamBuffering. Does anyone have any ideas for how I can get HTTP.sys performance beyond 200MB/s? Has anyone seen it perform this well on any environment?

    Read the article

  • C++: Implementing Named Pipes using the Win32 API

    - by Mike Pateras
    I'm trying to implement named pipes in C++, but either my reader isn't reading anything, or my writer isn't writing anything (or both). Here's my reader: int main() { HANDLE pipe = CreateFile(GetPipeName(), GENERIC_READ, 0, NULL, OPEN_EXISTING, FILE_FLAG_OVERLAPPED, NULL); char data[1024]; DWORD numRead = 1; while (numRead >= 0) { ReadFile(pipe, data, 1024, &numRead, NULL); if (numRead > 0) cout << data; } return 0; } LPCWSTR GetPipeName() { return L"\\\\.\\pipe\\LogPipe"; } And here's my writer: int main() { HANDLE pipe = CreateFile(GetPipeName(), GENERIC_WRITE, 0, NULL, OPEN_EXISTING, FILE_FLAG_OVERLAPPED, NULL); string message = "Hi"; WriteFile(pipe, message.c_str(), message.length() + 1, NULL, NULL); return 0; } LPCWSTR GetPipeName() { return L"\\\\.\\pipe\\LogPipe"; } Does that look right? numRead in the reader is always 0, for some reason, and it reads nothing but 1024 -54's (some weird I character). Solution: Reader (Server): while (true) { HANDLE pipe = CreateNamedPipe(GetPipeName(), PIPE_ACCESS_INBOUND | PIPE_ACCESS_OUTBOUND , PIPE_WAIT, 1, 1024, 1024, 120 * 1000, NULL); if (pipe == INVALID_HANDLE_VALUE) { cout << "Error: " << GetLastError(); } char data[1024]; DWORD numRead; ConnectNamedPipe(pipe, NULL); ReadFile(pipe, data, 1024, &numRead, NULL); if (numRead > 0) cout << data << endl; CloseHandle(pipe); } Writer (client): HANDLE pipe = CreateFile(GetPipeName(), GENERIC_READ | GENERIC_WRITE, 0, NULL, OPEN_EXISTING, 0, NULL); if (pipe == INVALID_HANDLE_VALUE) { cout << "Error: " << GetLastError(); } string message = "Hi"; cout << message.length(); DWORD numWritten; WriteFile(pipe, message.c_str(), message.length(), &numWritten, NULL); return 0; The server blocks until it gets a connected client, reads what the client writes, and then sets itself up for a new connection, ad infinitum. Thanks for the help, all!

    Read the article

  • Tomcat JNDI Connection Pool docs - Random Connection Closed Exceptions

    - by Andy Faibishenko
    I found this in the Tomcat documentation here What I don't understand is why they close all the JDBC objects twice - once in the try{} block and once in the finally{} block. Why not just close them once in the finally{} clause? This is the relevant docs: Random Connection Closed Exceptions These can occur when one request gets a db connection from the connection pool and closes it twice. When using a connection pool, closing the connection just returns it to the pool for reuse by another request, it doesn't close the connection. And Tomcat uses multiple threads to handle concurrent requests. Here is an example of the sequence of events which could cause this error in Tomcat: Request 1 running in Thread 1 gets a db connection. Request 1 closes the db connection. The JVM switches the running thread to Thread 2 Request 2 running in Thread 2 gets a db connection (the same db connection just closed by Request 1). The JVM switches the running thread back to Thread 1 Request 1 closes the db connection a second time in a finally block. The JVM switches the running thread back to Thread 2 Request 2 Thread 2 tries to use the db connection but fails because Request 1 closed it. Here is an example of properly written code to use a db connection obtained from a connection pool: Connection conn = null; Statement stmt = null; // Or PreparedStatement if needed ResultSet rs = null; try { conn = ... get connection from connection pool ... stmt = conn.createStatement("select ..."); rs = stmt.executeQuery(); ... iterate through the result set ... rs.close(); rs = null; stmt.close(); stmt = null; conn.close(); // Return to connection pool conn = null; // Make sure we don't close it twice } catch (SQLException e) { ... deal with errors ... } finally { // Always make sure result sets and statements are closed, // and the connection is returned to the pool if (rs != null) { try { rs.close(); } catch (SQLException e) { ; } rs = null; } if (stmt != null) { try { stmt.close(); } catch (SQLException e) { ; } stmt = null; } if (conn != null) { try { conn.close(); } catch (SQLException e) { ; } conn = null; } }

    Read the article

  • Data aggregation mongodb vs mysql

    - by Dimitris Stefanidis
    I am currently researching on a backend to use for a project with demanding data aggregation requirements. The main project requirements are the following. Store millions of records for each user. Users might have more than 1 million entries per year so even with 100 users we are talking about 100 million entries per year. Data aggregation on those entries must be performed on the fly. The users need to be able to filter on the entries by a ton of available filters and then present summaries (totals , averages e.t.c) and graphs on the results. Obviously I cannot precalculate any of the aggregation results because the filter combinations (and thus the result sets) are huge. Users are going to have access on their own data only but it would be nice if anonymous stats could be calculated for all the data. The data is going to be most of the time in batch. e.g the user will upload the data every day and it could like 3000 records. In some later version there could be automated programs that upload every few minutes in smaller batches of 100 items for example. I made a simple test of creating a table with 1 million rows and performing a simple sum of 1 column both in mongodb and in mysql and the performance difference was huge. I do not remember the exact numbers but it was something like mysql = 200ms , mongodb = 20 sec. I have also made the test with couchdb and had much worse results. What seems promising speed wise is cassandra which I was very enthusiastic about when I first discovered it. However the documentation is scarce and I haven't found any solid examples on how to perform sums and other aggregate functions on the data. Is that possible ? As it seems from my test (Maybe I have done something wrong) with the current performance its impossible to use mongodb for such a project although the automated sharding functionality seems like a perfect fit for it. Does anybody have experience with data aggregation in mongodb or have any insights that might be of help for the implementation of the project ? Thanks, Dimitris

    Read the article

  • Create new etherpad using PHP and CURL

    - by Kyle Mathews
    I'm trying to write a simple PHP script which automatically sets up new etherpads (see http://etherpad.com/). They don't have an API (yet) for creating new pads so I'm trying to figure if I can do things another way. After playing around some, I found that if you append a random string to etherpad.com to a not-yet-created pad, it'll come back with a form asking if you want to create a new etherpad at that address. If you submit that form, a new pad will be created at that URL. My thought then was I could just create a PHP script using CURL that would duplicate that form and trick etherpad into creating a new pad at whatever URL I give it. I wrote the script but so far I can't get it working. Can someone tell me what I'm doing wrong? First, here's the HTML form on the etherpad creation page: ` <p><tt id="padurl">http://etherpad.com/lsdjfsljfa-fdj-lsdf</tt></p> <br/> <p>There is no EtherPad document here. Would you like to create one?</p> <input type="hidden" value="lsdjfsljfa-fdj-lsdf" name="padId"/> <input type="submit" value="Create Pad" id="createPad"/> ` Then here's my code which tries to submit the form using CURL $ch = curl_init(); //set POST variables $url = "http://etherpad.com/ep/pad/create?padId=ldjfal-djfa-ldkfjal"; $fields = array( 'padId'=>urlencode("ldjfal-djfa-ldkfjal"), ); $useragent="Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 7.0; Windows NT 5.1; .NET CLR 1.1.4322; .NET CLR 2.0.50727; .NET CLR 3.0.04506.30)"; // set user agent curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_USERAGENT, $useragent); //url-ify the data for the POST foreach($fields as $key=>$value) { $fields_string .= $key.'='.$value; } print_r($fields_string); //open connection $ch = curl_init(); //set the url, number of POST vars, POST data curl_setopt($ch,CURLOPT_URL,$url); curl_setopt($ch,CURLOPT_POST,count($fields)); curl_setopt($ch,CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS,$fields_string); //execute post $result = curl_exec($ch); print_r($result); //close connection curl_close($ch); When I run the script, PHP reports back that everything executed correctly but etherpad doesn't create my pad. Any clues what's going on?

    Read the article

  • Git repo planning questions

    - by masonk
    At work, development uses perforce to handle code sharing. I won't say "revision control", because we aren't allowed to check in changes until they are ready for regression testing. In order to get my personal change sets under revision control, I've been given the go-ahead to build my own git and initialize the client view of the perforce depot as a git repo. There are some difficulties in doing this, however. The client view lives in a subfolder of ~, (~/p4), and I want to put ~ under revision control as well, with its own separate history. I can't figure out how to keep the history for ~ separate from ~/p4 without using a submodule. The problem with a submodule is that it looks like I have to go make a repository that will become the submodule and then git submodule add <repo> <path>. But there is nowhere to make the submodule's repository except in ~. There seems to be no safe place to create the initial client view of the depot with git p4 clone. (I'm working off of the assumption that initing or cloning a repo into a subdirectory of a git repo is not supported. At least, I can find nothing authoritative on nested git repos.) edit: Is merely ignoring ~/p4 in the repo rooted at ~ enough to allow me to init a nested repo in ~/p4? My __git_ps1 function still thinks I'm in a git repository when I visit an ignored subdirectory of a git repo, so I'm inclined to think not. I need the "remote" repository created by git p4 sync to be a branch in ~/p4. We are required to keep all of our code in ~/p4 so that it doesn't get backed up. Can I pull from a "remote" branch that is really a local branch? This one is just for convenience, but I thought I could learn something by asking it. For 99% of the project, I just want to start the with the p4 head revision as the inital commit object. For the other 1%, I would like to suck down the entire p4 history so that I can browse it in git. IOW, after I'm done initalizing it, the initial commit of remotes/p4/master branch will contain: revision 1 of //depot/prod/Foo/Bar/* revision X of other files in //depot/prod/*, where X is the head revision and the remotes/p4/master branch contains Y commits, where Y is the number of changelists that had a file in //depot/prod/Foo/Bar/*, with each commit in the history corresponding to one of those p4 changelists, and HEAD looking like p4's head.

    Read the article

  • Why am I seeing a crash when trying to call CDHtmlDialog::OnInitDialog()

    - by Tim
    I added a helpAbout menu item to my mfc app. I decided to make the ddlg derive from CDHTMLDialog. I override the OnInitDialog() method in my derived class and the first thing I do is call the parent's OnInitDialog() method. I then put in code that sets the title. On some machines this works fine, but on others it crashes in the call to CDHtmlDialog::OnInitDialog() - Trying to read a null pointer. the call stack has nothing useful - it is in mfc90.dll Is this a potential problem with mismatches of mfc/win32 dlls? It works on my vista machines but crashes on a win2003 server box. BOOL HTMLAboutDlg::OnInitDialog() { // CRASHES on the following line CDHtmlDialog::OnInitDialog(); CString title = "my title"; // example of setting title // i try to get version info //set the title CModuleVersion ver; char filename[ _MAX_PATH ]; GetModuleFileName( AfxGetApp()->m_hInstance, filename, _MAX_PATH ); ver.GetFileVersionInfo(filename); // get version from VS_FIXEDFILEINFO struct CString s; s.Format("Version: %d.%d.%d.%d\n", HIWORD(ver.dwFileVersionMS), LOWORD(ver.dwFileVersionMS), HIWORD(ver.dwFileVersionLS), LOWORD(ver.dwFileVersionLS)); CString version = ver.GetValue(_T("ProductVersion")); version.Remove(' '); version.Replace(",", "."); title = "MyApp - Version " + version; SetWindowText(title); return TRUE; // return TRUE unless you set the focus to a control } And here is the relevant header file: class HTMLAboutDlg : public CDHtmlDialog { DECLARE_DYNCREATE(HTMLAboutDlg) public: HTMLAboutDlg(CWnd* pParent = NULL); // standard constructor virtual ~HTMLAboutDlg(); // Overrides HRESULT OnButtonOK(IHTMLElement *pElement); HRESULT OnButtonCancel(IHTMLElement *pElement); // Dialog Data enum { IDD = IDD_DIALOG_ABOUT, IDH = IDR_HTML_HTMLABOUTDLG }; protected: virtual void DoDataExchange(CDataExchange* pDX); // DDX/DDV support virtual BOOL OnInitDialog(); DECLARE_MESSAGE_MAP() DECLARE_DHTML_EVENT_MAP() }; I can't figure out what is going on - why it works on some machins and crashes on others. Both have VS2008 installed EDIT: VS versions VISTA - no crashes 9.0.30729.1 SP 2003 server: (crashes) 9.0.21022.8 RTM

    Read the article

  • quartz: preventing concurrent instances of a job in jobs.xml

    - by Jason S
    This should be really easy. I'm using Quartz running under Apache Tomcat 6.0.18, and I have a jobs.xml file which sets up my scheduled job that runs every minute. What I would like to do, is if the job is still running when the next trigger time rolls around, I don't want to start a new job, so I can let the old instance complete. Is there a way to specify this in jobs.xml (prevent concurrent instances)? If not, is there a way I can share access to an in-memory singleton within my application's Job implementation (is this through the JobExecutionContext?) so I can handle the concurrency myself? (and detect if a previous instance is running) update: After floundering around in the docs, here's a couple of approaches I am considering, but either don't know how to get them to work, or there are problems. Use StatefulJob. This prevents concurrent access... but I'm not sure what other side-effects would occur if I use it, also I want to avoid the following situation: Suppose trigger times would be every minute, i.e. trigger#0 = at time 0, trigger #1 = 60000msec, #2 = 120000, #3 = 180000, etc. and the trigger#0 at time 0 fires my job which takes 130000msec. With a plain Job, this would execute triggers #1 and #2 while job trigger #0 is still running. With a StatefulJob, this would execute triggers #1 and #2 in order, immediately after #0 finishes at 130000. I don't want that, I want #1 and #2 not to run and the next trigger that runs a job should take place at #3 (180000msec). So I still have to do something else with StatefulJob to get it to work the way I want, so I don't see much of an advantage to using it. Use a TriggerListener to return true from vetoJobExecution(). Although implementing the interface seems straightforward, I have to figure out how to setup one instance of a TriggerListener declaratively. Can't find the docs for the xml file. Use a static shared thread-safe object (e.g. a semaphore or whatever) owned by my class that implements Job. I don't like the idea of using singletons via the static keyword under Tomcat/Quartz, not sure if there are side effects. Also I really don't want them to be true singletons, just something that is associated with a particular job definition. Implement my own Trigger which extends SimpleTrigger and contains shared state that could run its own TriggerListener. Again, I don't know how to setup the XML file to use this trigger rather than the standard <trigger><simple>...</simple></trigger>.

    Read the article

  • Running same powershell script multiple asynchronous times with separate runspace

    - by teqnomad
    Hi, I have a powershell script which is called by a batch script which is called by Trap Receiver (which also passes environment variables) (running on windows 2008). The traps are flushed out at times in sets of 2-4 trap events, and the batch script will echo the trap details for each message to a logfile, but the powershell script on the next line of the batch script will only appear to process the first trap message (the powershell script writes to the same logfile). My interpetation is that the defaultrunspace is common to all iterations of the script running and this is why the others appear to be ignored. I've tried adding "-sta" when I invoke the powershell script using "powershell.exe -command", but this didn't help. I've researched and found a method using C# but I don't know this language, and busy enough learning powershell, so hoping to find a more direct solution especially as interleaving a "wrapper" between batch and powershell will involve passing the environment variables. http://www.codeproject.com/KB/threads/AsyncPowerShell.aspx I've hunted through stackoverflow, and again the only question of similar vein was using C#. Any suggestions welcome. Some script background: The powershell script is actually a modification of a great script found at gregorystrike website - cant post the link as I'm limited to one link but its the one for Lefthand arrays. Lots of mods so it can do multiple targets from one .ini file, taking in the environment variables, and options to run portions of the script interactively with winform. But you can see the gist of the original script. The batch script is pretty basic. The keys things are I'm trying to filter out trap noise using the :~ operator, and I tried -sta option to see if this would compartmentalise the powershell script. set debug=off set CMD_LINE_ARGS="%*" set LHIPAddress="%2" set VARBIND8="%8" shift shift shift shift shift shift shift set CHASSIS="%9" echo %DATE% %TIME% "Trap Received: %LHIPAddress% %CHASSIS% %VARBIND8%" >> C:\Logs\trap_out.txt set ACTION="%VARBIND8:~39,18%" echo %DATE% %TIME% "Action substring is %ACTION%" 2>&1 >> C:\Logs\trap_out.txt if %ACTION%=="Remote Copy Volume" ( echo Prepostlefthand_env_v2.9 >> C:\Logs\trap_out.txt c:\Windows\System32\WindowsPowerShell\v1.0\PowerShell.exe -sta -executionpolicy unrestricted -command " & 'C:\Scripts\prepostlefthand_env_v2.9.ps1' Backupsettings.ini ALL" 2>&1 >> C:\Logs\trap_out.txt ) ELSE ( echo %DATE% %TIME% Action substring is %ACTION% so exiting" 2>&1 >> C:\Logs\trap.out.txt ) exit

    Read the article

  • what do i need to do so that mod_wsgi will find libmysqlclient.16.dylib? (osx 10.7 with apache mod_wsgi)

    - by compound eye
    I am trying to run django on osx 10.7 (lion) with apache mod_wsgi and virtualenv. My site works if I use the django testing server: (baseline)otter:hello mathew$ python manage.py runserver but it doesn't work when I run apache. The core of the error seems to be Library not loaded: libmysqlclient.16.dylib I think its to do with the path apache is using to locate libmysqlclient.16.dylib when I run otool in the lib directory it looks good otter:lib mathew$ pwd /usr/local/mysql/lib otter:lib mathew$ otool -L libmysqlclient.16.dylib libmysqlclient.16.dylib: libmysqlclient.16.dylib (compatibility version 16.0.0, current version 16.0.0) /usr/lib/libSystem.B.dylib (compatibility version 1.0.0, current version 125.0.1) but from outside it can't find it otter:lib mathew$ cd / otter:/ mathew$ otool -L libmysqlclient.16.dylib otool: can't open file: libmysqlclient.16.dylib (No such file or directory) if i manually set DYLD_LIBRARY_PATH otool works otter:lib mathew$ DYLD_LIBRARY_PATH=/usr/local/mysql/lib otter:lib mathew$ otool -L libmysqlclient.16.dylib libmysqlclient.16.dylib: libmysqlclient.16.dylib (compatibility version 16.0.0, current version 16.0.0) /usr/lib/libSystem.B.dylib (compatibility version 1.0.0, current version 125.0.1) When I run the django testing server, my .bash_profile sets up the virtualenv and the path to the mysql dynamic library export DYLD_LIBRARY_PATH=/usr/local/mysql/lib/:$DYLD_LIBRARY_PATH export PATH When i run apache it finds my virtualenv paths, but it doesn't seem to find the dynamic library path. I tried adding this path to /usr/sbin/envvars DYLD_LIBRARY_PATH="/usr/lib:/usr/local/mysql/lib:$DYLD_LIBRARY_PATH" export DYLD_LIBRARY_PATH and to /private/etc/paths.d/libmysql /usr/local/mysql/lib then restarted the machine but that has not changed the error message. Error loading MySQLdb module: dlopen(/usr/local/python_virtualenv/baseline/lib/python2.7/site-packages/_mysql.so, 2): Library not loaded: libmysqlclient.16.dylib I don't think is a permissions issue: -rwxr-xr-x 1 root wheel 3787328 4 Dec 2010 libmysqlclient.16.dylib drwxr-xr-x 39 root wheel 1394 18 Nov 21:07 / drwxr-xr-x@ 15 root wheel 510 24 Oct 22:10 /usr drwxrwxr-x 20 root admin 680 2 Nov 20:22 /usr/local drwxr-xr-x 20 mathew admin 680 9 Nov 21:58 /usr/local/python_virtualenv drwxr-xr-x 6 mathew admin 204 2 Nov 21:36 /usr/local/python_virtualenv/baseline drwxr-xr-x 4 mathew admin 136 2 Nov 21:26 /usr/local/python_virtualenv/baseline/lib drwxr-xr-x 52 mathew admin 1768 2 Nov 21:26 /usr/local/python_virtualenv/baseline/lib/python2.7 drwxr-xr-x 18 mathew admin 612 4 Nov 21:20 /usr/local/python_virtualenv/baseline/lib/python2.7/site-packages -rwxr-xr-x 1 mathew admin 66076 2 Nov 21:18 /usr/local/python_virtualenv/baseline/lib/python2.7/site-packages/_mysql.so What do i need to do so that mod_wsgi will find libmysqlclient.16.dylib? apache and mysql are both 64 bit: otter:lib mathew$ file /usr/sbin/httpd /usr/sbin/httpd: Mach-O universal binary with 2 architectures /usr/sbin/httpd (for architecture x86_64): Mach-O 64-bit executable x86_64 /usr/sbin/httpd (for architecture i386): Mach-O executable i386 otter:lib mathew$ otter:lib mathew$ file /usr/local/mysql/lib/libmysqlclient.16.dylib /usr/local/mysql/lib/libmysqlclient.16.dylib: Mach-O 64-bit dynamically linked shared library x86_64

    Read the article

  • Default Database Collations PenTesting Env

    - by dominicdinada
    I am using Ubuntu 9.10 with XAMPP ( Lampp "MYSQL 5.1.45 PHPMYADMIN 3.3.1 PHP 5.3.2 ) What my problem is, is that I set up my testing env to debug my scripts locally and when I did so there arose a problem. This problem is that I used firefox's addon SQLinject ME to test for weakness' and upon doing so it caused mysql to change the default local collations; character sets dir /opt/lampp/share/mysql/charsets/ collation connection latin1_general_ci (Global value) latin1_swedish_ci collation database latin1_swedish_ci collation server latin1_swedish_ci I have searched for quite sometime in regards to a solution to this problem and have come up with searching for the db.opt file which stores this information without success. Upon not finding a solution I removed lampp with the "sudo rm -fR /opt" command and reinstall and the problem still persists. I have tried to change the collations manually and still come up with the database displaying latin1_swedish_ci as the default language. Why is this a problem?? Why is it a problem with mysql? Because the application I am testing and debugging locally is built on the CodeIgnitor with Smarty framework and since this combination of framework is built to detect the LOCALES, Rather what the database defaults are I keep getting errors saying no language file for swedish...... Of course I could get the swedish language file to work around this problem but I do not feel the need to make this work around a perminant solution as with time when I move on to projects I will run into simular problems every time that A; When importing database files, backups etc it will default to import such databases as the locale swedish. B; As time passes on I might completly forget of this error and will be back to square one. I have found this code in searches for a fix,which seems to alter the tables to a desired Collaion; $value) { mysql_query("ALTER TABLE $value COLLATE latin1_general_ci"); }} echo "The collation of your database has been successfully changed!"; ? Which is handy to switch collations in One Schema at a time however this is not a fix when a framework doesnt care that the said database is in one langugae. It tests for the Default of the entire server. Someone with any knowledge of a purge or fix to this I would greatly appricate the help. One more final note is that when I was testing I only figured to back up the applications DataBase and not the entire Schema of the install. No matter if I uninstall or reinstall the database still seems to carry these problems.

    Read the article

  • SaaS Architecture Question from Newbie

    - by user226767
    I have developed a number of departmental client-server applications, and am now ready to begin working on moving one of these applications to a SaaS model. I have done some basic web development, but I'm a newbie when it comes to SaaS architectures. One of the first questions that comes to mind as I try to design the architecture is the question of single vs. multi tenancy. The pros and cons of each vary significantly depending on the type of application and scale required, so I'd like to describe my application and scale needs below, and hope others can comment on how I should get started with the architecture. The client-server application currently consists of a Firebird database and a Windows application. The database contains about 20 tables containing a few thousand records in 4 primary tables, and a few hundred records in various lookup and related tables. Although the number of records is small, the size can get large, as the database can contain large BLOBS. Each customer sets up their own database and has a handful of users within the organization connected to it. When I update the db schema, a new windows application is released, and it checks the db schema and then applies the updates as needed. For the SaaS application, I am designing for 100's (not 1000's or millions) of new customers per year. My first thought was to go with a multi tenancy model to make updates easy (shut down apply the updates to one database, and then start up). On the other hand, a single tenancy model would provide a means to roll updates out to a group of customers at a time, and spread the risk of data corruption - i.e. if something goes wrong with a database, it will impact one customer instead of all customers. With this idea, I was thinking of having a single web front-end which would connect to a single customer database upon login. Thus, when a new customer creates an account, a new database would be created (each customer would have their own db with multiple users as needed for the customer). In this model, a db update would require either a process to go through each db to apply schema changes, or a trigger upon logging in to initiate a schema update similar to the client-server model currently in use. Can anyone point me to information for similar applications which have been ported from client-server to SaaS? Or provide any pointers to consider? Basically I'm looking for architecture examples of taking a departmental application and making it available as a self service website for multiple customers. Thanks for any suggestions, resources, etc.

    Read the article

  • SBT run differences between scala and java?

    - by Eric Cartner
    I'm trying to follow the log4j2 configuration tutorials in a SBT 0.12.1 project. Here is my build.sbt: name := "Logging Test" version := "0.0" scalaVersion := "2.9.2" libraryDependencies ++= Seq( "org.apache.logging.log4j" % "log4j-api" % "2.0-beta3", "org.apache.logging.log4j" % "log4j-core" % "2.0-beta3" ) When I run the main() defined in src/main/scala/logtest/Foo.scala: package logtest import org.apache.logging.log4j.{Logger, LogManager} object Foo { private val logger = LogManager.getLogger(getClass()) def main(args: Array[String]) { logger.trace("Entering application.") val bar = new Bar() if (!bar.doIt()) logger.error("Didn't do it.") logger.trace("Exiting application.") } } I get the output I was expecting given that src/main/resources/log4j2.xml sets the root logging level to trace: [info] Running logtest.Foo 08:39:55.627 [run-main] TRACE logtest.Foo$ - Entering application. 08:39:55.630 [run-main] TRACE logtest.Bar - entry 08:39:55.630 [run-main] ERROR logtest.Bar - Did it again! 08:39:55.630 [run-main] TRACE logtest.Bar - exit with (false) 08:39:55.630 [run-main] ERROR logtest.Foo$ - Didn't do it. 08:39:55.630 [run-main] TRACE logtest.Foo$ - Exiting application. However, when I run the main() defined in src/main/java/logtest/LoggerTest.java: package logtest; import org.apache.logging.log4j.Logger; import org.apache.logging.log4j.LogManager; public class LoggerTest { private static Logger logger = LogManager.getLogger(LoggerTest.class.getName()); public static void main(String[] args) { logger.trace("Entering application."); Bar bar = new Bar(); if (!bar.doIt()) logger.error("Didn't do it."); logger.trace("Exiting application."); } } I get the output: [info] Running logtest.LoggerTest ERROR StatusLogger Unable to locate a logging implementation, using SimpleLogger ERROR Bar Did it again! ERROR LoggerTest Didn't do it. From what I can tell, ERROR StatusLogger Unable to ... is usually a sign that log4j-core is not on my classpath. The lack of TRACE messages seems to indicate that my log4j2.xml settings aren't on the classpath either. Why should there be any difference in classpath if I'm running Foo.main versus LoggerTest.main? Or is there something else causing this behavior? Update I used SBT Assembly to build a fat jar of this project and specified logtest.LoggerTest to be the main class. Running it from the command line produced correct results: Eric-Cartners-iMac:target ecartner$ java -jar "Logging Test-assembly-0.0.jar" 10:52:23.220 [main] TRACE logtest.LoggerTest - Entering application. 10:52:23.221 [main] TRACE logtest.Bar - entry 10:52:23.221 [main] ERROR logtest.Bar - Did it again! 10:52:23.221 [main] TRACE logtest.Bar - exit with (false) 10:52:23.221 [main] ERROR logtest.LoggerTest - Didn't do it. 10:52:23.221 [main] TRACE logtest.LoggerTest - Exiting application.

    Read the article

  • How can I make these images download on a seperate thread?

    - by Andy Barlow
    Hello!! I have the following code running on my Android device. It works great and displays my list items wonderfully. It's also clever in the fact it only downloads the data when it's needed by the ArrayAdapter. However, whilst the download of the thumbnail is occurring, the entire list stalls and you cannot scroll until it's finished downloading. Is there any way of threading this so it'll still scroll happily, maybe show a place holder for the downloading image, finish the download, and then show? Any help with this would be really apreciated. Thank-you kindly. Andy Barlow private class CatalogAdapter extends ArrayAdapter { private ArrayList<SingleQueueResult> items; //Must research what this actually does! public CatalogAdapter(Context context, int textViewResourceId, ArrayList<SingleQueueResult> items) { super(context, textViewResourceId, items); this.items = items; } /** This overrides the getview of the ArrayAdapter. It should send back our new custom rows for the list */ @Override public View getView(int position, View convertView, ViewGroup parent) { View v = convertView; if (v == null) { LayoutInflater vi = (LayoutInflater)getSystemService(Context.LAYOUT_INFLATER_SERVICE); v = vi.inflate(R.layout.mylists_rows, null); } final SingleQueueResult result = items.get(position); // Sets the text inside the rows as they are scrolled by! if (result != null) { TextView title = (TextView)v.findViewById(R.id.mylist_title); TextView format = (TextView)v.findViewById(R.id.mylist_format); title.setText(result.getTitle()); format.setText(result.getThumbnail()); // Download Images ImageView myImageView = (ImageView)v.findViewById(R.id.mylist_thumbnail); downloadImage(result.getThumbnail(), myImageView); } return v; } } // This should run in a seperate thread public void downloadImage(String imageUrl, ImageView myImageView) { try { url = new URL(imageUrl); URLConnection conn = url.openConnection(); conn.connect(); InputStream is = conn.getInputStream(); BufferedInputStream bis = new BufferedInputStream(is); Bitmap bm = BitmapFactory.decodeStream(bis); bis.close(); is.close(); myImageView.setImageBitmap(bm); } catch (IOException e) { /* Reset to Default image on any error. */ //this.myImageView.setImageDrawable(getResources().getDrawable(R.drawable.default)); } }

    Read the article

  • SharedObject (Flex 3.2) behaving unexpectedly when query string present in URL

    - by rhtx
    Summary: The behavior detailed below seems to indicate that if your app at www.someplace.com sets/retrieves data via a SharedObject, there is some sort of .sol collision if the user hits your app at someplace.com, and then later at someplace.com?name=value. Can anyone confirm or refute this? I'm working on a Flex web app that presents the user with a login page. When the user has logged in, he/she is presented with a 'room' which is associated with a 'group'. We store the last-visited room/group combination in a SharedObject - so when a given user logs in, they are taken into the most recent room in which they were active. That works fine, but we also have an auto-login system which involves the user clicking on a link to the app url with a query string attached. There are two types of these links. 1) the query string includes username, groupId, and roomId 2) the query string includes only the username Because we are working fast and have only a few developers, the auto-login system is built on the last-vist system. During the auto-login process, the url is inspected and if groupId and roomId values are found in the query string, the SharedObject is opened and the last-visit group/room id values are overwritten by the param values. That works fine, also, when the app is hit with a query string of the second type (no groupId and roomId params), the app goes to the SharedObject to get the stored room and group id values, as it normally would. And here's the problem: The values it comes back with are whatever the last room/group param values were, not whatever the last last-visit room/group values are. And if the given user has never hit the app with query string that included group and room id values, the app gets null values from the SharedObject. It took some digging around, but what it looks like is happening is that a second set of data is being stored/expected in the SharedObject if a query string is present in the URL. Looking at the .sol file in a text editor I see more untranslated code, and additional group and room values, once I've hit the app with URLs that contain query strings. I'm not finding anything on the web about this, but that may just be due to a lack of necessary search skills. Has anyone else run into anything similar? Or do you know how to address this? I've tried setting Security.exactSettings to false, already - was really hoping that was going to work.

    Read the article

  • difference equations in MATLAB - why the need to switch signs?

    - by jefflovejapan
    Perhaps this is more of a math question than a MATLAB one, not really sure. I'm using MATLAB to compute an economic model - the New Hybrid ISLM model - and there's a confusing step where the author switches the sign of the solution. First, the author declares symbolic variables and sets up a system of difference equations. Note that the suffixes "a" and "2t" both mean "time t+1", "2a" means "time t+2" and "t" means "time t": %% --------------------------[2] MODEL proc-----------------------------%% % Define endogenous vars ('a' denotes t+1 values) syms y2a pi2a ya pia va y2t pi2t yt pit vt ; % Monetary policy rule ia = q1*ya+q2*pia; % ia = q1*(ya-yt)+q2*pia; %%option speed limit policy % Model equations IS = rho*y2a+(1-rho)yt-sigma(ia-pi2a)-ya; AS = beta*pi2a+(1-beta)*pit+alpha*ya-pia+va; dum1 = ya-y2t; dum2 = pia-pi2t; MPs = phi*vt-va; optcon = [IS ; AS ; dum1 ; dum2; MPs]; He then computes the matrix A: %% ------------------ [3] Linearization proc ------------------------%% % Differentiation xx = [y2a pi2a ya pia va y2t pi2t yt pit vt] ; % define vars jopt = jacobian(optcon,xx); % Define Linear Coefficients coef = eval(jopt); B = [ -coef(:,1:5) ] ; C = [ coef(:,6:10) ] ; % B[c(t+1) l(t+1) k(t+1) z(t+1)] = C[c(t) l(t) k(t) z(t)] A = inv(C)*B ; %(Linearized reduced form ) As far as I understand, this A is the solution to the system. It's the matrix that turns time t+1 and t+2 variables into t and t+1 variables (it's a forward-looking model). My question is essentially why is it necessary to reverse the signs of all the partial derivatives in B in order to get this solution? I'm talking about this step: B = [ -coef(:,1:5) ] ; Reversing the sign here obviously reverses the sign of every component of A, but I don't have a clear understanding of why it's necessary. My apologies if the question is unclear or if this isn't the best place to ask.

    Read the article

  • derby + hibernate ConstraintViolationException using manytomany relationships

    - by user364470
    Hi, I'm new to Hibernate+Derby... I've seen this issue mentioned throughout the google, but have not seen a proper resolution. This following code works fine with mysql, but when I try this on derby i get exceptions: ( each Tag has two sets of files and vise-versa - manytomany) Tags.java @Entity @Table(name="TAGS") public class Tags implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy=GenerationType.AUTO) public long getId() { return id; } @ManyToMany(targetEntity=Files.class ) @ForeignKey(name="USER_TAGS_FILES",inverseName="USER_FILES_TAGS") @JoinTable(name="USERTAGS_FILES", joinColumns=@JoinColumn(name="TAGS_ID"), inverseJoinColumns=@JoinColumn(name="FILES_ID")) public Set<data.Files> getUserFiles() { return userFiles; } @ManyToMany(mappedBy="autoTags", targetEntity=data.Files.class) public Set<data.Files> getAutoFiles() { return autoFiles; } Files.java @Entity @Table(name="FILES") public class Files implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy=GenerationType.AUTO) public long getId() { return id; } @ManyToMany(mappedBy="userFiles", targetEntity=data.Tags.class) public Set getUserTags() { return userTags; } @ManyToMany(targetEntity=Tags.class ) @ForeignKey(name="AUTO_FILES_TAGS",inverseName="AUTO_TAGS_FILES") @JoinTable(name="AUTOTAGS_FILES", joinColumns=@JoinColumn(name="FILES_ID"), inverseJoinColumns=@JoinColumn(name="TAGS_ID")) public Set getAutoTags() { return autoTags; } I add some data to the DB, but when running over Derby these exception turn up (the don't using mysql) Exceptions SEVERE: DELETE on table 'FILES' caused a violation of foreign key constraint 'USER_FILES_TAGS' for key (3). The statement has been rolled back. Jun 10, 2010 9:49:52 AM org.hibernate.event.def.AbstractFlushingEventListener performExecutions SEVERE: Could not synchronize database state with session org.hibernate.exception.ConstraintViolationException: could not delete: [data.Files#3] at org.hibernate.exception.SQLStateConverter.convert(SQLStateConverter.java:96) at org.hibernate.exception.JDBCExceptionHelper.convert(JDBCExceptionHelper.java:66) at org.hibernate.persister.entity.AbstractEntityPersister.delete(AbstractEntityPersister.java:2712) at org.hibernate.persister.entity.AbstractEntityPersister.delete(AbstractEntityPersister.java:2895) at org.hibernate.action.EntityDeleteAction.execute(EntityDeleteAction.java:97) at org.hibernate.engine.ActionQueue.execute(ActionQueue.java:268) at org.hibernate.engine.ActionQueue.executeActions(ActionQueue.java:260) at org.hibernate.engine.ActionQueue.executeActions(ActionQueue.java:184) at org.hibernate.event.def.AbstractFlushingEventListener.performExecutions(AbstractFlushingEventListener.java:321) at org.hibernate.event.def.DefaultFlushEventListener.onFlush(DefaultFlushEventListener.java:51) at org.hibernate.impl.SessionImpl.flush(SessionImpl.java:1206) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:57) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:43) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:613) at org.hibernate.context.ThreadLocalSessionContext$TransactionProtectionWrapper.invoke(ThreadLocalSessionContext.java:344) at $Proxy13.flush(Unknown Source) at data.HibernateORM.removeFile(HibernateORM.java:285) at data.DataImp.removeFile(DataImp.java:195) at booting.DemoBootForTestUntilTestClassesExist.main(DemoBootForTestUntilTestClassesExist.java:62) I have never used derby before so maybe there is something crutal that i'm missing 1) what am I doing wrong? 2) is there any way of cascading properly when I have 2 many-to-many relationships between two classes? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Custom Rails actions: I have issues every time

    - by normalocity
    Every time I go to add a custom action to a controller, I completely screw it up somehow. I'm trying to add a route "listings/buyer_listings", that will display all of my listings where someone is a buyer (rather than a seller). With the routes.rb file below, when I go to "listings/buyer_listings", I get routed instead to "users" WTF? In the past, I've had to define my routes using "map.", but this seems like a very verbose way to do something that should work with the :collection specification. You can see that I've done this with many routes as specified toward the end of the file, such as "edit_my_profile", etc. If I put the ":collection" part last my browser routes to the "show" action, which is not the correct action, and which also doesn't make sense to me why it would even do this. If I do "rake routes", my routes look correctly mapped. If I go into a Ruby console and have it recognize the url, it maps to the correct action, so what am I missing? ActionController::Routing::Routes.draw do |map| map.resources :locations map.resources :browse_boxes map.resources :tags map.resources :ratings map.resources :listings, :collection => { :buyer_listings => :get }, :has_many => :bids, :has_many => :comments map.resources :users map.resources :invite_requests map.resource :user_session map.resource :account, :controller => "users" map.root :controller => "listings", :action => "index" # optional, this just sets the root route map.login "login", :controller => "user_sessions", :action => "new" map.logout "logout", :controller => "user_sessions", :action => "destroy" map.search "search", :controller => "listings", :action => "search" map.edit_my_profile "edit_my_profile", :controller => "users", :action => "edit_my_profile" map.all_listings "all_listings", :controller => "listings", :action => "all_listings" map.my_listings "my_listings", :controller => "listings", :action => "my_listings" map.posting_guidelines "posting_guidelines", :controller => "listings", :action => "posting_guidelines" map.filter_on "filter_on", :controller => "listings", :action => "filter_on" map.top_25_tags "top_25_tags", :controller => "tagging_search", :action => "top_25_tags" map.connect ':controller/:action/:id' map.connect ':controller/:action/:id.:format' end

    Read the article

  • HttpSession problem in Google App Engine/J

    - by Tahir Akram
    I am writting a Twitter web app by using Twitter4J on GAE/J. I am saving Twitter and Request Token objects in session so that to be used after call back. I have two servlets. IndexServlet sets session and HomeServlet get from session (hits on call back by twitter oAuth). If I comment out session handling lines in both servlets then call backs works fine. Please suggest any workaround. I am sharing my code here. IndexServlet.java Twitter twitter = new Twitter(); twitter.setOAuthConsumer("<masked>", "<masked>"); RequestToken requestToken = null; try { requestToken = twitter.getOAuthRequestToken(); log.info("OAuth token has been taken"); } catch (TwitterException e) { log.warning(e.toString()); } HttpSession session = request.getSession(); if (session.getAttribute("twitter")==null){ session.setAttribute("twitter", twitter); out.println("-----------------------------> session is set"); } if (session.getAttribute("token")==null){ session.setAttribute("token", requestToken); out.println("-----------------------------> session is set"); } String authUrl = requestToken.getAuthorizationURL(); HomeServlet.java HttpSession session = request.getSession(); twitter = (Twitter)session.getAttribute("twitter"); r = (RequestToken)session.getAttribute("token"); twitter.setOAuthAccessToken(r.getAccessToken()); twitter.updateStatus("Hello World!"); Exception javax.servlet.ServletException: java.lang.ArrayStoreException: [Ljava.lang.String; at com.google.apphosting.runtime.jetty.AppVersionHandlerMap.handle(AppVersionHandlerMap.java:239) at org.mortbay.jetty.handler.HandlerWrapper.handle(HandlerWrapper.java:139) at org.mortbay.jetty.Server.handle(Server.java:313) at org.mortbay.jetty.HttpConnection.handleRequest(HttpConnection.java:506) at org.mortbay.jetty.HttpConnection$RequestHandler.headerComplete(HttpConnection.java:830) at com.google.apphosting.runtime.jetty.RpcRequestParser.parseAvailable(RpcRequestParser.java:76) at org.mortbay.jetty.HttpConnection.handle(HttpConnection.java:381) at com.google.apphosting.runtime.jetty.JettyServletEngineAdapter.serviceRequest(JettyServletEngineAdapter.java:139) at com.google.apphosting.runtime.JavaRuntime.handleRequest(JavaRuntime.java:235) at com.google.apphosting.base.RuntimePb$EvaluationRuntime$6.handleBlockingRequest(RuntimePb.java:4950) at com.google.apphosting.base.RuntimePb$EvaluationRuntime$6.handleBlockingRequest(RuntimePb.java:4948) at com.google.net.rpc.impl.BlockingApplicationHandler.handleRequest(BlockingApplicationHandler.java:24) at com.google.net.rpc.impl.RpcUtil.runRpcInApplication(RpcUtil.java:359) at com.google.net.rpc.impl.Server$2.run(Server.java:823) at com.google.tracing.LocalTraceSpanRunnable.run(LocalTraceSpanRunnable.java:56)

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127  | Next Page >