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  • Custom model validation of dependent properties using Data Annotations

    - by Darin Dimitrov
    Since now I've used the excellent FluentValidation library to validate my model classes. In web applications I use it in conjunction with the jquery.validate plugin to perform client side validation as well. One drawback is that much of the validation logic is repeated on the client side and is no longer centralized at a single place. For this reason I'm looking for an alternative. There are many examples out there showing the usage of data annotations to perform model validation. It looks very promising. One thing I couldn't find out is how to validate a property that depends on another property value. Let's take for example the following model: public class Event { [Required] public DateTime? StartDate { get; set; } [Required] public DateTime? EndDate { get; set; } } I would like to ensure that EndDate is greater than StartDate. I could write a custom validation attribute extending ValidationAttribute in order to perform custom validation logic. Unfortunately I couldn't find a way to obtain the model instance: public class CustomValidationAttribute : ValidationAttribute { public override bool IsValid(object value) { // value represents the property value on which this attribute is applied // but how to obtain the object instance to which this property belongs? return true; } } I found that the CustomValidationAttribute seems to do the job because it has this ValidationContext property that contains the object instance being validated. Unfortunately this attribute has been added only in .NET 4.0. So my question is: can I achieve the same functionality in .NET 3.5 SP1? UPDATE: It seems that FluentValidation already supports clientside validation and metadata in ASP.NET MVC 2. Still it would be good to know though if data annotations could be used to validate dependent properties.

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  • Synchronize DataGrid and DataForm in Silverlight 3

    - by SpiralGray
    I've been banging my head against the wall for a couple of days on this and it's time to ask for help. I've got a DataGrid and DataForm on the same UserControl. I'm using an MVVM approach so there is a single ViewModel for the UserControl. That ViewModel has a couple of properties that are relevant to this discussion: public ObservableCollection<VehicleViewModel> Vehicles { get; private set; } public VehicleViewModel SelectedVehicle { get { return selectedVehicle; } private set { selectedVehicle = value; OnPropertyChanged( "SelectedVehicle" ); } } In the XAML I've got the DataGrid and DataForm defined as follows: <data:DataGrid SelectionMode="Single" ItemsSource="{Binding Vehicles}" SelectedItem="{Binding SelectedVehicle, Mode=TwoWay}" AutoGenerateColumns="False" IsReadOnly="True"> <dataFormToolkit:DataForm CurrentItem="{Binding SelectedVehicle}" /> So as the SelectedItem changes on the DataGrid it should push that change back to the ViewModel and when the ViewModel raises the OnPropertyChanged the DataForm should refresh itself with the information for the newly-selected VehicleViewModel. However, the setter for SelectedVehicle is never being called and in the Output window of VS I'm seeing the following error: System.Windows.Data Error: ConvertBack cannot convert value 'xxxx.ViewModel.VehicleViewModel' (type 'xxxx.ViewModel.VehicleViewModel'). BindingExpression: Path='SelectedVehicle' DataItem='xxxx.ViewModel.MainViewModel' (HashCode=31664161); target element is 'System.Windows.Controls.DataGrid' (Name=''); target property is 'SelectedItem' (type 'System.Object').. System.MethodAccessException: xxxx.ViewModel.MainViewModel.set_SelectedVehicle(xxxx.ViewModel.VehicleViewModel) It sounds like it's having a problem converting from a VehicleViewModel to an object (or back again), but I'm confused as to why that would be (or even if I'm on the right track with that assumption). Each row/item in the DataGrid should be a VehicleViewModel (because the ItemsSource is bound to an ObservableCollection of that type), so when the SelectedItem changes it should be dealing with an instance of VehicleViewModel. Any insight would be appreciated.

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  • Positioning SVG Elements

    - by Rob Wilkerson
    In the course of toying with SVG for the first time (using the Raphael library), I've run into a problem positioning dynamic elements on the canvas in such a way that they're completely contained within the canvas. What I'm trying to do is randomly position n words/short phrases. Since the text is variable, its position needs to be variable as well so what I'm doing is: Initially creating the text at point 0,0 with no opacity. Checking the width of the drawn text element using text.getBBox().width. Setting a new x coordinate as Math.random() * (canvas_width - ( text_width/2 ) - pad). Altering the x coordinate of the text to the newly set value (text.attr( 'x', x ) ). Setting the opacity attribute of the text to 1. I'll be the first to admit that my math acumen is limited, but this seems pretty straightforward. Somehow, I still end up with text running off beyond the right edge of my canvas. For simplicity above, I removed the bit that also sets a minimum x value by adding it to the Math.random() result. It is there, though, and I see the same problem on the leading edge of the canvas. My understanding (such as it is), is that the Math.random() bits would generate a number between 0 and 1 which could then be multiplied by some number (in my case, the canvas width - half of the text width - some arbitrary padding) to get the outer bound. I'm dividing the width of the text in half because its position on the grid is set at its center. I hope I've just been staring at this for too long, but is my math that rusty or am I misunderstanding something about the behavior of Math.random(), SVG, text or anything else that's under the hood of this solution?

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  • How to create a rails staging environment in engineyard?

    - by siulamvictor
    I have a production instance in engineyard up and running well. I would like to create a new staging instance for internal testing. I cloned the existing production instance, changed Framework Environment to staging. I can deploy all the code to staging instance from Github. Engineyard reported the server is fully configured and ready. I have subdomain-fu in my Rails app, as I have some subdomain handling in my app. I set the subdomain initializer like this.... SubdomainFu.tld_sizes = {:development => 1, :test => 0, :production => 1, :staging => 2} As the production instance is using the domain xxxxx.com, I would like my staging instance use the domain staging.xxxxx.com. But I got an error when open this domain. Seems the app use xxxxx.com as domain but not the staging.xxxxx.com. I checked the engineyard database.yml. It use xxxxx_production database, I supposed it should be xxxxx_staging. Seems the engineyard instance is not set to staging environment, but just clone all the setting from production server. Does anyone have experience with this and can show me the way on how to fix it? Thanks. :)

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  • object_getInstanceVariable works for float, int, bool, but not for double?

    - by Russel West
    I've got object_getInstanceVariable to work as here however it seems to only work for floats, bools and ints not doubles. I do suspect I'm doing something wrong but I've been going in circles with this. float myFloatValue; float someFloat = 2.123f; object_getInstanceVariable(self, "someFloat", (void*)&myFloatValue); works, and myFloatValue = 2.123 but when I try double myDoubleValue; double someDouble = 2.123f; object_getInstanceVariable(self, "someDouble", (void*)&myDoubleValue); i get myDoubleValue = 0. If I try to set myDoubleValue before the function eg. double myDoubleValue = 1.2f, the value is unchanged when I read it after the object_getInstanceVariable call. setting myIntValue to some other value before the getinstancevar function above returns 2 as it should, ie. it has been changed. then I tried Ivar tmpIvar = object_getInstanceVariable(self, "someDouble", (void*)&myDoubleValue); if i do ivar_getName(tmpIvar) i get "someDouble", but myDoubuleValue = 0 still! then i try ivar_getTypeEncoding(tmpIvar) and i get "d" as it should be. So to summarize, if typeEncoding = float, it works, if it is a double, the result is not set but it correctly reads the variable and the return value (Ivar) is also correct. I must be doing something basic wrong that I cant see so I'd appreciate if someone could point it out.

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  • Using TextWraping within a TextBox, inside a Grid for use within a ListBox in WP7

    - by Adam Goodchild
    I am trying to get my data to display properly within a GridLayout, which is to be used as a DataTemplate for an Item within ListBox. Here is the code associated with what I am doing: <Grid Name="FeedItemTemplate"> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition Height="Auto" /> <RowDefinition Height="Auto" /> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto" /> <ColumnDefinition Width="*" /> <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto" /> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <Image Source="{Binding ProfileImage}" Grid.RowSpan="2" Height="75" Width="75" VerticalAlignment="Center" Margin="1" /> <TextBlock Text="{Binding UserName}" Grid.Column="1" Foreground="#FFC8AB14" FontSize="28" HorizontalAlignment="Left"/> <TextBlock Text="{Binding TimeStamp}" Grid.Column="2" TextWrapping="Wrap" FontSize="18" HorizontalAlignment="Center"/> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Message}" Grid.Column="1" Grid.Row="1" Grid.ColumnSpan="2" TextWrapping="Wrap" FontSize="24" /> </Grid> The issue is that using this layout, when TextWrapping is set to Wrap, the Item is displayed correctly, but when scrolling through the ListBox everything is really jittery, you cannot scroll in small increments, and it just jumps all over the place. Any reason why it does this? As I said, only when TextWrapping is set to Wrap it does this. When its not used, it scrolls fine, but the text is all along one line and off the screen.

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  • Precompiled headers question

    - by Kotti
    Hello! I am right now reorganizing my project and what recently was a simple application now became a pair of C++ projects - static library and real application. I would like to share one precompiled header between two projects, but face some troubles with setting up the .pdb file paths. Assume my first project is called Library and builds it's .lib file with a corresponding Library.pdb file. Now, the second project is called Application and builds everything into the same folder (.exe and another Application.pdb file). Right now my both projects create their own precompiled headers file (Library.pch and Application.pch) based on one actual header file. It works, but I think it's a waste of time and I also think there should be a way to share one precompiled header between two projects. If in my Application project I try to set the Use Precompiled Header (/Yu) option and set it to Library.pch, it wouldn't work, because of the following error: error C2858: command-line option 'program database name "Application.pdb" inconsistent with precompiled header, which used "Library.pdb". So, does anyone know some trick or way to share one precompiled header between two projects preserving proper debug information?

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  • Any way to identify a redirect when using jQuery's $.ajax() or $.getScript() methods?

    - by Bungle
    Within my company's online application, we've set up a JSONP-based API that returns some data that is used by a bookmarklet I'm developing. Here is a quick test page I set up that hits the API URL using jQuery's $.ajax() method: http://troy.onespot.com/static/3915/index.html If you look at the requests using Firebug's "Net" tab (or the like), you'll see that what's happening is that the URL is requested successfully, but since our app redirects any unauthorized users to a login page, the login page is also requested by the browser and seemingly interpreted as JavaScript. This inevitably causes an exception since the login page is HTML, not JavaScript. Basically, I'm looking for any sort of hook to determine when the request results in a redirect - some way to determine if the URL resolved to a JSONP response (which will execute a method I've predefined in the bookmarklet script) or if it resulted in a redirect. I tried wrapping the $.ajax() method in a try {} catch(e) {} block, but that doesn't trap the exception, I'm assuming because the requests were successful, just not the parsing of the login page as JavaScript. Is there anywhere I could use a try {} catch(e) {} block, or any property of $.ajax() that might allow me to hone in on the exception or otherwise determine that I've been redirected? I actually doubt this is possible, since $.getScript() (or the equivalent setup of $.ajax()) just loads a script dynamically, and can't inspect the response headers since it's cross-domain and not truly AJAX: http://api.jquery.com/jQuery.getScript/ My alternative would be to just fire off the $.ajax() for a period of time until I either get the JSONP callback or don't, and in the latter case, assume the user is not logged in and prompt them to do so. I don't like that method, though, since it would result in a lot of unnecessary requests to the app server, and would also pile up the JavaScript exceptions in the meantime. Thanks for any suggestions!

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  • issue in property file

    - by devuser
    I want to load the property file when tomcat is starting.so I'm using servletContextListener to do that and i can get values of property file to my web application. But i want to keep the same value after changing the property file once log into web application.But when i change the value of property file and log into system again it change the value to new one.I want to keep the same value that loaded when tomcat was starting.how can i implement this? My coding is as below import javax.servlet.*; import java.io.IOException; import java.util.Properties; import java.util.logging.Level; import java.util.logging.Logger; import java.io.*; import java.util.ResourceBundle; public final class sysProperties implements javax.servlet.ServletContextListener { private static Properties props = new Properties(); private static String file_name = "com/util/contact.properties"; public addSystemProperties() { } public void contextInitialized(ServletContextEvent servletContextEvent) { // Get the context ServletContext servletContext = servletContextEvent.getServletContext(); // Set a context attribute try { // props.load(servletContext.getResourceAsStream(file_name)); props.load(getClass().getClassLoader().getResourceAsStream(file_name)); System.out.println(" Application X is starting"); servletContext.setAttribute("h1",props.getProperty("home.h1")); servletContext.setAttribute("h2",props.getProperty("home.h2")); System.out.println("h1"+servletContext.getAttribute("h1")); System.out.println("h2"+ servletContext.getAttribute("h2")); ; } catch (Exception e) { System.out.println(" Error setting context attribute: " + e.getMessage()); } } public void contextDestroyed(ServletContextEvent servletContextEvent) { // Get the context ServletContext servletContext = servletContextEvent.getServletContext(); // Output the context variable we set earlier System.out.println(" Application X is shutting down"); System.out.println(" Value of h1 is: " + servletContext.getAttribute("h1")); System.out.println(" Value of h2 is: " + servletContext.getAttribute("h2")); // Clean up (not really necessary as the context is being destroyed, but let's be neat) servletContext.removeAttribute(props.getProperty("h1")); servletContext.removeAttribute(props.getProperty("h2")); } }

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  • LINQ to SQL - Tracking New / Dirty Objects

    - by Joseph Sturtevant
    Is there a way to determine if a LINQ object has not yet been inserted in the database (new) or has been changed since the last update (dirty)? I plan on binding my UI to LINQ objects (using WPF) and need it to behave differently depending whether or not the object is already in the database. MyDataContext context = new MyDataContext(); MyObject obj; if (new Random().NextDouble() > .5) obj = new MyObject(); else obj = context.MyObjects.First(); // How can I distinguish these two cases? The only simple solution I can think of is to set the primary key of new records to a negative value (my PKs are an identity field and will therefore be set to a positive integer on INSERT). This will only work for detecting new records. It also requires identity PKs, and requires control of the code creating the new object. Is there a better way to do this? It seems like LINQ must be internally tracking the status of these objects so that it can know what to do on context.SubmitChanges(). Is there some way to access that "object status"? Clarification Apparently my initial question was confusing. I'm not looking for a way to insert or update records. I'm looking for a way, given any LINQ object, to determine if that object has not been inserted (new) or has been changed since its last update (dirty).

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  • How do I repopulate the view model in ASP.NET MVC 2 after a validation error?

    - by Keltex
    I'm using ASP.NET MVC 2 and here's the issue. My View Model looks something like this. It includes some fields which are edited by the user and others which are used for display purposes. Here's a simple version public class MyModel { public decimal Price { get; set; } // for view purpose only [Required(ErrorMessage="Name Required")] public string Name { get; set; } } The controller looks something like this: public ActionResult Start(MyModel rec) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { Repository.SaveModel(rec); return RedirectToAction("NextPage"); } else { // validation error return View(rec); } } The issue is when there's a validation error and I call View(rec), I'm not sure the best way to populate my view model with the values that are displayed only. The old way of doing it, where I pass in a form collection, I would do something like this: public ActionResult Start(FormCollection collection) { var rec = Repository.LoadModel(); UpdateModel(rec); if (ModelState.IsValid) { Repository.SaveModel(rec); return RedirectToAction("NextPage"); } else { // validation error return View(rec); } } But doing this, I get an error on UpdateModel(rec): The model of type 'MyModel' could not be updated. Any ideas?

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  • Pros and cons of making database IDs consistent and "readable"

    - by gmale
    Question Is it a good rule of thumb for database IDs to be "meaningless?" Conversely, are there significant benefits from having IDs structured in a way where they can be recognized at a glance? What are the pros and cons? Background I just had a debate with my coworkers about the consistency of the IDs in our database. We have a data-driven application that leverages spring so that we rarely ever have to change code. That means, if there's a problem, a data change is usually the solution. My argument was that by making IDs consistent and readable, we save ourselves significant time and headaches, long term. Once the IDs are set, they don't have to change often and if done right, future changes won't be difficult. My coworkers position was that IDs should never matter. Encoding information into the ID violates DB design policies and keeping them orderly requires extra work that, "we don't have time for." I can't find anything online to support either position. So I'm turning to all the gurus here at SA! Example Imagine this simplified list of database records representing food in a grocery store, the first set represents data that has meaning encoded in the IDs, while the second does not: ID's with meaning: Type 1 Fruit 2 Veggie Product 101 Apple 102 Banana 103 Orange 201 Lettuce 202 Onion 203 Carrot Location 41 Aisle four top shelf 42 Aisle four bottom shelf 51 Aisle five top shelf 52 Aisle five bottom shelf ProductLocation 10141 Apple on aisle four top shelf 10241 Banana on aisle four top shelf //just by reading the ids, it's easy to recongnize that these are both Fruit on Aisle 4 ID's without meaning: Type 1 Fruit 2 Veggie Product 1 Apple 2 Banana 3 Orange 4 Lettuce 5 Onion 6 Carrot Location 1 Aisle four top shelf 2 Aisle four bottom shelf 3 Aisle five top shelf 4 Aisle five bottom shelf ProductLocation 1 Apple on aisle four top shelf 2 Banana on aisle four top shelf //given the IDs, it's harder to see that these are both fruit on aisle 4 Summary What are the pros and cons of keeping IDs readable and consistent? Which approach do you generally prefer and why? Is there an accepted industry best-practice?

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  • PHP gettext function only returns orignal untranslated string

    - by Camsoft
    I'm trying to use gettext add localisation support to my website. I've followed various guides on how to setup gettext and have done the following: I've created the following files and directories in the root of my project dir: test.php locale/ de_DE LC_MESSAGES messages.mo messages.po en_GB LC_MESSAGES messages.mo messages.po I've used Poedit to create the above .po and mo files. I've made sue it use Unix line endings, UTF-8 and set the language and country accordingly. I've then created a PHP script called test.php which has the following code: <?php define('LOCALE', 'de_DE'); // Set up environmental variables putenv("LC_ALL=" . LOCALE); setlocale(LC_ALL, LOCALE); bindtextdomain("messages", "./locale"); bind_textdomain_codeset("messages", LOCALE .".utf8"); textdomain("messages"); die(gettext('This is a test.')); ?> I've imported the text "This is a test." to Poedit and supplied the translation and saved it. But for some reason the test.php script will only output the original text untranslated. It refuses to load the version for the translation files. It's worth noting that the server is running Linux (Ubuntu), Apache 2.2.11 and PHP 5.2.6-3ubuntu4.5. I've checked phpinfo() and gettext is enabled. Can someone help me? Thanks.

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  • iPhone sdk Cocoa Touch - Pass touches down from parent UIView to child UIScrollview

    - by Joe
    I have a UIView inside my xib in IB and inside that is a UIScrollview that is a small 80x80 square and dynamically loaded with 8 or so 80 x 80 thumbnail images. The UIScrollview is not clipping the images so that they extend out either side so you can swipe left and right to scroll a chosen image into the the centre, paging is on so they snap ti each image. I have researched and found this is the best and possibly only way to do this. The UIScrollview sits in a 'container' UIView for one reason, it is there to receive the touches/swipes and pass them down to it's child the UIScrollview as otherwise all touches would have to start in the small 80x80 UIScrollview area and I wan them to be anywhere along the row of images. I have seen some sample code somewhere for doing this but just can not implement it. Treat me as a noob, starting from beginning to end, how should the UIView and UIScrollview be set up in IB to allow any touches to be passed, and what code should I put into where? The UIView is set up as scroll_container and the child UIScrollview is char_scroll At the moment I have got it all working except for the touches being passed from the parent to the child, and at the moment the touches have to always start inside the UIScrollview (tiny 80x80 box in centre) when I want to be able to swipe left or right in the long 480X80 horizontal parent UIView and have this still scroll the child UIScrollview. Hope you can help and understand what I mean!

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  • Episerver Scheduled Job fails (scheduler service)

    - by Igor
    Our scheduled jobs started failing since yesterday with the following error message: CustomUpdate.Execute - System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at System.Web.Security.Roles.GetRolesForUser(String username) at EPiServer.Security.PrincipalInfo.CreatePrincipal(String username) The scheduled job uses anonymous execution and logs in programmatically using the following call: if (PrincipalInfo.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name == string.Empty) { PrincipalInfo.CurrentPrincipal = PrincipalInfo.CreatePrincipal(ApplicationSettings.ScheduledJobUsername); } I have put in some more logging around PrincipalInfo.CreatePrincipal call which is in Episerver.Security and noticed that PrincipalInfo.CreatePrincipal calls System.Web.Security.Roles.GetRolesForUser(username) and Roles.GetRolesForUser(username) returns an empty string array. There were no changes code wise or on the server (updates, etc). I checked that the user name used to run the task is in the database and has roles associated with it. I checked that applicationname is set up correctly and is associated with the user If i run the job manually using the same user it executes with no issues (i know there is a difference between running the job manually and using the scheduler) I also tried creating a new user, that didn’t work either. Has anyone come across the same or similar issue? Any thoughts how to resolve this issue?

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  • Strange behavior due to wx.Frame.SetTitle

    - by Anurag Uniyal
    In a wxPython application, which i am porting to Mac OSX, I set title of app frame every 500msec in update UI event, and due to that all the panels and windows are refreshed. That seems strange to me and almost halts my application which has many custom drawn controls and screens. I wanted to know what could be the reason behind it, is it normal for MAC? Here is a self-constrained script which replicates the scenario using timers. It keeps on printing "on paint" every 500ms because in timer I set title every 500ms. import wx app = wx.PySimpleApp() frame = wx.Frame(None, title="BasePainter Test") painter = wx.Panel(frame) def onPaint(event): dc = wx.PaintDC(painter) print "onPaint" painter.Bind(wx.EVT_PAINT, onPaint) def loop(): frame.SetTitle(frame.GetTitle()) wx.CallLater(500, loop) loop() frame.Show(True) app.SetTopWindow(frame) app.MainLoop() My system details: >>> sys.version '2.5 (r25:51918, Sep 19 2006, 08:49:13) \n[GCC 4.0.1 (Apple Computer, Inc. build 5341)]' >>> wx.VERSION (2, 8, 10, 1, '') >>> os.uname() ('Darwin', 'agyeys-mac-mini.local', '9.8.0', 'Darwin Kernel Version 9.8.0: Wed Jul 15 16:55:01 PDT 2009; root:xnu-1228.15.4~1/RELEASE_I386', 'i386')

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  • Deserialize generic collections - coming up empty

    - by AC
    I've got a settings object for my app that has two collections in it. The collections are simple List generics that contain a collection of property bags. When I serialize it, everything is saved with no problem: XmlSerializer x = new XmlSerializer(settings.GetType()); TextWriter tw = new StreamWriter(@"c:\temp\settings.cpt"); x.Serialize(tw, settings); However when I deserialize it, everything is restored except for the two collections (verified by setting a breakpoint on the setters: XmlSerializer x = new XmlSerializer(typeof(CourseSettings)); XmlReader tr = XmlReader.Create(@"c:\temp\settings.cpt"); this.DataContext = (CourseSettings)x.Deserialize(tr); What would cause this? Everything is pretty vanilla... here's a snippet from the settings object... omitting most of it. The PresentationSourceDirectory works just fine, but the PresentationModules' setter isn't hit: private string _presentationSourceDirectory = string.Empty; public string PresentationSourceDirectory { get { return _presentationSourceDirectory; } set { if (_presentationSourceDirectory != value) { OnPropertyChanged("PresentationSourceDirectory"); _presentationSourceDirectory = value; } } } private List<Module> _presentationModules = new List<Module>(); public List<Module> PresentationModules { get { var sortedModules = from m in _presentationModules orderby m.ModuleOrder select m; return sortedModules.ToList<Module>(); } set { if (_presentationModules != value) { _presentationModules = value; OnPropertyChanged("PresentationModules"); } } }

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  • Numeric Order By In Transact SQL (Ordering As String Instead Of Int)

    - by Pyronaut
    I have an issue where I am trying to order a result set by what I believe to be a numberic column in my database. However when I get the result set, It has sorted the column as if it was a string (So alphabetically), instead of sorting it as an int. As an example. I have these numbers, 1 , 2, 3, 4, 5, 10, 11 When I order by in Transact SQL, I get back : 1, 10, 11, 2, 3, 4, 5 I had the same issue with Datagridview's a while back, And the issue was because of the sorting being done as if it was a string. I assume the same thing is happening here. My full SQL code is : SELECT TOP (12) DATEPART(YEAR, [OrderDate]) AS 'Year', DATEPART(MONTH, [OrderDate]) AS 'Month' , COUNT(OrderRef) AS 'OrderCount' FROM [Order] WHERE [Status] LIKE('PaymentReceived') OR [Status] LIKE ('Shipped') GROUP BY DATEPART(MONTH, [OrderDate]), DATEPART(YEAR, [OrderDate]) ORDER BY DATEPART(YEAR, OrderDate) DESC, DATEPART(MONTH, OrderDate) desc DO NOTE The wrong sorting only happens when I cam calling the function from Visual Studio. As in my code is : using (SqlConnection conn = GetConnection()) { string query = @"SELECT TOP (12) DATEPART(YEAR, [OrderDate]) AS 'Year', DATEPART(MONTH, [OrderDate]) AS 'Month' , COUNT(OrderRef) AS 'OrderCount' FROM [Order] WHERE [Status] LIKE('PaymentReceived') OR [Status] LIKE ('Shipped') GROUP BY DATEPART(MONTH, [OrderDate]), DATEPART(YEAR, [OrderDate]) ORDER BY DATEPART(YEAR, OrderDate) DESC, DATEPART(MONTH, OrderDate) desc"; SqlCommand command = new SqlCommand(query, conn); command.CommandType = CommandType.Text; using (SqlDataReader reader = command.ExecuteReader()) etc. When I run the statement in MSSQL server, there is no issues. I am currently using MSSQL 2005 express edition, And Visual Studio 2005. I have tried numerous things that are strewn across the web. Including using Convert() and ABS() to no avail. Any help would be much appreciated.

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  • How to use InterfaceInterceptor with NServiceBus UnityBuilder

    - by David
    I have a MessageHandler with a dependency declared as: public IRepository<Person> PersonRepository {get;set;} I set up my Unity container with: IUnityContainer container = new UnityContainer(); container.AddNewExtension<Interception>(); container.RegisterType(typeof(IRepository<Person>), typeof(Example.Data.InMemory.Repository<Person>)); container.Configure<Interception>() .AddPolicy("PersonAddAdvice") .AddMatchingRule(new AddMatchingRule()) .AddCallHandler(new PersonAddedEventPublishingCallHandler()); container.Configure<Interception>() .SetInterceptorFor<IRepository<Person>>(new InterfaceInterceptor()); Then I Init my endpoint with: class EndpointConfig : IConfigureThisEndpoint, AsA_Publisher, IWantCustomInitialization { public void Init() { NServiceBus.Configure.With() .Log4Net() .UnityBuilder(ContainerConfig.LoadContainer()) .XmlSerializer(); } } (ContainerConfig.LoadContainer() returns the pre-configured IUnityContainer) the problem is that the IRepository dependency in my MessageHandler is not resolved (it's null when handling the messages). If I remove the interception configuration from the Unity container, and simply do this: IUnityContainer container = new UnityContainer(); container.RegisterType(typeof(IRepository<Person>), typeof(Example.Data.InMemory.Repository<Person>)); It works as expected, and the MessageHandler has an instance if IRepository resolved.

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  • A problem happened during install the ruby

    - by Alex
    I’m a freshman on Ruby and now trying to install ruby on my machine according to the Tutorial on http://wiki.openqa.org/display/WTR/Tutorial However, after I installed the ruby186-26, and run the command “gem update --system”, the following error occurred: C:\Documents and Settings\e482090\Desktopgem update --system c:/ruby/lib/ruby/site_ruby/1.8/rubygems/config_file.rb:51:in initialize': Inval id argument - <Not Set>/.gemrc (Errno::EINVAL) from c:/ruby/lib/ruby/site_ruby/1.8/rubygems/config_file.rb:51:inopen' from c:/ruby/lib/ruby/site_ruby/1.8/rubygems/config_file.rb:51:in initi alize' from c:/ruby/lib/ruby/site_ruby/1.8/rubygems/gem_runner.rb:36:innew' from c:/ruby/lib/ruby/site_ruby/1.8/rubygems/gem_runner.rb:36:in do_con figuration' from c:/ruby/lib/ruby/site_ruby/1.8/rubygems/gem_runner.rb:25:inrun' from c:/ruby/bin/gem:23 C:\Documents and Settings\e482090\Desktopgem install watir c:/ruby/lib/ruby/site_ruby/1.8/rubygems/config_file.rb:51:in initialize': Inval id argument - <Not Set>/.gemrc (Errno::EINVAL) from c:/ruby/lib/ruby/site_ruby/1.8/rubygems/config_file.rb:51:inopen' from c:/ruby/lib/ruby/site_ruby/1.8/rubygems/config_file.rb:51:in initi alize' from c:/ruby/lib/ruby/site_ruby/1.8/rubygems/gem_runner.rb:36:innew' from c:/ruby/lib/ruby/site_ruby/1.8/rubygems/gem_runner.rb:36:in do_con figuration' from c:/ruby/lib/ruby/site_ruby/1.8/rubygems/gem_runner.rb:25:inrun' from c:/ruby/bin/gem:23 Meanwhile, we have tried this on other machines and the result turned out ok. Thus, my question is why the error happened on my pc? Have you met this kind of error before?

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  • Debugging MinGW program with gdb on Windows, not terminating at assert failure

    - by devil
    How do I set up gdb on window so that it does not allow a program with assertion failure to terminate? I intend to check the stack trace and variables in the program. For example, running this test.cpp program compiled with MinGW 'g++ -g test.cpp -o test' in gdb: #include <cassert> int main(int argc, char ** argv) { assert(1==2); return 0; } Gives: $ gdb test.exe GNU gdb 6.8 Copyright (C) 2008 Free Software Foundation, Inc. License GPLv3+: GNU GPL version 3 or later <http://gnu.org/licenses/gpl.html> This is free software: you are free to change and redistribute it. There is NO WARRANTY, to the extent permitted by law. Type "show copying" and "show warranty" for details. This GDB was configured as "i686-pc-mingw32"... (gdb) r Starting program: f:\code/test.exe [New thread 4616.0x1200] Error: dll starting at 0x77030000 not found. Error: dll starting at 0x75f80000 not found. Error: dll starting at 0x77030000 not found. Error: dll starting at 0x76f30000 not found. Assertion failed: 1==2, file test.cpp, line 2 This application has requested the Runtime to terminate it in an unusual way. Please contact the application's support team for more information. Program exited with code 03. (gdb) I would like to be able to stop the program from terminating immediately, like how Visual Studio's debugger and gdb on Linux does it. I have done a search and found some stuff on trapping signals but I can't seem to find a good post on how to set up gdb to do this.

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  • Routing audio from GSM module to a Bluetooth HandsFree device

    - by Shaihi
    I have a system with the following setup: I use: Windows CE 6 R3 Microsoft's Bluetooth stack including all profiles Motorola H500 The Audio Gateway service is up and running (checked through services list in cmd) GSM Module is functional - I am able to set outgoing calls and to answer calls. Bluetooth is functional - the A2DP profile plays music to Motorola headphones (can't remember the model right now) I want to hold a conversation using a headset device. I have included all Bluetooth components in the catalog. I pair the device using the Control Panel applet. When I press the button on the Motorla device to answer a call I get a print by the Audio Gateway: BTAGSVC: ConnectionEvent. BTAGSVC: SCOListenThread_Int - Connection Event. BTAGSVC: ConnectionEvent. BTAGSVC: SCOListenThread_Int - Connection Event. BTAGSVC: ConnectionEvent. BTAGSVC: A Bluetooth peer device has connected to the Audio Gateway. BTAGSVC: Could not open registry key for BT Addr: 2. BTAGSVC: The peer device was not accepted since the user has never confirmed it as a device to be used. So my questions are as follows: What do I need to do to pair the device with the Audio Gateway? Once my device is paired, do I need to set anything else up? (except for the GSM module of course)

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  • Sometimes Xcode appears to ignore target build settings?

    - by Derek Clarkson
    Hi all, I've created a iPhone static library project with two targets like this Project -- Library (Device) target -- Library (simulator) target The device target has the SDK set to the device so it produces an armv6/7 library and the simulator target is set to the simulator SDK so it produces an i386 library. The issue I'm having is that the SDK settings on the targets keep getting overridden by the XCode active target setting. i.e. if I build the device target, but the XCode window is showing the active SDK as being the simlulator, XCode will build a simulator library instead of a device library, ignoring the settings of the target. Although it will put it into the *-iphoneos/ directory in the build directories! I originally had the same issue with another static library project, and after a lot of playing around got everything to work correctly. i.e. The targets ignore the XCode active SDK because they have their own specifications of what to build. The problem is that I don't know what made it work in that project and I have not been able to reproduce the issue in it either. Does anyone have any ideas as to what is going on? ciao Derek

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  • window.onload seems to trigger before the DOM is loaded (JavaScript)

    - by Dr. Monkey
    I am having trouble with the window.onload and document.onload events. Everything I read tells me these will not trigger until the DOM is fully loaded with all its resources, it seems like this isn't happening for me: I tried the following simple page in Chrome 4.1.249.1036 (41514) and IE 8.0.7600.16385 with the same result: both displayed the message "It failed!", indicating that myParagraph is not loaded (and so the DOM seems incomplete). <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.1//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml11/DTD/xhtml11.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en"> <head> <script type="text/javascript"> window.onload = doThis(); // document.onload gives the same result function doThis() { if (document.getElementById("myParagraph")) { alert("It worked!"); } else { alert("It failed!"); } } </script> </head> <body> <p id="myParagraph">Nothing is here.</p> </body> </html> I am using more complex scripts than this, in an external .js file, but this illustrates the problem. I can get it working by having window.onload set a timer for half a second to run doThis(), but this seems like an inelegant solution, and doesn't answer the question of why window.onload doesn't seem to do what everyone says it does. Another solution would be to set a timer that will check if the DOM is loaded, and if not it will just call itself half a second later (so it will keep checking until the DOM is loaded), but this seems overly complex to me. Is there a more appropriate event to use?

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  • TinyMCE Image Alignment

    - by will.earp.co.uk
    TinyMCE has always been a little difficult to align images. Either the align tag, or adding style="float: left;" has been it solution. Ideally I would just like to add class="left" or class="right" so that I can set the border and margins of the image. Up until now the only way to do this without using the advimage plugin was to insert the image, then select it, the select a style from the style menu. Ideally I should be able to use the align control in the image dialogue to set the alignment class or use the alignment controls on the toolbar when in the main editing window. I have just again started looking at a solution to this, now that IE6 is finally starting to die, I can use CSS attributes in selectors, so IMG[style="float: left;"] {} Works, but I would rather use a class incase there are any other style attributes which will cause the selector to fail. And it doesn't work in IE6, and you know some corporate clients will still be running the bloody thing! So I looked through the TinyMCE documentation and found the formats configuration option, that seems to allow you to specify how tinyMCE applies code for various operations. Here I can add the IMG tag as a selector, and have classes: "left" for the alignleft function. This applies the class correctly when the alignment is selected from the toolbar, but it still writes an inline style when the alignment is selected through the image dialogue. Am I doing something wrong or is there a better way of doing this that will allow my clients to select image alignment from both the image dialogue and the toolbar, whilst applying a class to the image?

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