Search Results

Search found 3923 results on 157 pages for 'confused about webdav'.

Page 124/157 | < Previous Page | 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131  | Next Page >

  • Rails 2.3 session

    - by Sam Kong
    Hi, I am developing a rails 2.3.2 app. I need to keep session_id for an order record, retrieve it and finally delete the session_id when the order is completed. It worked when I used cookies as session store but it doesn't for active_record store. (I restarted my browser, so no cache issue.) I know rails 2.3 implements lazy session load. I read some info about it but am still confused. Can somebody clarify how I use session_id for such a case? What I am doing is... A user make an order going through several pages. There is no sign-up, neither login. So I keep session_id in the order record so that no other user can access the order. @order = Order.last :conditions = {:id = params[:id], :session_id = session[:session_id] } When the order is finished, I set nil to session_id column. How would you implement such a case in lazy session(and active_record store) environment? Thanks. Sam

    Read the article

  • Linq to XML Document Traversal

    - by Perpetualcoder
    I have an xml document like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <demographics> <country id="1" value="USA"> <state id ="1" value="California"> <city>Long Beach</city> <city>Los Angeles</city> <city>San Diego</city> </state> <state id ="2" value="Arizona"> <city>Tucson</city> <city>Phoenix</city> <city>Tempe</city> </state> </country> <country id="2" value="Mexico"> <state id ="1" value="Baja California"> <city>Tijuana</city> <city>Rosarito</city> </state> </country> </demographics> How do I setup LINQ queries for doing things like: 1. Get All Countries 2. Get All States in a Country 3. Get All Cities inside a state of a paricular country ? I gave it a try and I am kind of confused when to use Elements["NodeName"] and Descendants etc. I know I am not the brightest XML guy around. Is the format of the XML file even correct for simple traversal?

    Read the article

  • x86_64 printf segfault after brk call

    - by gmb11
    While i was trying do use brk (int 0x80 with 45 in %rax) to implement a simple memory manager program in assembly and print the blocks in order, i kept getting segfault. After a while i could only reproduce the error, but have no idea why is this happening: .section .data helloworld: .ascii "hello world" .section .text .globl _start _start: push %rbp mov %rsp, %rbp movq $45, %rax movq $0, %rbx #brk(0) should just return the current break of the programm int $0x80 #incq %rax #segfault #addq $1, %rax #segfault movq $0, %rax #works fine? #addq $1, %rax #segfault again? movq $helloworld, %rdi call printf movq $1, %rax #exit int $0x80 In the example here, if the commented lines are uncommented, i have a segfault, but some commands (like de movq $0, %rax) work just fine. In my other program, the first couple printf work, but the third crashes... Looking for other questions, i heard that printf sometimes allocates some memory, and that the brk shouldn't be used, because in this case it corrupts the heap or something... I'm very confused, does anyone know something about that? EDIT: I've just found out that for printf to work you need %rax=0.

    Read the article

  • Why Finalize method not allowed to override

    - by somaraj
    I am new to .net ..and i am confused with the destructor mechanism in C# ..please clarify In C# destructors are converted to finalize method by CLR. If we try to override it (not using destructor ) , will get an error Error 2 Do not override object.Finalize. Instead, provide a destructor. But it seems that the Object calss implementation in mscorlib.dll has finalize defined as protected override void Finalize(){} , then why cant we override it , that what virtual function for . Why is the design like that , is it to be consistent with c++ destructor concept. Also when we go to the definition of the object class , there is no mention of the finalize method , then how does the hmscorlib.dll definition shows the finalize funtion . Does it mean that the default destructor is converted to finalize method. public class Object { public Object(); public virtual bool Equals(object obj); public static bool Equals(object objA, object objB); public virtual int GetHashCode(); public Type GetType(); protected object MemberwiseClone(); public static bool ReferenceEquals(object objA, object objB); public virtual string ToString(); }

    Read the article

  • In .NET, Why Can I Access Private Members of a Class Instance within the Class?

    - by AMissico
    While cleaning some code today written by someone else, I changed the access modifier from Public to Private on a class variable/member/field. I expected a long list of compiler errors that I use to "refactor/rework/review" the code that used this variable. Imagine my surprise when I didn't get any errors. After reviewing, it turns out that another instance of the Class can access the private members of another instance declared within the Class. Totally unexcepted. Is this normal? I been coding in .NET since the beginning and never ran into this issue, nor read about it. I may have stumbled onto it before, but only "vaguely noticed" and move on. Can anyone explain this behavoir to me? I would like to know the "why" I can do this. Please explain, don't just tell me the rule. Am I doing something wrong? I found this behavior in both C# and VB.NET. The code seems to take advantage of the ability to access private variables. Sincerely, Totally Confused Class Jack Private _int As Integer End Class Class Foo Public Property Value() As Integer Get Return _int End Get Set(ByVal value As Integer) _int = value * 2 End Set End Property Private _int As Integer Private _foo As Foo Private _jack As Jack Private _fred As Fred Public Sub SetPrivate() _foo = New Foo _foo.Value = 4 'what you would expect to do because _int is private _foo._int = 3 'TOTALLY UNEXPECTED _jack = New Jack '_jack._int = 3 'expected compile error _fred = New Fred '_fred._int = 3 'expected compile error End Sub Private Class Fred Private _int As Integer End Class End Class

    Read the article

  • How do I setup NInject? (I'm getting can't resolve "Bind", in the line "Bind<IWeapon>().To<Sword>()

    - by Greg
    Hi, I'm getting confused in the doco how I should be setting up Ninject. I'm seeing different ways of doing it, some v2 versus v1 confusion probably included... Question - What is the best way in my WinForms application to set things up for NInject (i.e. what are the few lines of code required). I'm assuming this would go into the MainForm Load method. In other words what code do I have to have prior to getting to: Bind<IWeapon>().To<Sword>(); I have the following code, so effectively I just want to get clarification on the setup and bind code that would be required in my MainForm.Load() to end up with a concrete Samurai instance? internal interface IWeapon { void Hit(string target); } class Sword : IWeapon { public void Hit(string target) { Console.WriteLine("Chopped {0} clean in half", target); } } class Samurai { private IWeapon _weapon; [Inject] public Samurai(IWeapon weapon) { _weapon = weapon; } public void Attack(string target) { _weapon.Hit(target); } } thanks PS. I've tried the following code, however I can't resolve the "Bind". Where does this come from? what DLL or "using" statement would I be missing? private void MainForm_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { Bind<IWeapon>().To<Sword>(); // <== *** CAN NOT RESOLVE Bind *** IKernel kernel = new StandardKernel(); var samurai = kernel.Get<Samurai>();

    Read the article

  • Should this even be a has_many :through association?

    - by GoodGets
    A Post belongs_to a User, and a User has_many Posts. A Post also belongs_to a Topic, and a Topic has_many Posts. class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :posts end class Topic < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :posts end class Post < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user belongs_to :topic end Well, that's pretty simple and very easy to set up, but when I display a Topic, I not only want all of the Posts for that Topic, but also the user_name and the user_photo of the User that made that Post. However, those attributes are stored in the User model and not tied to the Topic. So how would I go about setting that up? Maybe it can already be called since the Post model has two foreign keys, one for the User and one for the Topic? Or, maybe this is some sort of "one-way" has_many through assiociation. Like the Post would be the join model, and a Topic would has_many :users, :through = :posts. But the reverse of this is not true. Like a User does NOT has_many :topics. So would this even need to be has_many :though association? I guess I'm just a little confused on what the controller would look like to call both the Post and the User of that Post for a give Topic. Edit: Seriously, thank you to all that weighed in. I chose tal's answer because I used his code for my controller; however, I could have just as easily chosen either j.'s or tim's instead. Thank you both as well. This was so damn simple to implement, and I think today marks the day that I'm beginning to fall in love with rails.

    Read the article

  • What's the most concise cross-browser way to access an <iframe> element's window and document?

    - by Bungle
    I'm trying to figure out the best way to access an <iframe> element's window and document properties from a parent page. The <iframe> may be created via JavaScript or accessed via a reference stored in an object property or a variable, so, if I understand correctly, that rules out the use of document.frames. I've seen this done a number of ways, but I'm unsure about the best approach. Given an <iframe> created in this way: var iframe = document.createElement('iframe'); document.getElementsByTagName('body')[0].appendChild(iframe); I'm currently using this to access the document, and it seems to work OK across the major browsers: var doc = iframe.contentWindow || iframe.contentDocument; if (doc.document) { doc = doc.document; } I've also see this approach: var iframe = document.getElementById('my_iframe'); iframe = (iframe.contentWindow) ? iframe.contentWindow : (iframe.contentDocument.document) ? iframe.contentDocument.document : iframe.contentDocument; iframe.document.open(); iframe.document.write('Hello World!'); iframe.document.close(); That confuses me, since it seems that if iframe.contentDocument.document is defined, you're going to end up trying to access iframe.contentDocument.document.document. There's also this: var frame_ref = document.getElementsByTagName('iframe')[0]; var iframe_doc = frame_ref.contentWindow ? frame_ref.contentWindow.document : frame_ref.contentDocument; In the end, I guess I'm confused as to which properties hold which properties, whether contentDocument is equivalent to document or whether there is such a property as contentDocument.document, etc. Can anyone point me to an accurate/timely reference on these properties, or give a quick briefing on how to efficiently access an <iframe>'s window and document properties in a cross-browser way (without the use of jQuery or other libraries)? Thanks for any help!

    Read the article

  • How do I label a group of radio boxes for WCAG / 508 Compliance? Is ASP.NET doing it wrong?

    - by Mark Brittingham
    I am trying to bring an existing web site into greater conformance with WCAG 2.0 Guidelines and am a bit confused over the output emitted by Microsoft (ASP.NET 4.0 although it was the same in 3.5). Suppose you have a question like: "How would you rate your health?" and a set of 5 answers created using an ASP.NET RadioButtonList. I place the question in an asp:Label with an "AssociatedControlID" that matches the ID of the RadioButtonList (e.g. "SelfRatingBox"). Seems pretty easy... Only the output that is generated has an html "label" with a "For" that is equal to the ID of a table that wraps up the RadioButtons. I assumed that this would work with page readers but our 508 compliance guy is saying that the reader isn't associating the label with the radio controls. The WCAG guidelines indicate that you have to use a fieldset around the entire group and a legend to capture the associated text (the question). So what gives? It would be ideal if MS could take my label and the radiobuttonlist and generate the appropriate fieldset and legend tags but it seems pretty clear that to achieve WCAG compliance, I'll have to roll my own. Is this correct or am I missing something?

    Read the article

  • How reliable is DateTime.UtcNow in Silverlight applications?

    - by Edward Tanguay
    I have a silverlight application which users will be running in various time zones. These applications load their data from the server upon start up, then cache it in IsolatedStorage. When I make changes to the data on the server, I want to be able to change the "last updated time" so that all silverlight clients download the newest data the next time they check this date. However, I'm a bit confused as to how to handle the time zone issue since a if the server is in New York and the update time is set to 2010-01-01 17:00:00 and a client in Seattle checks compares it to its local time of 2010-01-01 14:00:00 it won't update and will continue to provide old data for three more hours. My solution is to always post the update time in UTC time, not with the time on the server, then make the Silverlight app check with DateTime.UtcNow. Is this as easy as it sounds or are their issues with this, e.g. that timezones are not set correctly on computers and hence the SilverlightApp does not report the correct UTC time. Can anyone say from experience how likely it is that using DateTime.UtcNow like this for cache refreshing will work in all cases? If DateTime.UtcNow is not reliable, I will just use an incremented "DataVersion" integer but there are other scenarios in which getting time zone sychronization down would make it useful to thoroughly understand how to solve this in silverlight apps.

    Read the article

  • Javascript: prototypal inheritance and the prototype property

    - by JanD
    Hi, I have a simple code fragment in JS working with prototype inheritance. function object(o) { function F() {} F.prototype = o; return new F(); } //the following code block has a alternate version var mammal = { color: "brown", getColor: function() { return this.color; } } var myCat = object(mammal); myCat.meow = function(){return "meow";} that worked fine but adding this: mammal.prototype.kindOf = "predator"; does not. ("mammal.prototype is undefined") Since I guessed that object maybe have no prototype I rewrote it, replacing the var mammal={... block with: function mammal() { this.color = "brown"; this.getColor = function() { return this.color; } } which gave me a bunch of other errors: "Function.prototype.toString called on incompatible object" and if I try to call _myCat.getColor() "myCat.getColor is not a function" Now I am totally confused. After reading Crockford, and Flanagan I did not get the solution for the errors. So it would be great if somebody knows... - why is the prototype undefined in the first example (which is foremost concern; I thought the prototype of explicitly set in the object() function) - why get I these strange errors trying to use the mammal function as prototype object in the object() function? Edit by the Creator of the Question: These two links helped a lot too: Prototypes_in_JavaScript on the spheredev wiki explains the way the prototype property works relativily simple. What it lacks is some try-out code examples. Some good examples are provided by Morris John's Article. I personally find the explanations are not that easy as in the first link, but still very good. The most difficult part even after I actually got it is really not to confuse the .prototype propery with the internal [[Prototype]] of an object.

    Read the article

  • Why isn't UIScrollView always calling viewDidLoad on subviews?

    - by Rob S.
    I'm a bit confused on the behaviour of UIScrollView as it pertains to subview loading. In my app, I lazily load subviews into my scroller. Most of the time, -viewDidLoad is called on the subview immediately after adding it the UIScrollView. There is one scenario where it isn't being called. At the 'end' of my scroll view I have a "please wait" view. When it is fully scrolled on to the page, it fades out, I add the subview and -viewDidLoad is not called. In this case, when I remove the last subview and add another subview, I get nothing. I've tried [scrollView setNeedsDisplay] and [scrollView setNeedsLayout] to no avail. I've also sent the same messages to the view I just added - no dice. Does anyone have any insight here? Many people have many questions about -viewDidLoad and I haven't been able to find one related to direct subviews inside of a scrollview. Or I have and I haven't realized it :) Thanks in advance! Rob

    Read the article

  • PHP site keeps opening to blank page, no errors.

    - by gene
    First, the premises: PHP loaded on IIS6 on Win2003 STD R2 SP2, PHP_5213 using FastCGI, MySQL_5145. Customer sent me the site files, which I unzipped to C:\InetPub\wwwroot\<site root>, then I created a new site in IIS, pointed to <site root>, added test.php to the site files for testing and it works, but visiting index.php produces a blank page with no errors. The readme.txt file present makes reference to application.php and explains root folder var and sets it to a non-existent file. I don't know PHP syntax, but I tried several logical changes with zero results. At this point I'm not even sure if that is the problem anymore. With PHP, MySQL & site debugging have put in over 20 hours. Still confused, I have resorted to heavy drug use and purchased a small firearm, loaded with a single round (even this seemed to take an inordinate amount of time). I've given up all hope. Someone please help save a new server and/or old administrator.

    Read the article

  • Javascript scope chain

    - by Geromey
    Hi, I am trying to optimize my program. I think I understand the basics of closure. I am confused about the scope chain though. I know that in general you want a low scope (to access variables quickly). Say I have the following object: var my_object = (function(){ //private variables var a_private = 0; return{ //public //public variables a_public : 1, //public methods some_public : function(){ debugger; alert(this.a_public); alert(a_private); }; }; })(); My understanding is that if I am in the some_public method I can access the private variables faster than the public ones. Is this correct? My confusion comes with the scope level of this. When the code is stopped at debugger, firebug shows the public variable inside the this keyword. The this word is not inside a scope level. How fast is accessing this? Right now I am storing any this.properties as another local variable to avoid accessing it multiple times. Thanks very much!

    Read the article

  • How to scan an array for certain information

    - by Andrew Martin
    I've been doing an MSc Software Development conversion course, the main language of which is Java, since the end of September. We have our first assessed practical coming and I was hoping for some guidance. We have to create an array that will store 100 integers (all of which are between 1 and 10), which are generated by a random number generator, and then print out ten numbers of this array per line. For the second part, we need to scan these integers, count up how often each number appears and store the results in a second array. I've done the first bit okay, but I'm confused about how to do the second. I have been looking through the scanner class to see if it has any methods which I could use, but I don't see any. Could anyone point me in the right direction - not the answer, but perhaps which library it comes from? Code so far: import java.util.Random; public class Practical4_Assessed { public static void main(String[] args) { Random numberGenerator = new Random (); int[] arrayOfGenerator = new int[100]; for (int countOfGenerator = 0; countOfGenerator < 100; countOfGenerator++) arrayOfGenerator[countOfGenerator] = numberGenerator.nextInt(10); int countOfNumbersOnLine = 0; for (int countOfOutput = 0; countOfOutput < 100; countOfOutput++) { if (countOfNumbersOnLine == 10) { System.out.println(""); countOfNumbersOnLine = 0; countOfOutput--; } else { System.out.print(arrayOfGenerator[countOfOutput] + " "); countOfNumbersOnLine++; } } } } Thanks, Andrew

    Read the article

  • How to use a linkedList and multiple classes with my Java GUI

    - by Asj
    How should I use a linked list with my GUI program? The program is supposed to have blocks with textareas and dropdown menus. The number of blocks depends on the number of times the user presses a button. It's supposed to be possible to put blocks within blocks. I want to store the information created, using a linked list and then saving to a file. I'm thinking, for the sub blocks, there would be linked lists within the linked list. Should I use Java.util.LinkedList? How do I add the information? A Node class? Should that be in a separate file? I started to try sitting up a linked list, but it's getting me confused. I'm still unsure about how a person is supposed to make GUI's. I've only seen really simple GUI's. Can anyone tell me how I should arrange things? At the moment, I have three files, one for the main GUI window, one for the question blocks to be inserted within that, and one for some tools to use within those two files to make the code easier to understand. But, there seems to be something wrong with the question block file, because I've been making the background white for each JPanel, and there's a gray outline around the question blocks when I run the program. I probably shouldn't paste a ton of code here... These are my files: http://asj127.webs.com/BuildAssessmentWindow.java http://asj127.webs.com/QuestionBlock.java http://asj127.webs.com/JPanelTools.java

    Read the article

  • jQuery Validation error...

    - by Povylas
    Hi, I have been struggling with this jQuery Validation Plugin. Here is the code: <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { var validator = $('#signup').validate({ errorElement: 'span', rules: { username: { required: true, minlenght: 6 //remote: "check-username.php" }, password: { required: true, minlength: 5 }, confirm_password: { required: true, minlength: 5, equalTo: "#password" }, email: { required: true, email: true }, agree: "required" }, messages: { username: { required: "Please enter a username", minlength: "Your username must consist of at least 6 characters" //remote: "Somenoe have already chosen nick like this." }, password: { required: "Please provide a password", minlength: "Your password must be at least 5 characters long" }, confirm_password: { required: "Please provide a password", minlength: "Your password must be at least 5 characters long", equalTo: "Please enter the same password as above" }, email: "Please enter a valid email address", agree: "Please accept our policy" } }); var root = $("#wizard").scrollable({size: 1, clickable: false}); // some variables that we need var api = root.scrollable(); $("#data").click(function() { validator.form(); }); // validation logic is done inside the onBeforeSeek callback api.onBeforeSeek(function(event, i) { if($("#signup").valid() == false){ return false; }else{ return true; } $("#status li").removeClass("active").eq(i).addClass("active"); }); //if tab is pressed on the next button seek to next page root.find("button.next").keydown(function(e) { if (e.keyCode == 9) { // seeks to next tab by executing our validation routine api.next(); e.preventDefault(); } }); $('button.fin').click(function(){ parent.$.fn.fancybox.close() }); }); </script> And here is the error: $.validator.methods[method] is undefined http://www.vvv.vhost.lt/js/jquery-validate/jquery.validate.min.js Line 15 I am completely confused... Maybe some kind of handler is needed? I would be grateful for any kind of answer.

    Read the article

  • Reading UTF-8 XML and writing it to a file with Python

    - by Harri
    I'm trying to parse UTF-8 XML file and save some parts of it to another file. Problem is, that this is my first Python script ever and I'm totally confused about the character encoding problems I'm finding. My script fails immediately when it tries to write non-ascii character to a file, but it can print it to command prompt (at least in some level) Here's the XML (from the parts that matter at least, it's a *.resx file which contains UI strings) <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <root> <resheader name="foo"> <value>bar</value> </resheader> <data name="lorem" xml:space="preserve"> <value>ipsum öä</value> </data> </root> And here's my python script from xml.dom.minidom import parse names = [] values = [] def getStrings(path): dom = parse(path) data = dom.getElementsByTagName("data") for i in range(len(data)): name = data[i].getAttribute("name") names.append(name) value = data[i].getElementsByTagName("value") values.append(value[0].firstChild.nodeValue.encode("utf-8")) def writeToFile(): with open("uiStrings-fi.py", "w") as f: for i in range(len(names)): line = names[i] + '="'+ values[i] + '"' #varName='varValue' f.write(line) f.write("\n") getStrings("ResourceFile.fi-FI.resx") writeToFile() And here's the traceback: Traceback (most recent call last): File "GenerateLanguageFiles.py", line 24, in writeToFile() File "GenerateLanguageFiles.py", line 19, in writeToFile line = names[i] + '="'+ values[i] + '"' #varName='varValue' UnicodeDecodeError: 'ascii' codec can't decode byte 0xc3 in position 2: ordinal not in ran ge(128) How should I fix my script so it would read and write UTF-8 characters properly? The files I'm trying to generate would be used in test automation with Robots Framework.

    Read the article

  • A simple WCF Service (POX) without complex serialization

    - by jammer59
    I'm a complete WCF novice. I'm trying to build a deploy a very, very simple IIS 7.0 hosted web service. For reasons outside of my control it must be WCF and not ASMX. It's a wrapper service for a pre-existing web application that simply does the following: 1) Receives a POST request with the request body XML-encapsulated form elements. Something like valuevalue. This is untyped XML and the XML is atomic (a form) and not a list of records/objects. 2) Add a couple of tags to the request XML and the invoke another HTTP-based service with a simple POST + bare XML -- this will actually be added by some internal SQL ops but that isn't the issue. 3) Receive the XML response from the 3rd party service and relay it as the response to the original calling client in Step 1. The clients (step 1) will be some sort of web-based scripting but could be anything .aspx, python, php, etc. I can't have SOAP and the usual WCF-based REST examples with their contracts and serialization have me confused. This seems like a very common and very simple problem conceptually. It would be easy to implement in code but IIS-hosted WCF is a requirement. Any pointers?

    Read the article

  • using jquery growl with php/mysql

    - by jeansymolanza
    on my database i am planning to create a table storing messages to alert users of anything they need to do. i am looking at using a jQuery growl like notification method but im confused at how i would begin building it. the data would be added into the database using the standard MYSQL insert method from a form but how would i select messages from the database to display using the jQuery growl. would this require the use of ajax? this is the javascript code i have so far, i was wondering how i would implement the php code alongside it so that i can pull out data from my tables to display as notifications: <script type="text/javascript"> // In case you don't have firebug... if (!window.console || !console.firebug) { var names = ["log", "debug", "info", "warn", "error", "assert", "dir", "dirxml", "group", "groupEnd", "time", "timeEnd", "count", "trace", "profile", "profileEnd"]; window.console = {}; for (var i = 0; i < names.length; ++i) window.console[names[i]] = function() {}; } (function($){ $(document).ready(function(){ // This specifies how many messages can be pooled out at any given time. // If there are more notifications raised then the pool, the others are // placed into queue and rendered after the other have disapeared. $.jGrowl.defaults.pool = 5; var i = 1; var y = 1; setInterval( function() { if ( i < 3 ) { $.jGrowl("Message " + i, { sticky: true, log: function() { console.log("Creating message " + i + "..."); }, beforeOpen: function() { console.log("Rendering message " + y + "..."); y++; } }); } i++; } , 1000 ); }); })(jQuery); </script> <p> thanking you in advance and God bless

    Read the article

  • Need some help/advice on WCF Per-Call Service and NServiceBus interop.

    - by Alexey
    I have WCF Per-Call service wich provides data for clients and at the same time is integrated with NServiceBus. All statefull objects are stored in UnityContainer wich is integrated into custom service host. NServiceBus is configured in service host and uses same container as service instances. Every client has its own instance context(described by Juval Lowy in his book in chapter about Durable Services). If i need to send request over bus I just use some kind of dispatcher and wait response using Thread.Sleep().Since services are per-call this is ok afaik. But I am confused a bit about messages from bus, that service must handle and provide them to clients. For some data like stock quotes I just update some kind of statefull object and and then, when clients invoke GetQuotesData() just provide data from this object. But there are numerous service messages like new quote added and etc. At this moment I have an idea to implement something like "Postman daemon" =)) and store this type of messages in instance context. Then client will invoke "GetMail()",recieve those messages and parse them. Problem is that NServiceBus messages are "Interface based" and I cant pass them over WCF, so I need to convert them to types derieved from some abstract class. Dunno what is best way to handle this situation. Will be very gratefull for any advice on this. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • What is the difference between cubes and the Unified Dimensional Model (if any)?

    - by ngm
    I'm currently researching SQL Server 2008 as a business intelligence solution, and currently looking at Analysis Services (and I'm pretty new to business intelligence as a whole...) I'm a bit confused by some of the terms in SSAS, particularly the conceptual differences between cubes and MS's Unified Dimensional Model. I believe that a cube in SSAS is basically an OLAP cube -- dimensions, measures, something that sits between the underlying data source and a business user. But then that's kind of what I understand UDM to be as well. The docs for SQL Server 2005 seem to suggest as much: "A cube is essentially synonymous with a Unified Dimensional Model (UDM)". But then the SQL Server 2008 pages sort of suggest that UDM is a wrapper for both multidimensional data (cubes) and relational data: "Use the Unified Dimensional Model to provide one consolidated business view for relational and multidimensional data that includes business entities, business logic, calculations, and metrics." This blog post suggests similarly: "UDM provides a single dimensional model for all OLAP analysis and relational reporting needs. So you can use either MDX or SQL" Is UDM something that sits above cubes? Or are they the same thing? I presume I would develop cubes with the Cube Designer application; what would I develop a UDM with?

    Read the article

  • SD card initialization SPI

    - by Openavr
    Hi People I saw a lot of infos about MMC/SD cards and I tried to make a lib to read this.. (modifying the Procyon Avrlib) But I have some problems here. I Don´t change the original code and tried here. My problem is about the init of SD card. I have 2 here, a 256mb and another 1GB. I send the init commands like this order: CMD0, CMD55, ACMD41, CMD1 But SD 256mb returns me only 0x01 response for each command.. the CMD1 i send a lot of times, SD 256mb always returs only 0x01.. never 0x00. The SD 1GB is more crazy... CMD0 returns with 0x01 ..nice but the CMD55 response with 0x05... another times responde with 0xC1... and another ones response 0xF0 with a 0x5F in the next interation... Around internet have infos and examples, but a bit of confused. Here in my project, I must use 1GB card and I´m trying with a MicroSD with a SD Adapter (I think that this is not the problem). Please any help are apreciate! Regards PS - my problem like the problem from this guy http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2365897/initializing-sd-card-in-spi-issues but his solution don´t solved my problem.. The SD1GB returns only 0x01 ever... :cry:

    Read the article

  • a facebook app question

    - by Robert
    I have written a small app and put it on facebook. I got an application ID and secret. Then I wrote the following script to access my app (just as told on the facebook page). <?php require './src/facebook.php'; $facebook = new Facebook(array( 'appId' => 'xxxx', 'secret' => 'xxxx', 'cookie' => true, // enable optional cookie support )); try { $me = $facebook->api('/me'); } catch (FacebookApiException $e) { error_log($e); } if ($facebook->getSession()) { echo '<a href="' . $facebook->getLogoutUrl() . '">Logout</a>'; } else { echo '<a href="' . $facebook->getLoginUrl() . '">Login</a>'; } ?> Then I started running this script. It prompted me with the login link, then took me to the facebook login page. However, after I enter my facebook login details, I get this error page: Error. API Error Code: 100 API Error Description: Invalid parameter Error Message: next is not owned by the application. Could anyone help me a little bit please, I am really confused here about what's going on.

    Read the article

  • model view controller question

    - by songBong
    Hi, I've been working on my iphone game recently and came across a forked road when deciding the design of my various classes. So far I've adhered to the MVC pattern but the following situation had me confused: I have 4 buttons displayed visually. Each button though consists of a container UIView (which I've subclassed) and 2 UIButtons (also subclassed) as subviews. When you press a button, it does the flip effect plus other stuff. The user input is using target-action from my container UIView to my controller. This part is ok, the following part is the debatable part: So I've subclassed the container view as well as the UIButtons and I need to add more data/methods (somewhere) to do more things. Putting data that needs to be serialized and non-rendering related code in the view classes seems to break the MVC design but at the moment, it makes the most sense to me to put it there. It's almost like my subclassed views are their own little MVC's and it seems neat. Separating out the data/methods from the view to my main controller in this case seems unnecessary and a more work. How should I be doing it? Thanks heaps.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131  | Next Page >