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• Is it possible to embed a flash player in a table and retain the table properties

  - by user1494241

  I'd like to embed a music (flash) player in a table with clickable images but the embed code seems to throw the table properties off - it extends the width of the table. Is it possible to embed the player on the same row as the image whilst still retaining the table width? Here's what I've been using: <table width="620" border="0" cellspacing="0" cellpadding="0"> <tr> <td> <div align="left"><object height="18" width="100%"> <param name="movie" value="https://player.soundcloud.com/player.swf?url=http%3A%2F%2Fapi.soundcloud.com%2Fplaylists%2F1253725&amp;auto_play=false&amp;player_type=tiny&amp;font=Georgia&amp;color=9a6600&show_playcount=false&default_width=375&default_height=40&show_user=false"></param> <param name="allowscriptaccess" value="always"></param> <param name="wmode" value="transparent"></param><embed wmode="transparent" allowscriptaccess="always" height="18" src="https://player.soundcloud.com/player.swf?url=http%3A%2F%2Fapi.soundcloud.com%2Fplaylists%2F1253725&amp;auto_play=false&amp;player_type=tiny&amp;font=Georgia&amp;color=9a6600&show_playcount=false&default_width=375&default_height=40&show_user=false" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" width="100%"></embed> </object> </td> <td> <div align="right"><img src="http://dl.dropbox.com/u/31856944/Virb/splash_freedownload-2.png" border="0" width="245" height="42" usemap="#Map" /></div> </td> <tr> <td> <div align="right"><img src="http://dl.dropbox.com/u/31856944/Virb/splash_share-2.png" border="0" width="620" height="31" usemap="#Map2" /></div> </td> </tr> </table>

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• Laravel4: Call to a member function on a non-object

  - by s0hno

  The following code will throw an error Call to a member function `links()` on a non-object routes.php: Route::get('videos', function(){ $data = DB::table('video_data_r')->paginate(5); return View::make('video',$data); }); Corresponding video view: <?php foreach($data as $item): ?> <div class="video_entry"> <a href="<?php echo $item -> url; ?>" target="_blank"><img src="<?php echo $item -> thumb; ?>" /></a> <a href="<?php echo $item -> url; ?>" target="_blank"><?php echo $item -> title; ?>"</a> </div> <?php endforeach; ?> <?php echo $data->links();?> Could you give me a good hint on what looks like a trivial error?

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• In Varnish, how can I read the Set-Cookie response header?

  - by Adam Friedman

  I am trying to detect if my application has set a cookie that holds an "alert message" for the user on the next page, where the Javascript displays it if detected. In my vcl_fetch(), I need to detect if the specific cookie value "alert_message" appears anywhere in the Set-Cookie header (presumably in the VCL variable beresp.http.Set-Cookie). If detected, then I do not want to cache that next page (since Varnish strips the Set-Cookie header by default, which would obliterate the alert message before it makes it back to the browser). So here is my simple test: if(beresp.http.Set-Cookie ~ "alert_message") { set req.http.no_cache = 1; } Strangely, it fails to evaluate to true. So I throw the variable into the Server header to see what it looks like: set beresp.http.Server = " MyApp Varnish implementation - test reading set-cookie: "+beresp.http.Set-Cookie; But for some reason this only displays the FIRST Set-Cookie line in the response headers. Here are the relevant response headers: Server: MyApp Varnish implementation - test reading cookie: elstats_session=7d7279kjmsnkel31lre3s0vu24; expires=Wed, 10-Oct-2012 00:03:32 GMT; path=/; HttpOnly Set-Cookie:app_session=7d7279kjmsnkel31lre3s0vu24; expires=Wed, 10-Oct-2012 00:03:32 GMT; path=/; HttpOnly Set-Cookie:alert_message=Too+many+results.; expires=Tue, 09-Oct-2012 20:13:32 GMT; path=/; domain=.my.app.com Set-Cookie:alert_key=flash_error; expires=Tue, 09-Oct-2012 20:13:32 GMT; path=/; domain=.my.app.com Vary:Accept-Encoding How do I read and run string detection on ALL Set-Cookie header lines?

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• caching images that are retrieved

  - by Rahul Varma

  Hi, I am retrieving a list of images and text from a web service. The images are getting displayed in the list view. But the problem is, when i scroll down the list the entire images are getting loaded once again. When i scroll twice or thrice there is a OutofMemory occuring... Can anyone tell me how to cache the images and also to avoid the loading of the images that are already loaded when i scroll down. I have tried to increase inSampleSize but it didnt work... Here's the code.... public static Bitmap loadImageFromUrl(String url) { InputStream inputStream; Bitmap b; try { inputStream = (InputStream) new URL(url).getContent(); BitmapFactory.Options bpo= new BitmapFactory.Options(); b=BitmapFactory.decodeStream(inputStream, null,bpo ); b.recycle(); bpo.inSampleSize=2; return b; } catch (IOException e) { throw new RuntimeException(e); } // return null; }

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• Core Data: migrating entities with self-referential properties

  - by Dan

  My Core Data model contains an entity, Shape, that has two self-referential relationships, which means four properties. One pair is a one-to-many relationship (Shape.containedBy <- Shape.contains) and the another is a many-to-many relationship (Shape.nextShapes <<- Shape.previousShapes). It all works perfectly in the application, so I don't think self-referencing relationships is a problem in general. However, when it comes to migrating the model to a new version, then Xcode fails to compile the automatically generated mapping model, with this error message: 2009-10-30 17:10:09.387 mapc[18619:607] *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: 'Unable to parse the format string "FUNCTION($manager ,'destinationInstancesForSourceRelationshipNamed:sourceInstances:' , 'contains' , $source.contains) == 1"' *** Call stack at first throw: ( 0 CoreFoundation 0x00007fff80d735a4 __exceptionPreprocess + 180 1 libobjc.A.dylib 0x00007fff83f0a313 objc_exception_throw + 45 2 Foundation 0x00007fff819bc8d4 _qfqp2_performParsing + 8412 3 Foundation 0x00007fff819ba79d +[NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:arguments:] + 59 4 Foundation 0x00007fff81a482ef +[NSExpression expressionWithFormat:arguments:] + 68 5 Foundation 0x00007fff81a48843 +[NSExpression expressionWithFormat:] + 155 6 XDBase 0x0000000100038e94 -[XDDevRelationshipMapping valueExpressionAsString] + 260 7 XDBase 0x000000010003ae5c -[XDMappingCompilerSupport generateCompileResultForMappingModel:] + 2828 8 XDBase 0x000000010003b135 -[XDMappingCompilerSupport compileSourcePath:options:] + 309 9 mapc 0x0000000100001a1c 0x0 + 4294973980 10 mapc 0x0000000100001794 0x0 + 4294973332 ) terminate called after throwing an instance of 'NSException' Command /Developer/usr/bin/mapc failed with exit code 6 The 'contains' is the name of one of the self-referential properties. Anyway, the really big problem is that I can't even look at this Mapping Property as Xcode crashes as soon as I select the entity mapping when viewing the mapping model. So I'm a bit lost really where to go from here. I really can't remove the self-referential properties, so I'm thinking I've got manually create a mapping model that compiles? Any ideas? Cheers

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• Why can't I display a unicode character in the Python Interpreter on Mac OS X Terminal.app?

  - by apphacker

  If I try to paste a unicode character such as the middle dot: · in my python interpreter it does nothing. I'm using Terminal.app on Mac OS X and when I'm simply in in bash I have no trouble: :~$ · But in the interpreter: :~$ python Python 2.6.1 (r261:67515, Feb 11 2010, 00:51:29) [GCC 4.2.1 (Apple Inc. build 5646)] on darwin Type "help", "copyright", "credits" or "license" for more information. >>> ^^ I get nothing, it just ignores that I just pasted the character. If I use the escape \xNN\xNN representation of the middle dot '\xc2\xb7', and try to convert to unicode, trying to show the dot causes the interpreter to throw an error: >>> unicode('\xc2\xb7') Traceback (most recent call last): File "<stdin>", line 1, in <module> UnicodeDecodeError: 'ascii' codec can't decode byte 0xc2 in position 0: ordinal not in range(128) I have setup 'utf-8' as my default encoding in sitecustomize.py so: >>> sys.getdefaultencoding() 'utf-8' What gives? It's not the Terminal. It's not Python, what am I doing wrong?! This question is not related to this question, as that indivdiual is able to paste unicode into his Terminal.

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• Validate HAML from ActiveRecord: scope/controller/helpers for link_to etc?

  - by Chris Boyle

  I like HAML. So much, in fact, that in my first Rails app, which is the usual blog/CMS thing, I want to render the body of my Page model using HAML. So here is app/views/pages/_body.html.haml: .entry-content= Haml::Engine.new(body, :format => :html5).render ...and it works (yay, recursion). What I'd like to do is validate the HAML in the body when creating or updating a Page. I can almost do that, but I'm stuck on the scope argument to render. I have this in app/models/page.rb: validates_each :body do |record, attr, value| begin Haml::Engine.new(value, :format => :html5).render(record) rescue Exception => e record.errors.add attr, "line #{(e.respond_to? :line) && e.line || 'unknown'}: #{e.message}" end end You can see I'm passing record, which is a Page, but even that doesn't have a controller, and in particular doesn't have any helpers like link_to, so as soon as a Page uses any of that it's going to fail to validate even when it would actually render just fine. So I guess I need a controller as scope for this, but accessing that from here in the model (where the validator is) is a big MVC no-no, and as such I don't think Rails gives me a way to do it. (I mean, I suppose I could stash a controller in some singleton somewhere or something, but... excuse me while I throw up.) What's the least ugly way to properly validate HAML in an ActiveRecord validator?

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• Weird output of Throwable getMessage()

  - by Ravi Gupta

  Hi I have below pseudo code with throws an exception like this throw new MyException("Bad thing happened","com.stuff.errorCode"); where MyException extends Exception class. So the problem is when I try to get the message from MyException class by calling myEx.getMessage() it returns ???en_US.Bad thing happened??? instead of my original message i.e. Bad thing happened I have checked that MyException class doesn't overrides Throwable class's getMessage() behavior. Below is the how the call passes from MyException.getMessage() to Throwable.getMessage() public MyException(String msg, String sErrorCode){ super(msg); this.sErrorCode = sErrorCode; this.iSeverity = 0; } which then calls public Exception(String message) { super(message); } and finally public Throwable(String message) { fillInStackTrace(); detailMessage = message; } when I do a getMessage on myexception it calls Throwable's getMessage as below public String getMessage() { return detailMessage; } So ideally it should return the original message as I set when throwing the exception. What's the ???en_US thing ?

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• No Hibernate Exception on the same insert of data

  - by Mark Estrada

  Hi All, Hibernate Newbie here. I am quite unsure why I am not getting any exception when I am executing below code. On first attempt, this code creates the Book Entry on my Book Table. But my concern is that when I execute below code again, no error was pop out by Hibernate. I was in fact expecting some sort of Violation of Primary Key Constraints as what I have bee doing in JDBC code. public class BookDao { public void createBook(Book bookObj) { Session session = HibernateUtil.getSessionFactory() .getCurrentSession(); session.beginTransaction(); session.saveOrUpdate(bookObj); session.getTransaction().commit(); } } public class HibernateUtil { private static final SessionFactory sessionFactory = buildSessionFactory(); private static SessionFactory buildSessionFactory() { try { // Create the SessionFactory from hibernate.cfg.xml return new AnnotationConfiguration().configure() .buildSessionFactory(); } catch (Throwable ex) { // Make sure you log the exception, as it might be swallowed ex.printStackTrace(); throw new ExceptionInInitializerError(ex); } } public static SessionFactory getSessionFactory() { return sessionFactory; } } public class BookDBStarter { public static void main(String[] args) { Book bookHF = new Book(); bookHF.setIsbn("HF-12345"); bookHF.setName("Head First HTML"); bookHF.setPublishDate(new Date()); BookDao daoBook = new BookDao(); daoBook.createBook(bookHF); } } Is this normal hibernate way? And how will I know if my insert is successful? Any thoughts?

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• PDO using singleton stored as class properity

  - by Misiur

  Hi again. OOP drives me crazy. I can't move PDO to work. Here's my DB class: class DB extends PDO { public function &instance($dsn, $username = null, $password = null, $driver_options = array()) { static $instance = null; if($instance === null) { try { $instance = new self($dsn, $username, $password, $driver_options); } catch(PDOException $e) { throw new DBException($e->getMessage()); } } return $instance; } } It's okay when i do something like this: try { $db = new DB(DB_TYPE.':host='.DB_HOST.';dbname='.DB_NAME, DB_USER, DB_PASS); } catch(DBException $e) { echo $e->getMessage(); } But this: try { $db = DB::instance(DB_TYPE.':host='.DB_HOST.';dbname='.DB_NAME, DB_USER, DB_PASS); } catch(DBException $e) { echo $e->getMessage(); } Does nothing. I mean, even when I use wrong password/username, I don't get any exception. Second thing - I have class which is "heart" of my site: class Core { static private $instance; public $db; public function __construct() { if(!self::$instance) { $this->db = DB::instance(DB_TYPE.':hpost='.DB_HOST.';dbname='.DB_NAME, DB_USER, DB_PASS); } return self::$instance; } private function __clone() { } } I've tried to use "new DB" inside class, but this: $r = $core->db->query("SELECT * FROM me_config"); print_r($r->fetch()); Return nothing. $sql = "SELECT * FROM me_config"; print_r($core->db->query($sql)); I get: PDOStatement Object ( [queryString] => SELECT * FROM me_config ) I'm really confused, what am I doing wrong?

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• Is there a way to increase the efficiency of shared_ptr by storing the reference count inside the co

  - by BillyONeal

  Hello everyone :) This is becoming a common pattern in my code, for when I need to manage an object that needs to be noncopyable because either A. it is "heavy" or B. it is an operating system resource, such as a critical section: class Resource; class Implementation : public boost::noncopyable { friend class Resource; HANDLE someData; Implementation(HANDLE input) : someData(input) {}; void SomeMethodThatActsOnHandle() { //Do stuff }; public: ~Implementation() { FreeHandle(someData) }; }; class Resource { boost::shared_ptr<Implementation> impl; public: Resource(int argA) explicit { HANDLE handle = SomeLegacyCApiThatMakesSomething(argA); if (handle == INVALID_HANDLE_VALUE) throw SomeTypeOfException(); impl.reset(new Implementation(handle)); }; void SomeMethodThatActsOnTheResource() { impl->SomeMethodThatActsOnTheHandle(); }; }; This way, shared_ptr takes care of the reference counting headaches, allowing Resource to be copyable, even though the underlying handle should only be closed once all references to it are destroyed. However, it seems like we could save the overhead of allocating shared_ptr's reference counts and such separately if we could move that data inside Implementation somehow, like boost's intrusive containers do. If this is making the premature optimization hackles nag some people, I actually agree that I don't need this for my current project. But I'm curious if it is possible.

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• algorithm to generate maximum number of character 'A' using keystrokes 'A', CTRL + 'A', CTRL + 'C' and CTRL + 'V'

  - by munda

  This is an interview question from google. I am not able to solve it by myself. Can somebody throw some light? The question goes like this. Write a program to print the sequence of keystrokes such that it generates the maximum number of character 'A's. You are allowed to use only 4 keys: 'A', CTRL + 'A', CTRL + 'C' and CTRL + 'V'. Only N keystrokes are allowed. All CTRL+ characters are considered as one keystroke, so CTRL+A is one keystroke. e.g.: A, ctrl+A, ctrl+C, ctrl+V generates two As in 4 keystrokes. Edit: CTRL + A is Select All CTRL + C is copy CTRL + V is paste I did some mathematics. For any N, using x numbers of A's , one CTRL+A, one CTRL+C and y CTRL+V, we can generate max ((N-1)/2)^2 numbers of A's. But for some N M, it is better to use as many ^A, ^C and ^V as it doubles the number of As. Edit 2: ^A, ^V and ^C will not overwrite on the existing selection but it will append the copied selection to selected one.

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• If setUpBeforeClass() fails, test failures are hidden in PHPUnit's JUnit XML output

  - by Adam Monsen

  If setUpBeforeClass() throws an exception, no failures or errors are reported in the PHPUnit's JUnit XML output. Why? Example test class: <?php class Test extends PHPUnit_Framework_TestCase { public static function setUpBeforeClass() { throw new \Exception('masks all failures in xml output'); } public function testFoo() { $this->fail('failing'); } } Command line: phpunit --verbose --log-junit out.xml Test.php Console output: PHPUnit 3.6.10 by Sebastian Bergmann. E Time: 0 seconds, Memory: 3.25Mb There was 1 error: 1) Test Exception: masks all failures in xml output /tmp/pu/Test.php:6 FAILURES! Tests: 0, Assertions: 0, Errors: 1. JUnit XML output: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <testsuites> <testsuite name="Test" file="/tmp/phpunit-broken/Test.php"/> </testsuites> More info: $ php --version PHP 5.3.10-1ubuntu3.1 with Suhosin-Patch (cli) (built: May 4 2012 02:21:57) Copyright (c) 1997-2012 The PHP Group Zend Engine v2.3.0, Copyright (c) 1998-2012 Zend Technologies with Xdebug v2.1.0, Copyright (c) 2002-2010, by Derick Rethans

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• Threading calls to web service in a web service - (.net 2.0)

  - by Ryan Ternier

  Got a question regarding best practices for doing parallel web service calls, in a web service. Our portal will get a message, split that message into 2 messages, and then do 2 calls to our broker. These need to be on separate threads to lower the timeout. One solution is to do something similar to (pseudo code): XmlNode DNode = GetaGetDemoNodeSomehow(); XmlNode ENode = GetAGetElNodeSomehow(); XmlNode elResponse; XmlNode demResponse; Thread dThread = new Thread(delegate { //Web Service Call GetDemographics d = new GetDemographics(); demResponse = d.HIALRequest(DNode); }); Thread eThread = new Thread(delegate { //Web Service Call GetEligibility ge = new GetEligibility(); elResponse = ge.HIALRequest(ENode); }); dThread.Start(); eThread.Start(); dThread.Join(); eThread.Join(); //combine the resulting XML and return it. //Maybe throw a bit of logging in to make architecture happy Another option we thought of is to create a worker class, and pass it the service information and have it execute. This would allow us to have a bit more control over what is going on, but could add additional overhead. Another option brought up would be 2 asynchronous calls and manage the returns through a loop. When the calls are completed (success or error) the loop picks it up and ends. The portal service will be called about 50,000 times a day. I don't want to gold plate this sucker. I'm looking for something light weight. The services that are being called on the broker do have time out limits set, and are already heavily logged and audited, so I'm not worried on that part. This is .NET 2.0 , and as much as I would love to upgrade I can't right now. So please leave all the goodies of 2.0 out please.

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• java number exceeds long.max_value - how to detect?

  - by jurchiks

  I'm having problems detecting if a sum/multiplication of two numbers exceeds the maximum value of a long integer. Example code: long a = 2 * Long.MAX_VALUE; System.out.println("long.max * smth > long.max... or is it? a=" + a); This gives me -2, while I would expect it to throw a NumberFormatException... Is there a simple way of making this work? Because I have some code that does multiplications in nested IF blocks or additions in a loop and I would hate to add more IFs to each IF or inside the loop. Edit: oh well, it seems that this answer from another question is the most appropriate for what I need: http://stackoverflow.com/a/9057367/540394 I don't want to do boxing/unboxing as it adds unnecassary overhead, and this way is very short, which is a huge plus to me. I'll just write two short functions to do these checks and return the min or max long. Edit2: here's the function for limiting a long to its min/max value according to the answer I linked to above: /** * @param a : one of the two numbers added/multiplied * @param b : the other of the two numbers * @param c : the result of the addition/multiplication * @return the minimum or maximum value of a long integer if addition/multiplication of a and b is less than Long.MIN_VALUE or more than Long.MAX_VALUE */ public static long limitLong(long a, long b, long c) { return (((a > 0) && (b > 0) && (c <= 0)) ? Long.MAX_VALUE : (((a < 0) && (b < 0) && (c >= 0)) ? Long.MIN_VALUE : c)); } Tell me if you think this is wrong.

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• Identity.Name is disposed in a IIS7 Asp.NET MVC application Thread

  - by vIceBerg

  I have made the smallest demo project to illustrate my problem. You can download the sources Here Visual Studio 2008, .NET 3.5, IIS7, Windows 7 Ultimate 32 bits. The IIS Website is configured ONLY for Windows Authentication in an Integreated pipeline app pool (DefaultAppPool). Here's the problem. I have an Asp.NET MVC 2 application. In an action, I start a thread. The View returns. The thread is doing it's job... but it needs to access Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name BANG The worker process of IIS7 stops. I have a window that says: "Visual Studio Just-In-Time Debugger An unhandled exception ('System.Object.DisposedException') occured in w3wp.exe [5524]" I checked with the debugger and the Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity is valid, but the Name property is disposed. If I put a long wait in the action before it returns the view, then the Thread can do it's job and the Identity.Name is not disposed. So I think the Name gets disposed when the view is returned. For the sake of the discussion, here's the code that the thread runs (but you can also download the demo project. The link is on top of this post): private void Run() { const int SECTOWAIT = 3; //wait SECTOWAIT seconds long end = DateTime.Now.Ticks + (TimeSpan.TicksPerSecond * SECTOWAIT); while (DateTime.Now.Ticks <= end) continue; //Check the currentprincipal. BANG!!!!!!!!!!!!! var userName = Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name; } Here's the code that starts the thread public void Start() { Thread thread = new Thread(new ParameterizedThreadStart(ThreadProc)); thread.SetApartmentState(ApartmentState.MTA); thread.Name = "TestThread"; thread.Start(this); } static void ThreadProc(object o) { try { Builder builder = (Builder)o; builder.Run(); } catch (Exception ex) { throw; } } So... what am i doing wrong? Thanks

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• Sequential access to asynchronous sockets

  - by Lars A. Brekken

  I have a server that has several clients C1...Cn to each of which there is a TCP connection established. There are less than 10,000 clients. The message protocol is request/response based, where the server sends a request to a client and then the client sends a response. The server has several threads, T1...Tm, and each of these may send requests to any of the clients. I want to make sure that only one of these threads can send a request to a specific client at any one time, while the other threads wanting to send a request to the same client will have to wait. I do not want to block threads from sending requests to different clients at the same time. E.g. If T1 is sending a request to C3, another thread T2 should not be able to send anything to C3 until T1 has received its response. I was thinking of using a simple lock statement on the socket: lock (c3Socket) { // Send request to C3 // Get response from C3 } I am using asynchronous sockets, so I may have to use Monitor instead: Monitor.Enter(c3Socket); // Before calling .BeginReceive() And Monitor.Exit(c3Socket); // In .EndReceive I am worried about stuff going wrong and not letting go of the monitor and therefore blocking all access to a client. I'm thinking that my heartbeat thread could use Monitor.TryEnter() with a timeout and throw out sockets that it cannot get the monitor for. Would it make sense for me to make the Begin and End calls synchronous in order to be able to use the lock() statement? I know that I would be sacrificing concurrency for simplicity in this case, but it may be worth it. Am I overlooking anything here? Any input appreciated.

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• How to delete duplicate/aggregate rows faster in a file using Java (no DB)

  - by S. Singh

  I have a 2GB big text file, it has 5 columns delimited by tab. A row will be called duplicate only if 4 out of 5 columns matches. Right now, I am doing dduping by first loading each coloumn in separate List , then iterating through lists, deleting the duplicate rows as it encountered and aggregating. The problem: it is taking more than 20 hours to process one file. I have 25 such files to process. Can anyone please share their experience, how they would go about doing such dduping? This dduping will be a throw away code. So, I was looking for some quick/dirty solution, to get job done as soon as possible. Here is my pseudo code (roughly) Iterate over the rows i=current_row_no. Iterate over the row no. i+1 to last_row if(col1 matches //find duplicate && col2 matches && col3 matches && col4 matches) { col5List.set(i,get col5); //aggregate } Duplicate example A and B will be duplicate A=(1,1,1,1,1), B=(1,1,1,1,2), C=(2,1,1,1,1) and output would be A=(1,1,1,1,1+2) C=(2,1,1,1,1) [notice that B has been kicked out]

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• lighten background color on button click per binding

  - by one of two

  I want to lighten a buttons background on click. So I did the following: <converter:ColorLightConverter x:Key="colorLightConverter" /> ... <Style BasedOn="{StaticResource default}" TargetType="{x:Type controls:Button}"> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type controls:Button}"> <ControlTemplate.Triggers> <Trigger Property="IsPressed" Value="True"> <Setter Property="Background"> <Setter.Value> <SolidColorBrush Color="{Binding Path=Background.Color, RelativeSource={RelativeSource TemplatedParent}, Converter={StaticResource colorLightConverter}}" /> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Trigger> </ControlTemplate.Triggers> <Border Background="{TemplateBinding Background}" BorderBrush="Transparent" BorderThickness="0"> ... </Border> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Style> The converter: class ColorLightConverter : IValueConverter { public object Convert(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, System.Globalization.CultureInfo culture) { Color color = (Color)value; System.Drawing.Color lightColor = ControlPaint.Light(System.Drawing.Color.FromArgb(color.A, color.R, color.G, color.B)); return Color.FromArgb(lightColor.A, lightColor.R, lightColor.G, lightColor.B); } public object ConvertBack(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, System.Globalization.CultureInfo culture) { throw new NotImplementedException(); } } But the converter isn't called when I click the button. I think there is anything wrong with the binding, but I can't see the error... Can you help me? Maybe I'm completely wrong. What I basically want to do: When clicking the button, take the current background color and lighten it. Not more...

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• C++ return a "NULL" object if search result not found

  - by aduric

  I'm pretty new to C++ so I tend to design with a lot of Java-isms while I'm learning. Anyway, in Java, if I had class with a 'search' method that would return an object T from a Collection< T that matched a specific parameter, I would return that object and if the object was not found in the collection, I would return a NULL. Then in my calling function I would just check if(T != NULL) { ... } In C++, I'm finding out that I can't return a NULL if the object doesn't exist. I just want to return an 'indicator' of type T that notifies the calling function that no object has been found. I don't want to throw an exception because it's not really an exceptional circumstance. class Node { .... Attr& getAttribute(const string& attribute_name) const { //search collection //if found at i return attributes[i]; //if not found return NULL; } private: vector<Attr> attributes; }

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• Returning HTML in the JS portion of a respond_to block throws errors in IE

  - by Horace Loeb

  Here's a common pattern in my controller actions: respond_to do |format| format.html {} format.js { render :layout => false } end I.e., if the request is non-AJAX, I'll send the HTML content in a layout on a brand new page. If the request is AJAX, I'll send down the same content, but without a layout (so that it can be inserted into the existing page or put into a lightbox or whatever). So I'm always returning HTML in the format.js portion, yet Rails sets the Content-Type response header to text/javascript. This causes IE to throw this fun little error message: Of course I could set the content-type of the response every time I did this (or use an after_filter or whatever), but it seems like I'm trying to do something relatively standard and I don't want to add additional boilerplate code. How do I fix this problem? Alternatively, if the only way to fix the problem is to change the content-type of the response, what's the best way to achieve the behavior I want (i.e., sending down content with layout for non-AJAX and the same content without a layout for AJAX) without having to deal with these errors? Edit: This blog post has some more info

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• What is a reasonable OSGi development workflow?

  - by levand

  I'm using OSGi for my latest project at work, and it's pretty beautiful as far as modularity and functionality. But I'm not happy with the development workflow. Eventually, I plan to have 30-50 separate bundles, arranged in a dependency graph - supposedly, this is what OSGi is designed for. But I can't figure out a clean way to manage dependencies at compile time. Example: You have bundles A and B. B depends on packages defined in A. Each bundle is developed as a separate Java project. In order to compile B, A has to be on the javac classpath. Do you: Reference the file system location of project A in B's build script? Build A and throw the jar into B's lib directory? Rely on Eclipse's "referenced projects" feature and always use Eclipse's classpath to build (ugh) Use a common "lib" directory for all projects and dump the bundle jars there after compilation? Set up a bundle repository, parse the manifest from the build script and pull down the required bundles from the repository? No. 5 sounds the cleanest, but also like a lot of overhead.

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• How to update GUI thread/class from worker thread/class?

  - by user315182

  First question here so hello everyone. The requirement I'm working on is a small test application that communicates with an external device over a serial port. The communication can take a long time, and the device can return all sorts of errors. The device is nicely abstracted in its own class that the GUI thread starts to run in its own thread and has the usual open/close/read data/write data basic functions. The GUI is also pretty simple - choose COM port, open, close, show data read or errors from device, allow modification and write back etc. The question is simply how to update the GUI from the device class? There are several distinct types of data the device deals with so I need a relatively generic bridge between the GUI form/thread class and the working device class/thread. In the GUI to device direction everything works fine with [Begin]Invoke calls for open/close/read/write etc. on various GUI generated events. I've read the thread here (How to update GUI from another thread in C#?) where the assumption is made that the GUI and worker thread are in the same class. Google searches throw up how to create a delegate or how to create the classic background worker but that's not at all what I need, although they may be part of the solution. So, is there a simple but generic structure that can be used? My level of C# is moderate and I've been programming all my working life, given a clue I'll figure it out (and post back)... Thanks in advance for any help.

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• Why does this work?

  - by jsoldi

  I was googling trying to find a way to call Control.DataBindings.Add without using a string literal but getting the property name from the property itself, which I think would be less error prone, at least for my particular case, since I normally let Visual Studio do the renaming when renaming a property. So my code would look something like DataBindings.Add(GetName(myInstance.myObject)... instead of DataBindings.Add("myObject".... So I found this: static string GetName<T>(T item) where T : class { var properties = typeof(T).GetProperties(); if (properties.Length != 1) throw new Exception("Length must be 1"); return properties[0].Name; } That would be called, assuming I have a property called One, this way: string name = GetName(new { this.One }); which would give me "One". I have no clue why does it work and whether is safe to use it or not. I don't even know what that new { this.One } means. And I don't know on which case could it happens that properties.Length is not 1. By the way, I just tested to rename my property One to Two and Visual Studio turned new { this.One } into new { One = this.Two }, which when used with the GetName function gave me "One", which make the whole thing useless since the name I would be passing to Control.DataBindings.Add would be still "One" after renaming the property.

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• Invoking a method overloaded where all arguments implement the same interface

  - by double07

  Hello, My starting point is the following: - I have a method, transform, which I overloaded to behave differently depending on the type of arguments that are passed in (see transform(A a1, A a2) and transform(A a1, B b) in my example below) - All these arguments implement the same interface, X I would like to apply that transform method on various objects all implementing the X interface. What I came up with was to implement transform(X x1, X x2), which checks for the instance of each object before applying the relevant variant of my transform. Though it works, the code seems ugly and I am also concerned of the performance overhead for evaluating these various instanceof and casting. Is that transform the best I can do in Java or is there a more elegant and/or efficient way of achieving the same behavior? Below is a trivial, working example printing out BA. I am looking for examples on how to improve that code. In my real code, I have naturally more implementations of 'transform' and none are trivial like below. public class A implements X { } public class B implements X { } interface X { } public A transform(A a1, A a2) { System.out.print("A"); return a2; } public A transform(A a1, B b) { System.out.print("B"); return a1; } // Isn't there something better than the code below??? public X transform(X x1, X x2) { if ((x1 instanceof A) && (x2 instanceof A)) { return transform((A) x1, (A) x2); } else if ((x1 instanceof A) && (x2 instanceof B)) { return transform((A) x1, (B) x2); } else { throw new RuntimeException("Transform not implemented for " + x1.getClass() + "," + x2.getClass()); } } @Test public void trivial() { X x1 = new A(); X x2 = new B(); X result = transform(x1, x2); transform(x1, result); }

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