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  • How do i pass arbitary date format from C# to sql backend

    - by Jims
    I have a datetime field for the transaction date in the back end. So I am passing that date from front C#.net, in the below format: 2011-01-01 12:17:51.967 to do this I have written: presentation layer: string date = DateTime.Now.ToString("yyyy-MM-dd HH:mm:ss.fff", CultureInfo.InvariantCulture); PropertyClass prp=new PropertyClass(); Prp.TransDate=Convert.ToDateTime(date); PropertyClass structure: Public class property { private DateTime transdate; public DateTime TransDate { get { return transdate; } set { transdate = value; } } } From DAL layer passing the TransactionDate like this: Cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@TranSactionDate”, SqlDbType.DateTime).value=propertyobj.TransDate; While debugging from presntation layer: string date = DateTime.Now.ToString("yyyy-MM-dd HH:mm:ss.fff", CultureInfo.InvariantCulture); in this I am getting correct expected date format, but when debugs goes to this line Prp.TransDate=Convert.ToDateTime(date); again date format changing to 1/1/2011. But my backend sql datefield wants the date paramter 2011-01-01 12:17:51.967 in this format otherwise throwing exception invalid date format. Note: While passing date as string without converting to datetime getting exceptions like: System.Data.SqlTypes.SqlTypeException: SqlDateTime overflow. Must be between 1/1/1753 12:00:00 AM and 12/31/9999 11:59:59 PM. at System.Data.SqlTypes.SqlDateTime.FromTimeSpan(TimeSpan value) at System.Data.SqlTypes.SqlDateTime.FromDateTime(DateTime value) at System.Data.SqlTypes.SqlDateTime..ctor(DateTime value) at System.Data.SqlClient.MetaType.FromDateTime(DateTime dateTime, Byte cb) at System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.WriteValue(Object value, MetaType type, Byte scale, Int32 actualLength, Int32 encodingByteSize, Int32 offset, TdsParserStateObject stateObj) at System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.TdsExecuteRPC(_SqlRPC[] rpcArray, Int32 timeout, Boolean inSchema, SqlNotificationRequest notificationRequest, TdsParserStateObject stateObj, Boolean isCommandProc)

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  • how to pass parameters to a linux bash shell

    - by chun
    hi i have a linux bash shell 'myshell' i want it to read two date as parameters, ex: myshell date1 date2 i am a Java programer, but don't know how to write a shell to get this done the rest of the shell is like this sed "s/$date1/$date2/g" wlacd_stat.xml tmp.xml mv tmp.xml wlacd_stat.xml thanks

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  • How can I pass a UIEvent to a UIScrollView

    - by rickharrison
    I am subclassing UIWindow and creating an implementation of sendEvent: as follows: - (void)sendEvent:(UIEvent *)event { [super sendEvent:event]; // Send event to UIScrollView here } How can I send the event to a UIScrollView. I tried calling the touchesBegan:, etc. messages, but that did not do anything.

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  • how to pass data when using MenuItem.ItemContainerStyle

    - by black sensei
    Hello Experts! i've been trying to have a dynamic ContextMenu to show the name property of each of the object in its collection of objects. here is concrete example ,i'm connecting to a webservice to pull contacts and groups of a particular account.so i have those as global variables.i display the contacts in a listbox and i want to show on right click of a contact in the listbox the list of groups that it can be added to. to be able to add a contact to a group i need the id of the contact(which i have) and the id of the group which i'm looking for here is my code. xmlns:serviceAdmin="clr-namespace:MyWpfApp.serviceAdmin" ...... <ListBox.ContextMenu> <ContextMenu> <MenuItem Header="Refresh" Click="RefreshContact_Click"></MenuItem> <MenuItem Header="Add New Contact" Click="ContactNew_Click"></MenuItem> <MenuItem Header="Add to Group" Name="groupMenus"> //<!--<MenuItem.Resources> // <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type serviceAdmin:groupInfo}" x:Key="groupMenuKey" > // <MenuItem> // <TextBlock Text="{Binding name}" /> // </MenuItem> // </DataTemplate> // </MenuItem.Resources>--> <MenuItem.ItemContainerStyle> <Style> <Setter Property="MenuItem.Header" Value="{Binding name}"/> <Setter Property="MenuItem.Tag" Value="{Binding id}" /> </Style> </MenuItem.ItemContainerStyle> </MenuItem> <MenuItem Header="Delete Selected" Click="ContactDelete_Click"></MenuItem> </ContextMenu> </ListBox.ContextMenu> ...... and on xaml.cs //this code is in the method that loads the groups loadedgroup = service.getGroups(session.key, null); groupListBox.ItemsSource = loadedgroup; groupMenus.ItemsSource = loadedgroup.ToList(); this code is showing the name of the groups alright but i need the id of the group clicked on. If you've noticed i commented a portion of the xaml code. with that i could bind(with ease) the id to the tag.But it won't work and the MenuItem.ItemContainerStyle is the one working but then i'm lost: Question 1 : how do i create a handler method for a click event of a submenu that has the names of the groups? Question 2 : how do i get the clicked group id to work with? thanks for reading and kindly help me in this

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  • how to pass an arbitrary signature to Certifcate

    - by eskoba
    I am trying to sign certificate (X509) using secret sharing. that is shareholders combine their signatures to produce the final signature. which will be in this case the signed certificate. however practically from my understanding only one entity can sign a certificate. therefore I want to know: which entities or data of the x509certificate are actually taken as input to the signing algorithm? ideally I want this data to be signed by the shareholders and then the final combination will be passed to the X509certificate as valid signature. is this possible? how could it done? if not are they other alternatives?

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  • Pass MSBuild condition to library project

    - by Billy Talented
    I have tried several solutions for this problem. Enough to know I do not know enough about MSBuild to do this elegantly but I feel like there should be a method. I have a set of libraries for working with .net projects. A few of the projects utilize System.Web.Mvc - which recently released Version 2 - and we are looking forward to the upgrade. Currently sites which reference this library reference it directly by the project(csproj) on the developer's computer - not a built version of the library so that changes and source code case easily be viewed when dealing code from this library. This works quite well and would prefer to not have to switch to binary references (but will if this is the only solution). The problem I have is that because of some of the functionality that was added onto the MVC1 based library (view engines, model binders etc) several of the sites reliant on these libraries need to stay on MVC1 until we have full evaluated and tested them on MVC2. I would prefer to not have to fork or have two copies on each dev machine. So what I would like to be able to do is set a property group value in the referencing web application and have this read by the above mentions library with the caviat that when working directly on the library via its containing solution I would like to be able to control this via Configuration Manager by selecting a build type and that property overriding the build behavior of the solution (i.e. 'Debug - MVC1' vs 'Debug -MVC2') - I have this working via: <Choose> <When Condition=" '$(Configuration)|$(Platform)' == 'Release - MVC2|AnyCPU' Or '$(Configuration)|$(Platform)' == 'Debug - MVC2|AnyCPU'"> <ItemGroup> <Reference Include="System.Web.Mvc, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35, processorArchitecture=MSIL"> </Reference> <Reference Include="Microsoft.Web.Mvc, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, processorArchitecture=MSIL"> <SpecificVersion>False</SpecificVersion> <HintPath>..\Dependancies\Web\MVC2\Microsoft.Web.Mvc.dll</HintPath> </Reference> </ItemGroup> </When> <Otherwise> <ItemGroup> <Reference Include="System.Web.Mvc, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35, processorArchitecture=MSIL"> <SpecificVersion>False</SpecificVersion> <HintPath>..\Dependancies\Web\MVC\System.Web.Mvc.dll</HintPath> </Reference> </ItemGroup> </Otherwise> The item that I am struggling with is the cross solution issue(solution TheWebsite references this project and needs to control which build property to use) that I have not found a way to work with that I think is a solid solution that enabled the build within visual studio to work as it has to date. Other bits: we are using VS2008, Resharper, TeamCity for CI, SVN for source control.

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  • how to pass querystring in friendly url in asp.net mvc

    - by frosty
    I have the following action. I can hit this with /basket/address?addressId=123 However i wonder how i can hit it with /basket/address/123 public ActionResult Address(int addressId) { return RedirectToAction("Index"); } my routes routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}.aspx/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } // Parameter defaults );

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  • How to pass a function in a function?

    - by SoulBeaver
    That's an odd title. I would greatly appreciate it if somebody could clarify what exactly I'm asking because I'm not so sure myself. I'm watching the Stanford videos on Programming Paradigms(that teacher is awesome) and I'm up to video five when he started doing this: void *lSearch( void* key, void* base, int elemSize, int n, int (*cmpFn)(void*, void*)) Naturally, I thought to myself, "Oi, I didn't know you could declare a function and define it later!". So I created my own C++ test version. int foo(int (*bar)(void*, void*)); int bar(void* a, void* b); int main(int argc, char** argv) { int *func = 0; foo(bar); cin.get(); return 0; } int foo(int (*bar)(void*, void*)) { int c(10), d(15); int *a = &c; int *b = &d; bar(a, b); return 0; } int bar(void* a, void* b) { cout << "Why hello there." << endl; return 0; } The question about the code is this: it fails if I declare function int *bar as a parameter of foo, but not int (*bar). Why!? Also, the video confuses me in the fact that his lSearch definition void* lSearch( /*params*/ , int (*cmpFn)(void*, void*)) is calling cmpFn in the definition, but when calling the lSearch function lSearch( /*params*/, intCmp ); also calls the defined function int intCmp(void* elem1, void* elem2); and I don't get how that works. Why, in lSearch, is the function called cmpFn, but defined as intCmp, which is of type int, not int* and still works? And why does the function in lSearch not have to have defined parameters?

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  • Swig C++ Lua Pass class by reference

    - by Jeremy
    I don't know why I'm having a hard time with this. All I want to do is this: class foo { public: foo(){} ~foo(){} float a,b; }; class foo2 { public: foo2(){} foo2(const foo &f){*this = f;} ~foo2(){} void operator=(const foo& f){ x = f.a; y = f.b; } float x,y; }; /* Usage(cpp): foo f; foo2 f2(f); //or using the = operator f2 = f; */ The problem I'm having is that, after swigging this code, I can't figure out how to make the lua script play nice. /* Usage(lua) f = example.foo() f2 = example.foo2(f) --error */ The error I get is "Wrong arguments for overloaded function 'new_Foo2'": Possible c/c++ prototypes are: foo2() foo2(foo const &) The same thing happens if I try and use do f2 = f. As I understand it everything is stored as a pointer so I did try adding an additional constructor that took a pointer to foo but to no avail.

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  • Pass ng-model and place-holder value into directive

    - by Zen
    I have a segment of code needs to be reuse a lot, there for I want to just create a directive for it. <div class="btn-group"> <div class="input-group"> <div class="has-feedback"> <input type="text" class="form-control" placeholder="BLAH BLAH" ng-model="model"> <span class="times form-control-feedback" ng-click="model=''" ng-show="model.length > 0"></span> </div> </div> </div> I want to use this code as template in directive. Create a directive used as follow: <div search-Field ng-model="model" placeholder="STRING"></div> to replace to old html, ng-model and placeholder will be as variables. angular.module('searchField', []) .directive('searchField', [function () { return { scope: { placeholder: '@', ngModel: '=' }, templateUrl: 'Partials/_SearchInputGroup.html' } }]); Is it the way of doing it?

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  • Pass deeply nested element to function in JQuery

    - by klez
    I have this form: <form action="contact.php" method="post" id="contactform"> <ol> <li> <label for="name">First Name * </label> <input id="name" name="name" class="text" /> </li> <li> <label for="email">Your email * </label> <input id="email" name="email" class="text" /> </li> <li> <label for="company">Company</label> <input id="company" name="company" class="text" /> </li> <li> <label for="subject">Subject</label> <input id="subject" name="subject" class="text" /> </li> <li> <label for="message">Message * </label> <textarea id="message" name="message" rows="6" cols="50"></textarea> </li> <li class="buttons"> <input type="image" name="imageField" id="imageField" src="images/send.gif" /> </li> </ol> </form> This javascript function that does some basic validation: function validateRequired(field,alerttxt) { with (field) { if (value==null||value=="") { alert(alerttxt); return false; } return true; } } And this script (written with jquery) to intercept the submit event jQuery(document).ready(function(){ $('#contactform').submit(function(){ ... }); }); The problem is that, inside the last script I want to call validateRequired passing each required input/textarea (namely: name, email and message) as first parameter. I tried like this: validateRequired($('#name')); but it doesn't work. How can I do this?

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  • Javascript unable to pass parameters into a property acting as a function

    - by BOverflow
    Currently in a simplified form, my code looks like this function AddFileParam(file_id, name, value) { uploadcontrol.addFileParam(file_id, name, value) } uploadcontrol = new Upload() function upload() { //logic } upload.prototype.AddFileParam = function(file_id, name, value) { //logic }; The code is giving me an error as it states that addFileParam is not a valid function. This is caused by the instance of the function upload (aka. uploadcontrol). This is only occuring in Firefox/Chrome and not in IE. Any ideas on how to fix this?

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  • Pass an Event as parameter

    - by dkson
    I have a class which bundles events and registers controls to easily register/unregister them, it's basically used this way: Private Sub MyFocusHandler(ByVal sender As Object, ...) ... End Sub ... Dim b1 = new MyTextBox() Dim b2 = new MyTextBox() .... 'Lot of Controls' Dim cr = new ControlRegistration() cr.RegisterControl(b1) cr.RegisterControl(b2) .... 'Register a lot of controls' cr.RegisterEvent("Focus",New EventHandler(AddressOf MyFocusHandler)) cr.RegisterEvent("Validate",New EventHandler(AddressOf MyValidateHandler)) So I don't have to add the handlers manually for each control. The ControlRegistration-Class will cycle through the list of registered controls and check if a control has a registered event and then attach the eventhandler, something like: ... For Each control in contols Dim ev_info As Reflection.EventInfo = _ control.GetType().GetEvent(.GetType().GetEvent(event_name)) If Not (ev_info Is Nothing) Then ev_info.AddEventHandler ... ... My problem is that i am identifying the event by a string Public Sub RegisterEvent(ByVal eventName As String, ByVal handler As [Delegate]) ... ... cr.RegisterEvent("Focus",New EventHandler(AddressOf MyFocusHandler)) I don't want to depend on the name of the event, since it is possibly that the name changes, and then things will break up. Is there a way I can do this like: Public Sub RegisterEvent(ByVal theEvent As ???, ByVal handler As [Delegate]) ... ... cr.RegisterEvent(IMyControl.MyEvent,New EventHandler(AddressOf MyEventHandler)) I hope it is clear what I want to archive. Anybody any ideas? Thanks

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  • Boost Unit testing memory reuse causing tests that should fail to pass

    - by Knyphe
    We have started using the boost unit testing library for a large existing code base, and I have run into some trouble with unit tests incorrectly passing, seemingly due to the reuse of memory on the stack. Here is my situation: BOOST_AUTO_TEST_CASE(test_select_base_instantiation_default) { SelectBase selectBase(); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getSelectType(), false); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getTypeName(_T("")); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getEntityType(), -1); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getDataPos(), -1); } BOOST_AUTO_TEST_CASE(test_select_base_instantiation_default) { SelectBase selectBase(true, _T("abc")); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getSelectType(), false); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getTypeName(_T("abc")); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getEntityType(), -1); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getDataPos(), -1); } The first test passed correctly, initializing all the variables. The constructor in the second unit test did not correctly set EntityType or DataPosition, but the unit test passed. I was able to get it to fail by placing some variables on the stack in the second test, like so: BOOST_AUTO_TEST_CASE(test_select_base_instantiation_default) { int a, b; SelectBase selectBase(true, _T("abc")); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getSelectType(), false); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getTypeName(_T("abc")); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getEntityType(), -1); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getDataPos(), -1); } If there is only one int, only the dataPos CHECK_EQUAL fails, but if there are two, both EntityType and DataPos fail, so it seems pretty clear that this is an issue with the variables being created on the same stack memory or some such. Is there a good way to clear the memory between each unit test, or am I potentially using the library incorrectly or writing bad tests? Any help would be appreciated.

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  • How to pass Event as a parameter in JQuery function

    - by Manas Saha
    Hi I am learning JQuery and I have written a small function where I am attaching a function with a button's click event. this is the head element of the HTML <script type="text/javascript"> $(pageLoaded); function pageLoaded() { $("#Button1").bind("click", { key1: "value1", key2: "value2" }, function buttonClick(event) { $("#displayArea").text(event.data.key1); } ); } </script> This is the body of the HTML <input id="Button1" type="button" value="button" /> <div id = "displayArea" style="border:2px solid black; width:300px; height:200px"> This code works fine. But when I try to write the buttonClick function outside the anonymus method, it does not work anymore. I tried to call it this way: $("#Button1").bind("click", { key1: "value1", key2: "value2" }, buttonClick(event)); function buttonClick(var event) { $("#displayArea").text(event.data.key1); } This is not working. Am I doing some mistake while passing the Event as parameter? what is the correct way to do it without using anonymous methods?

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  • Select in listview, to pass the index through to another form

    - by Luke
    I have a system where a listview is populated. I want to be able to select one of these files and press an edit button, which will then take the selected data into another form. I am trying to find a way to identify the selected item in the listview and take it to the next form. How can i achieve this? What code would I need to show? Thanks

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  • Django: cannot pass variable to included template?

    - by duy
    Hi, I got a problem where I want to use template including in Django. Here is the real example: I got 3 file: home.html (will get the context variable passed from Views), base.html (the skeleton template file) and the header.html (included by base.html). If if put the code below directly in base.html without including the header.html, the {{title}} variable passing from home is correctly called. But if I include the header.html in base.html, the {{title}} variable's value cannot be called. <title>{% block title %}{% endblock %} | {{ SITE_INFO_TITLE }}</title> Is there any solution to this problem? Thanks.

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  • JNI on Android, how to pass int from c to java

    - by Joaquin
    I have a C function, I simply returns an integer, as follows: JNIEXPORT jint JNICALL Java_org_project_ScreenPosition(JNIEnv* env, jobject thiz){ int i=1; return i; } I call this function in the way of an Activity onCreateContextMenu Android, as follows: public void onCreateContextMenu(ContextMenu menu, View v, ContextMenuInfo menuInfo){ menu.setHeaderTitle("TryMenu"); int a=ScreenPosition(); return; } But all crash

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  • JavaScript function pass-through?

    - by Lance May
    I'm not sure if this is doable, but I would like to be able to set a jQuery UI event as a function (directly), as opposed to continuing to wrap in additional function(event, ui) { ... } wrappers. Hopefully you can see what I'm going for from the example below. Here is what I would like: $("#auto").autocomplete({ source: "somepage.php", select: dropdownSelect, minLength: 0 }); Now I would think that the above would work, since I'm simply trying to say "continue firing this event, just over to that function". Unfortunately, that will not work, and I'm ending up with this: (and for some reason, a disconnect from all data) $("#auto").autocomplete({ source: "somepage.php", select: function(event, ui) { dropdownSelect(event, ui) }, minLength: 0 }); Thanks much in advance.

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  • Pass 2d array to function in C?

    - by Evelyn
    I know it's simple, but I can't seem to make this work. My function is like so: int GefMain(int array[][5]) { //do stuff return 1; } In my main: int GefMain(int array[][5]); int main(void) { int array[1800][5]; GefMain(array); return 0; } I referred to this helpful resource, but I am still getting the error "warning: passing argument 1 of GefMain from incompatible pointer type." What am I doing wrong?

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  • how to pass arguments into function within a function in r

    - by jon
    I am writing function that involve other function from base R with alot of arguments. For example (real function is much longer): myfunction <- function (dataframe, Colv = NA) { matrix <- as.matrix (dataframe) out <- heatmap(matrix, Colv = Colv) return(out) } data(mtcars) myfunction (mtcars, Colv = NA) The heatmap has many arguments that can be passed to: heatmap(x, Rowv=NULL, Colv=if(symm)"Rowv" else NULL, distfun = dist, hclustfun = hclust, reorderfun = function(d,w) reorder(d,w), add.expr, symm = FALSE, revC = identical(Colv, "Rowv"), scale=c("row", "column", "none"), na.rm = TRUE, margins = c(5, 5), ColSideColors, RowSideColors, cexRow = 0.2 + 1/log10(nr), cexCol = 0.2 + 1/log10(nc), labRow = NULL, labCol = NULL, main = NULL, xlab = NULL, ylab = NULL, keep.dendro = FALSE, verbose = getOption("verbose"), ...) I want to use these arguments without listing them inside myfun. myfunction (mtcars, Colv = NA, col = topo.colors(16)) Error in myfunction(mtcars, Colv = NA, col = topo.colors(16)) : unused argument(s) (col = topo.colors(16)) I tried the following but do not work: myfunction <- function (dataframe, Colv = NA) { matrix <- as.matrix (dataframe) out <- heatmap(matrix, Colv = Colv, ....) return(out) } data(mtcars) myfunction (mtcars, Colv = NA, col = topo.colors(16))

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  • How do you pass a generic delegate argument to a method in .NET 2.0 - UPDATED

    - by Seth Spearman
    Hello, I have a class with a delegate declaration as follows... Public Class MyClass Public Delegate Function Getter(Of TResult)() As TResult ''#the following code works. Public Shared Sub MyMethod(ByVal g As Getter(Of Boolean)) ''#do stuff End Sub End Class However, I do not want to explicitly type the Getter delegate in the Method call. Why can I not declare the parameter as follows... ... (ByVal g As Getter(Of TResult)) Is there a way to do it? My end goal was to be able to set a delegate for property setters and getters in the called class. But my reading indicates you can't do that. So I put setter and getter methods in that class and then I want the calling class to set the delegate argument and then invoke. Is there a best practice for doing this. I realize in the above example that I can set set the delegate variable from the calling class...but I am trying to create a singleton with tight encapsulation. For the record, I can't use any of the new delegate types declared in .net35. Answers in C# are welcome. Any thoughts? Seth

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  • How do I select distinct rows where a column may have a number of the same values but all their 2nd

    - by Martin Rose
    I have a table in the form: test_name| test_result | test1 | pass | test2 | fail | test1 | pass | test1 | pass | test2 | pass | test1 | pass | test3 | pass | test3 | fail | test3 | pass | As you can see all test1's pass while test2's and test3's have both passes and fails. Is there a SQL statement that I can use to return the distinct names of the tests that only pass? E.g. test1

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  • How to pass dynamic values using MVC AJax.BeginForm

    - by Arthur
    I'm using MVC and AJax.BeginForm to do some ajax updating of my page. The BeginForm code looks something like: using (Ajax.BeginForm("HandleCrop", "Card", new { accept = true, id = Model.ImageUpload.ID, file = Model.ImageUpload.File, imageCropX = Model.CropInfo.X, imageCropY = Model.CropInfo.Y, imageCropWidth = Model.CropInfo.Width, imageCropHeight = Model.CropInfo.Height }, new AjaxOptions { HttpMethod = "POST", OnComplete = "ConfirmCompleted", OnSuccess = "ReloadUpload", OnFailure = "Failure" }, null)) The Model.CropInfo is being put in as hidden fields like so: <%=Html.HiddenFor(m => m.CropInfo.X) %> <%=Html.HiddenFor(m => m.CropInfo.Y) %> <%=Html.HiddenFor(m => m.CropInfo.Width) %> <%=Html.HiddenFor(m => m.CropInfo.Height) %> However, these values are being dynamically modified by some client side javascript, and these values need to be posted through the Ajax call back to the server. The above code will obviously not work as the imageCrop.. parameters in the Ajax form are being filled when the page is rendered (therefore being all 0). My question is: what is the correct way to approach this situation?

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