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• Debugging Post Request with Chrome Dev Tools

  - by benek

  I am trying to use Chrome Dev for debugging the following Angular post request : $http.post("http://picjboss.puma.lan:8880/fluxpousse/api/flow/createOrUpdateHeader", flowHeader) After running the statement with right-click / evaluate, I can see the post in the network panel with a pending state. How can I get the result or "commit" the request and leave easily this "pending" state from the dev console ? I am not yet very familiar with JS callbacks, some code is expected. Thanks. EDIT I have tried to run from the console : $scope.$apply(function(){$http.post("http://picjboss.puma.lan:8880/fluxpousse/api/flow/createOrUpdateHeader", flowHeader).success(function(data){console.log("error "+data)}).error(function(data){console.log("error "+data)})}) It returns : undefined EDIT The post I am trying to solve generate an HTTP 400. Here is the result : Request URL:http://picjboss.puma.lan:8880/fluxpousse/api/flow/createOrUpdateHeader Request Method:POST Status Code:400 Mauvaise Requ?te Request Headersview source Accept:application/json, text/plain, / Accept-Encoding:gzip,deflate,sdch Accept-Language:fr-FR,fr;q=0.8,en-US;q=0.6,en;q=0.4 Connection:keep-alive Content-Length:5354 Content-Type:application/json;charset=UTF-8 Cookie:JSESSIONID=285AF523EA18C0D7F9D581CDB2286C56 Host:picjboss.puma.lan:8880 Origin:http://picjboss.puma.lan:8880 Referer:http://picjboss.puma.lan:8880/fluxpousse/ User-Agent:Mozilla/5.0 (Windows NT 6.1; WOW64) AppleWebKit/537.36 (KHTML, like Gecko) Chrome/30.0.1599.101 Safari/537.36 X-Requested-With:XMLHttpRequest Request Payloadview source {refHeader:IDSFP, idEntrepot:619, codeEntreprise:null, codeBanniere:null, codeArticle:7,…} cessionPrice: 78 codeArticle: "7" codeBanniere: null codeDateAppro: null codeDateDelivery: null codeDatePrepa: null codeEntreprise: null codeFournisseur: null codeUtilisateur: null codeUtilisateurLastUpdate: null createDate: null dateAppro: null dateDelivery: null datePrepa: null hasAssortControl: null hasCadenceForce: null idEntrepot: 619 isFreeCost: null labelArticle: "Mayonnaise de DIJON" labelFournisseur: null listDetail: [,…] pcbArticle: 12 pvc: 78 qte: 78 refCommande: "ref" refHeader: "IDSFP" state: "CREATED" stockArticle: 1200 updateDate: null Response Headersview source Connection:close Content-Length:996 Content-Type:text/html;charset=utf-8 Date:Fri, 08 Nov 2013 15:19:30 GMT Server:Apache-Coyote/1.1 X-Powered-By:Servlet 2.5; JBoss-5.0/JBossWeb-2.1

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• wpf observableCollection

  - by Asha

  I have an ObservableCollection which is dataContext for my treeview when I try to remove an Item from ObservableCollection I will get an error that Object reference not set to an instance of an object . can you please tell me why this error is happening and what is the solution thanks EDIT 1: The code is something like : class MyClass : INotifyPropertyChanged { //my class code here } public partial class UC_myUserControl : UserControl { private ObservableCollection<MyClass> myCollection = new ObservableCollection<MyClass>(); private void UserControl_Loaded(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { myCollection.add(new myClass); myTreeView.DataContext = myCollection ; } private void deleteItem() { myCollection.RemoveAt(0); //after removing I get error Which I guess should be something related //to interface update but I don't know how can I solve it } } Exception Detail : System.NullReferenceException was unhandled Message="Object reference not set to an instance of an object." Source="PresentationFramework" EDIT 3: I have a style which is for my treeitem to keep the treeitems expanded <Style TargetType="TreeViewItem"> <Setter Property="IsExpanded" Value="True" /> </Style> and with commenting this part I wont get any error !!! Now I want to change my question to why having this style is causing error ?

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• How can I send rich emails using the user's mail client ?

  - by Brann

  I need my .net program to send rich emails (usually containing table data, around 20 columns x 10 rows) using the user's mail infrastructure, allowing him to review/edit the mail before sending it, and storing the mail in his 'sent items' folder. mailto: seems the obvious choice, but unfortunately, it doesn't support neither attachments nor html bodies. It seems some clients support some extra features (e.g. Outlook 97 used to support a &Attach tag, but this is not the case for more recent versions). I could use mailto and try to format the text body to look nice (using tabs, etc), but this isn't really elegant and wouldn't support huge data. using automation seems a very huge task, as I would need to automate dozens of clients (4 or 5 versions of outlook, lotusnotes, thunderbid, etc.) ... This would be a huge task and it's not really my core business ... I could send emails through code and write my own mail form to let the user edit the mail, but this would have a lot of drawbacks : the user would need to manually configure the mail server settings he wouldn't have access to his contact directory the mail wouldn't be sent in his sent items folder This seems a quite common issue, but I haven't found any satisfying solution yet ; does someone knows of a library supporting this (ie containing automation logic for most mainstream email clients?). Or an alternative to mailto ?

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• Elegantly determine if more than one boolean is "true"

  - by Ola Tuvesson

  I have a set of five boolean values. If more than one of these are true I want to excecute a particular function. What is the most elegant way you can think of that would allow me to check this condition in a single if() statement? Target language is C# but I'm interested in solutions in other languages as well (as long as we're not talking about specific built-in functions). One interesting option is to store the booleans in a byte, do a right shift and compare with the original byte. Something like if(myByte && (myByte 1)) But this would require converting the separate booleans to a byte (via a bitArray?) and that seems a bit (pun intended) clumsy... [edit]Sorry, that should have been if(myByte & (myByte - 1)) [/edit] Note: This is of course very close to the classical "population count", "sideways addition" or "Hamming weight" programming problem - but not quite the same. I don't need to know how many of the bits are set, only if it is more than one. My hope is that there is a much simpler way to accomplish this.

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• CanCan polymorphic resource access problem

  - by Call 'naive' True

  Hi everybody, i don't quite understand how to restrict access to links in this particular case with CanCan. I always get "Edit" link displayed. So i believe the problem is in my incorrect definition of cancan methods(load_ and authorize_). I have CommentsController like that: class CommentsController < ApplicationController before_filter :authenticate_user! load_resource :instance_name => :commentable authorize_resource :article def index @commentable = find_commentable #loading our generic object end ...... private def find_commentable params.each { |name, value| if name =~ /(.+)_id$/ return $1.classify.constantize.includes(:comments => :karma).find(value) end } end end and i have in comments/index.html.erb following code that render file from other controller: <%= render :file => "#{get_commentable_partial_name(@commentable)}/show.html.erb", :collection => @commentable %> you can think about "#{get_commentable_partial_name(@commentable)}" like just "articles" in this case. Content of "articles/show.html.erb": <% if can? :update, @commentable %> <%= link_to 'Edit', edit_article_path(@commentable) %> | <% end %> my ability.rb: class Ability include CanCan::Ability def initialize(user) user ||= User.new # guest user if user.role? :admin can :manage, :all elsif user.role? :author can :read, [Article, Comment, Profile] can :update, Article, :user_id => user.id end end end relations with models is: class Comment < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :commentable, :polymorphic => true, :dependent => :destroy ... end class Article < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :comments, :as => :commentable, :dependent => :destroy ... end i have tried debug this issue like that user = User.first article = Article.first ability = Ability.new(user) ability.can?(:update, article) and i always get "= true" in ability check Note: user.role == author and article.user_id != user.id if you need more information please write thank's for your time && sorry for my english

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• MySQL - Structure for Permissions to Objects

  - by Kerry

  What would be an ideal structure for users permissions of objects. I've seen many related posts for general permissions, or what sections a user can access, which consists of a users, userGroups and userGroupRelations or something of that nature. In my system there are many different objects that can get created, and each one has to be able to be turned on or off. For instance, take a password manager that has groups and sub groups. Group 1 Group 2 Group 3 Group 4 Group 5 Group 6 Group 7 Group 8 Group 9 Group 10 Each group can contain a set of passwords. A user can be given read, write, edit and delete permissions to any group. More groups can get created at any point in time. If someone has permission to a group, I should be able to make him have permissions to all sub groups OR restrict it to just that group. My current thought is to have a users table, and then a permissions table with columns like: permission_id (int) PRIMARY_KEY user_id (int) INDEX object_id (int) INDEX type (varchar) INDEX read (bool) write (bool) edit (bool) delete (bool) This has worked in the past, but the new system I'm building needs to be able to scale rapidly, and I am unsure if this is the best structure. It also makes the idea of having someone with all subgroup permissions of a group more difficult. So, as a question, should I use the above structure? Or can someone point me in the direction of a better one?

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• Select ID in table ...

  - by Kris-I

  Hello, I have this code <% foreach (var item in Model.List) { %> <tr> <td><%: item.LastName %></td> <td><%: item.FirstName %></td> <td><%: item.IsEnable %></td> <td><a href="#" class="CustomerEdit">Edit</a></td> <td><a href="#" class="CustomerDetail">Detail</a></td> <td><a href="#" class="CustomerDelete">Delete</a></td> </tr> <% } %> <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $(".CustomerEdit").click(function () { alert("blabla"); //need id here }); }); </script> It's not in the code but I have an "Item.Id", it's not place anywhere because I don't know where place it ;-). I'd like when I click on the "Edit" hyperlink get the id (item.Id) of the current line. Any idea ? Thanks,

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• TextBox change is not saved to DataTable

  - by SeaDrive

  I'm having trouble with a simple table edit in a Winform application. I must have missed a step. I have a DataSet containing a DataTable connected to a database with a SqlDataAdapter. There is a SqlCommandBuilder on the SqlDataAdapter. On the form, there are TextBoxes which are bound to the DataTable. The binding was done in the Designer and it machine-produced statements like this: this.tbLast.DataBindings.Add(new System.Windows.Forms.Binding("Text", this.belkData, "belk_mem.last", true)); When I fill the row in the DataTable, the values from the database appear in the textboxes, but when I change contents of the TextBox, the changes are apparently not being going to the DataTable. When I try to save change both of the following return null: DataTable dtChanges = dtMem.GetChanges(); DataSet dsChanges = belkData.GetChanges(); What did I forget? Edit - response to mrlucmorin: The save is under a button. Code is: BindingContext[belkData, "belk_mem"].EndCurrentEdit(); try { DataSet dsChanges = belkData.GetChanges(); if (dsChanges != null) { int nRows = sdaMem.Update(dsChanges); MessageBox.Show("Row(s) Updated: " + nRows.ToString()); belkData.AcceptChanges(); } else { MessageBox.Show("Nothing to save.", "No changes"); } } catch (Exception ex) { MessageBox.Show("Error: " + ex.Message); } I've tried putting in these statements without any change in behavior: dtMem.AcceptChanges(); belkData.AcceptChanges();

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• How exactly do MbUnit's [Parallelizable] and DegreeOfParallelism work?

  - by BenA

  I thought I understood how MbUnit's parallel test execution worked, but the behaviour I'm seeing differs sufficiently much from my expectation that I suspect I'm missing something! I have a set of UI tests that I wish to run concurrently. All of the tests are in the same assembly, split across three different namespaces. All of the tests are completely independent of one another, so I'd like all of them to be eligible for parallel execution. To that end, I put the following in the AssemblyInfo.cs: [assembly: DegreeOfParallelism(8)] [assembly: Parallelizable(TestScope.All)] My understanding was that this combination of assembly attributes should cause all of the tests to be considered [Parallelizable], and that the test runner should use 8 threads during execution. My individual tests are marked with the [Test] attribute, and nothing else. None of them are data-driven. However, what I actually see is at most 5-6 threads being used, meaning that my test runs are taking longer than they should be. Am I missing something? Do I need to do anything else to ensure that all of my 8 threads are being used by the runner? N.B. The behaviour is the same irrespective of which runner I use. The GUI, command line and TD.Net runners all behave the same as described above, again leading me to think I've missed something. EDIT: As pointed out in the comments, I'm running v3.1 of MbUnit (update 2 build 397). The documentation suggests that the assembly level [parallelizable] attribute is available, but it does also seem to reference v3.2 of the framework despite that not yet being available. EDIT 2: To further clarify, the structure of my assembly is as follows: assembly - namespace - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - namespace - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - namespace - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute)

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• PHP Preserve scope when calling a function

  - by Joshua

  I have a function that includes a file based on the string that gets passed to it i.e. the action variable from the query string. I use this for filtering purposes etc so people can't include files they shouldn't be able to and if the file doesn't exist a default file is loaded instead. The problem is that when the function runs and includes the file scope, is lost because the include ran inside a function. This becomes a problem because I use a global configuration file, then I use specific configuration files for each module on the site. The way I'm doing it at the moment is defining the variables I want to be able to use as global and then adding them into the top of the filtering function. Is there any easier way to do this, i.e. by preserving scope when a function call is made or is there such a thing as PHP macros? Edit: Would it be better to use extract($_GLOBALS); inside my function call instead? Edit 2: For anyone that cared. I realised I was over thinking the problem altogether and that instead of using a function I should just use an include, duh! That way I can keep my scope and have my cake too.

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• To OpenID or not to OpenID? Is it worth it?

  - by Eloff

  Does OpenID improve the user experience? Edit Not to detract from the other comments, but I got one really good reply below that outlined 3 advantages of OpenID in a rational bottom line kind of way. I've also heard some whisperings in other comments that you can get access to some details on the user through OpenID (name? email? what?) and that using that it might even be able to simplify the registration process by not needing to gather as much information. Things that definitely need to be gathered in a checkout process: Full name Email (I'm pretty sure I'll have to ask for these myself) Billing address Shipping address Credit card info There may be a few other things that are interesting from a marketing point of view, but I wouldn't ask the user to manually enter anything not absolutely required during the checkout process. So what's possible in this regard? /Edit (You may have noticed stackoverflow uses OpenID) It seems to me it is easier and faster for the user to simply enter a username and password in a signup form they have to go through anyway. I mean you don't avoid entering a username and password either with OpenID. But you avoid the confusion of choosing a OpenID provider, and the trip out to and back from and external site. With Microsoft making Live ID an OpenID provider (More Info), bringing on several hundred million additional accounts to those provided by Google, Yahoo, and others, this question is more important than ever. I have to require new customers to sign up during the checkout process, and it is absolutely critical that the experience be as easy and smooth as possible, every little bit harder it becomes translates into lost sales. No geek factor outweighs cold hard cash at the end of the day :) OpenID seems like a nice idea, but the implementation is of questionable value. What are the advantages of OpenID and is it really worth it in my scenario described above?

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• Problem when use compiled .A with simulator mode

  - by Paska

  Hi all, i have a lib .a that run only in device mode. My sdk vers is 4.2 with xcode 3.2.x. In simulator, compile correctle with no warning and no errors, but in run mode (simulator) it crash with this error: Detected an attempt to call a symbol in system libraries that is not present on the iPhone: strtod$UNIX2003 called from function pj_init in image MyAPP. If you are encountering this problem running a simulator binary within gdb, make sure you 'set start-with-shell off' first Program received signal: “SIGABRT”. I try to clean, rebuild and set "set start-with-shell off" from terminal in this way: cd ~ echo '' >> .gdbinit echo 'set start-with-shell 0' >> .gdbinit Restarted all, but nothing. The problem don't wont to resolve! Is there any tag or property that i forgotted to set in the options? In other linker flag is there only "-ObjC". It's very important to solve this issue... any idea please? thanks, A EDIT: It's my lib, compiled in simulator mode! EDIT: It run only with Simulator 4.1. Don't work with iphone 4.0, 4.2 and ipad 3.2 (all simulator).

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• git: remove 2nd commit

  - by cwolves

  I'm trying to remove the 2nd commit to a repo. At this point I could just blow away the .git dir and re-do it, but I'm curious how to do this... I've deleted commits before, but apparently never the 2nd one :) > git log commit c39019e4b08497406c53ceb532f99801793205ca Author: Me Date: Thu Mar 22 14:02:41 2012 -0700 Initializing registry directories commit 535dce28f1c68e8af9d22bc653aca426fb7825d8 Author: Me Date: Tue Jan 31 21:04:13 2012 -0800 First Commit > git rebase -i HEAD~2 fatal: Needed a single revision invalid upstream HEAD~2 > git rebase -i HEAD~1 at which point I get in my editor: pick c39019e Initializing registry directories # Rebase 535dce2..c39019e onto 535dce2 # # Commands: # p, pick = use commit # r, reword = use commit, but edit the commit message # e, edit = use commit, but stop for amending # s, squash = use commit, but meld into previous commit # f, fixup = like "squash", but discard this commit's log message # x, exec = run command (the rest of the line) using shell # # If you remove a line here THAT COMMIT WILL BE LOST. # However, if you remove everything, the rebase will be aborted. # Now my problem is that I can't just blow away this 2nd commit since "if you remove everything, the rebase will be aborted"

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• Writing to the DataContext

  - by user738383

  I have a function. This function takes an IEnumerable<Customer> (Customer being an entity). What the function needs to do is tell the DataContext (which has a collection of Customers as a property) that its Customers property needs to be overwritten with this passed in IEnumerable<Customer>. I can't use assignment because DomainContext.Customers cannot be assigned to, as it is read only. I guess it's not clear what I'm asking, so I suppose I should say... how do I do that? So we have DataContext.Customers (of type System.Data.Linq.Table) which wants to be replaced with a System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable. I can't just assign the latter to the former because DataContext's properties are read only. But there must be a way. Edit: here's an image: Further edit: Yes, this image does not feature a collection of the type 'Customer' but rather 'Connection'. It doesn't matter though, they are both created from tables within the linked SQL database. So there is a dc.Connections, a dc.Customers, a dc.Media and so on. Thanks in advance.

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• Javascript onclick() event bubbling - working or not?

  - by user1071914

  I have a table in which the table row tag is decorated with an onclick() handler. If the row is clicked anywhere, it will load another page. In one of the elements on the row, is an anchor tag which also leads to another page. The desired behavior is that if they click on the link, "delete.html" is loaded. If they click anywhere else in the row, "edit.html" is loaded. The problem is that sometimes (according to users) both the link and the onclick() are fired at once, leading to a problem in the back end code. They swear they are not double-clicking. I don't know enough about Javascript event bubbling, handling and whatever to even know where to start with this bizarre problem, so I'm asking for help. Here's a fragment of the rendered page, showing the row with the embedded link and associated script tag. Any suggestions are welcomed: <tr id="tableRow_3339_0" class="odd"> <td class="l"></td> <td>PENDING</td> <td>Yabba Dabba Doo</td> <td>Fred Flintstone</td> <td> <a href="/delete.html?requestId=3339"> <div class="deleteButtonIcon"></div> </a> </td> <td class="r"></td> </tr> <script type="text/javascript">document.getElementById("tableRow_3339_0").onclick = function(event) { window.location = '//edit.html?requestId=3339'; };</script>

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• WPF - Transparency - Stream Desktop Content

  - by Niels Willems

  Greetings I'm in the process of making a Scoreboard for a game (Starcraft II). This scoreboard is being made as a WPF Application with a C# code-behind. I already have a version which works for 90% in WinForms but I lacked the support to easily make it look a lot nicer which are available in WPF. The point of this application will be to form a kind of overlay on top of a running game. This game is in Fulscreen(Windowed Mode) so when in WinForms I coded it so that it should always be on top. It would do so and that was no problem. Since the main look of the app in WPF is based on an image with a transparent background I have set most Background values to Transparent. However when I do this the entire application does not get registered by streaming software. For example it just shows my Desktop or the game I'm playing but not my application even though it IS there. I can see it with my own eyes but the audience on the stream cannot. Does anyone have any experience with this matter because it's really doing my head in. My entire application will be useless if it is not visible on streams. If I have to put the background on a color rather than transparent the UI will be completely demolished as well in terms of looks. I'm basically trying to make a game-overlay in C# & WPF. I have read you can do this on different ways as well but I have little to no knowledge of C++ nor do I know anything about DirectX Thank you for your time reading and your possible insights. Edit: The best solution would be an overlay similar to that one of Steam/Xfire/Dolby Axon. Edit 2: I've had no luck with all the suggestions so I basically made the transparent bits of my image non transparent and let the user decide which one to use depending on what streaming software they would be using.

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• How do i solve A datatable problem in JSF

  - by Nitesh Panchal

  I have a databale on index.xhtml <h:dataTable style="border: solid 2px black;" value="#{IndexBean.bookList}" var="item" binding="#{IndexBean.datatableBooks}"> <h:column> <h:commandButton value="Edit" actionListener="#{IndexBean.editBook}"> <f:param name="index" value="#{IndexBean.datatableBooks.rowIndex}"/> </h:commandButton> </h:column> </h:dataTable> My bean :- @ManagedBean(name="IndexBean") @ViewScoped public class IndexBean implements Serializable { private HtmlDataTable datatableBooks; public HtmlDataTable getDatatableBooks() { return datatableBooks; } public void setDatatableBooks(HtmlDataTable datatableBooks) { this.datatableBooks = datatableBooks; } public void editBook() throws IOException{ int index = Integer.parseInt(FacesContext.getCurrentInstance().getExternalContext().getRequestParameterMap().get("index").toString()); System.out.println(index); } } My problem is i always get the same index in server log even though i click the different edit buttons, Imagine that there is one collection which is supplied to the datatable. I have not shown that in bean. If i change scope from ViewScope to RequestScope it works fine. What can be the problem with @ViewScoped? Thanks in advance :)

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• virtual methods and template classes

  - by soxs060389

  Hi I got over a problem, I think a very specific one. I've got 2 classes, a B aseclass and a D erived class (from B aseclass). B is a template class ( or class template) and has a pure virtual method virutal void work(const T &dummy) = 0; The D erived class is supposed to reimplement this, but as D is Derived from B rather than D being another template class, the compiler spits at me that virtual functions and templates don't work at once. Any ideas how to acomplish what I want? I am thankfull for any thoughts and Ideas, especially if you allready worked out that problem this class is fixed aka AS IS, I can not edit this without breaking existing code base template <typename T> class B { public: ... virtual void work(const T &dummy) = 0; .. }; take int* as an example class D : public B<int*>{ ... virtual void work(const int* &dummy){ /* put work code here */ } .. }; Edit: The compiler tells me, that void B<T>::work(const T&) [with T = int*] is pure virtual within D

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• algorithm to generate maximum number of character 'A' using keystrokes 'A', CTRL + 'A', CTRL + 'C' and CTRL + 'V'

  - by munda

  This is an interview question from google. I am not able to solve it by myself. Can somebody throw some light? The question goes like this. Write a program to print the sequence of keystrokes such that it generates the maximum number of character 'A's. You are allowed to use only 4 keys: 'A', CTRL + 'A', CTRL + 'C' and CTRL + 'V'. Only N keystrokes are allowed. All CTRL+ characters are considered as one keystroke, so CTRL+A is one keystroke. e.g.: A, ctrl+A, ctrl+C, ctrl+V generates two As in 4 keystrokes. Edit: CTRL + A is Select All CTRL + C is copy CTRL + V is paste I did some mathematics. For any N, using x numbers of A's , one CTRL+A, one CTRL+C and y CTRL+V, we can generate max ((N-1)/2)^2 numbers of A's. But for some N M, it is better to use as many ^A, ^C and ^V as it doubles the number of As. Edit 2: ^A, ^V and ^C will not overwrite on the existing selection but it will append the copied selection to selected one.

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• Qt/C++ - confused about caller/callee, object ownership

  - by Isabel

  I am creating a GUI to manipulate a robot arm. The location of the arm can be described by 6 floats (describing the positions of the various arm joints. The interface consists of a QGraphicsView with a diagram of the arm (which can be clicked to change the arm position - adjusting the 6 floats). The interface also has 6 lineEdit boxes, to also adjust those values separately. When the graphics view is clicked, and when the line edit boxes are changed, I'd like the line edit boxes / graphics view to stay in synchronisation. This brings me to confusion about how to store the 6 floats, and trigger events when they're updated. My current idea is this: The robot arm's location should be represented by a class, RobotArmLocation. Objects of this class then have methods such as obj.ShoulderRotation() and obj.SetShoulderRotation(). The MainWindow has a single instance of RobotArmLocation. Next is the bit I'm more confused about, how to join everything up. I am thinking: The MainWindow has a ArmLocationChanged slot. This is signalled whenever the location object is changed. The diagram class will have a SetRobotArmLocation(RobotArmLocation &loc). When the diagram is changed, it's free to change the location object, and fire a signal to the ArmLocationChanged slot. Likewise, changing any of the text boxes will fire a signal to that ArmLocationChanged slot. The slot then has code to synchronise all the elements. This kind of seems like a mess to me, does anyone have any other suggestions? I've also thought of the following, does it have any merrit? The RobotArmLocation class has a ValueChanged slot, the diagram and textboxes can use that directly, and bypass the MainWindow directly (seems cleaner?) thanks for any wisdom!

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• ImageViews sometimes not displaying in FrameLayout activity

  - by Ken

  The top level layout in my activity is a framelayout. I have completed, debugged and tested this app and it works exactly like it should in all respects on my g1 and on various emulators. But on 3.7-inch displays running 2.1+, some imageviews packed in a linearlayout are periodically not visible. I know that they are there because you can touch and drag them with effect in the app. So I assume somehow they have gotten under the SurfaceView that is the main component of the app. This is apparently so even though the SurfaceView is declared in the xml prior to the LinearLayout. However, the ImageViews IN the LinearLayout are added programmatically towards the end of onCreate(). Framelayout stacks everything that is added to it, one on top of the other--the only way you will see more than one child of a frame layout is if they are smaller than the screen and are placed apart from eachother. Oddly, sometimes the imageviews ARE visible--it is random. Anyway, I've been trying to combat this with framelayout.bringChildToFront(View v) on the linearlayout without success. I wonder if anyone has any insight into how the behavior could be random like that, and how I should code these imageviews to keep this from happening, and why the problem appears only to occur on 3.7 vs 3.2 inch screens (as it happens, the two 3.2-inch screens were both htc, so vendor might be factor too). [edit] Actually, I've determined that this is a 2.2 issue, not a screen size (or even vendor) issue. Can't ensure that ImageViews added to a framelayout with a SurfaceView in it will appear on top of the surfaceview. I ran some tests in the respective onDraw() methods and the imageviews are 'visible' (0), and nothing does anything to the alpha of the drawables, which are there as well at ondraw(). [/edit] Any insight would be welcomed. Ken T.

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• PyQt - QLabel inheriting

  - by Ockonal

  Hello, i wanna inherit QLabel to add there click event processing. I'm trying this code: class NewLabel(QtGui.QLabel): def __init__(self, parent): QtGui.QLabel.__init__(self, parent) def clickEvent(self, event): print 'Label clicked!' But after clicking I have no line 'Label clicked!' EDIT: Okay, now I'm using not 'clickEvent' but 'mousePressEvent'. And I still have a question. How can i know what exactly label was clicked? For example, i have 2 edit box and 2 labels. Labels content are pixmaps. So there aren't any text in labels, so i can't discern difference between labels. How can i do that? EDIT2: I made this code: class NewLabel(QtGui.QLabel): def __init__(self, firstLabel): QtGui.QLabel.__init__(self, firstLabel) def mousePressEvent(self, event): print 'Clicked' #myLabel = self.sender() # None =) self.emit(QtCore.SIGNAL('clicked()'), "Label pressed") In another class: self.FirstLang = NewLabel(Form) QtCore.QObject.connect(self.FirstLang, QtCore.SIGNAL('clicked()'), self.labelPressed) Slot in the same class: def labelPressed(self): print 'in labelPressed' print self.sender() But there isn't sender object in self. What i did wrong?

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• routes as explained in RoR tutorial 2nd Ed?

  - by 7stud

  The author, Michael Hartl, says: Here the rule: get "static_pages/home" maps requests for the URI /static_pages/home to the home action in the StaticPages controller. How? The type of request is given, the url is given, but where is the mapping to a controller and action? My tests all pass, though. I also tried deleting all the actions in the StaticPagesController, which just looks like this: class StaticPagesController < ApplicationController def home end def about end def help end def contact end end ...and my tests still pass, which is puzzling. The 2nd edition of the book(online) is really frustrating. Specifically, the section about making changes to the Guardfile is impossible to follow. For instance, if I instruct you to edit this file: blah blah blah dog dog dog beetle beetle beetle jump jump jump and make these changes: blah blah blah . . . go go go . . . jump jump jump ...would you have any idea where the line 'go go go' should be in the code? And the hint for exercise 3.5-1 is flat out wrong. If the author would put up a comment section at the end of every chapter, the rails community could self-edit the book.

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• Am I trying to Implement Multiple Inheritance. How can I do this.

  - by Shantanu Gupta

  I have created a class say A which has some functions defined as protected. Now Class B inherits A and class C inherits B. Class A has private default constructor and protected parameterized constructor. I want Class B to be able to access all the protected functions defined in Class A but class C can have access on some of the functions only not all the functions and class C is inheriting class B. How can I restrict access to some of the functions of Class A from Class C ? EDIT: namespace Db { public Class A { private A(){} protected A(string con){assign this value} protected DataTable getTable(){return Table;} protected Sqlparameters setParameters(){return parameter;} } } namespace Data { public Class B:A { protected B():base("constring"){} protected DataTable output(){return getTable();} protected sqlparameter values(param IDataParameter[] parameter){} } } namespace Bsns { public Class C:B { protected C():base(){} protected DataTable show() {return values(setparameter());} } } EDIT I think what I am trying to do here is Multiple inheritance. Please check. Class A { //suppose 10 functions are declared } Class B:A { //5 functions declared which are using A's function in internal body } Class C:B { //using all functions of B but require only 4 functions of A to be accessible by C. }

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• cannot modify header information puzzler

  - by outofmyleague_lucy

  hi im out of my league i have written what has now become identical code for two sites hosted on different servers. the first worked perfectly and i have therefore used it to compare the second to.from a login for i am directing to a loginaction.php when i include the db_connect.php ie <?php session_start(); include 'db_connect.php'; $user=$_POST['formUser'] $password=$_POST['formPassword']etc ? i am returning cannot modify header information header info already sent, but when i include the content of the db_connect ie <?php session_start(); $connect = mysql_connect("localhost", "user", "pass"); mysql_select_db(db_name, $connection); $user=$_POST['formUser'] $password=$_POST['formPassword']etc ? it works. any ideas? edit - requested error message Warning: Cannot modify header information - headers already sent by (output started at /home/avenncou/public_html/include/db_connect.php:4) in /home/avenncou/public_html/include/loginaction.php on line 14 at line 14 the is a header("Location: {$_SERVER["HTTP_REFERER"]}"); edit - requested db_connect.php <?php $connection = mysql_connect("localhost", "user", "pass");// or die ("Unable to connect!"); mysql_select_db("db", $connection);// or die ("Unable to select database!"); ?> that is all of it (dies commented out in case thats where the error was)!!!

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